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IRT Quiz Questions > GB del Gougo > Flashcards

GB del Gougo Flashcards

1
Q

What are the alternate minima for IFR flights? (weather)

A

1 aid required: more than SCT below HAA/HAT + 500’ and vis less than plate + 2000m

2 aid: more than SCT below HAA/HAT + 500’ for app procedure with 2nd lowest MDA/DH available to aircraft type and 2nd lowest vis available + 2000m

No inst app alt min: LSALT for final route segment + 500’ and 8km vis

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2
Q

How soon after receipt of a radar heading instruction must a pilot turn?

A

Immediately commence rate one turn (unless otherwise instructed)

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3
Q

When should you advise ATC of a change in departure time?

A

At least 30min before ETD to prevent delays

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4
Q

What are the emergency SSR codes?

A

EMER 7700
Comm fail 7600
Unlawful interference 7500

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5
Q

May captain of an aircraft use the circling areas of a higher category aircraft?

A

Yes, where limitations of higher cat are complied with and aerodrome in sight.

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6
Q

What minimum obstacle clearance is the missed approach designed to provide?

A

Min 100’, MAP path at gradient of 2.5% (152ft/nm)

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7
Q

Can a non-standard cruise level be approved in either CTA or OCTA?

A

Pilots may request non-conforming level if operational requirement. Phrase “due operational requirement”. Essential to safety of flight and occupants

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8
Q

When is pilot permitted to make a turn opposite to the direction of the circuit?

A

Well outside the circuit area and no conflict exists (usually 3NM)

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9
Q

A pilot may discontinue or need not commence inst approach when:

A

Day: within 30nm of aerodrome at alt not below route LSALT/MSA, DME/GPS steps or MDA, and a/c established;

  • clear of cloud
  • in sight ground/water
  • vis not less than 5000m
  • maintain first 3 at alt not less than 500ft above lower limit of CTA

Night: at alt not below route LSALT/MSA, DME/GPS steps or MDA, and a/c established;
-clear of cloud
- in sight ground/water
- vis not less than 5000m
-maintain first 3 and alt not less than 500ft above lower limit of CTA
and one of the following
-If prescribed approach, within circling area
-if no approach, within 3NM and aerodrome in sight
- within 5NM (7nm for rwy with ILS) of aerodrome, aligned and established on centreline and not below slope for T-VASI or PAPI
-within 10nm of aerodrome, est not below ILS gpath, with less than full scale deflection

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10
Q

How is the circling area calculated for cat c aircraft?

A

4.2nm arcs from each RWY threshold, joined by tangents.

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11
Q

If a forecast is required but cannot be obtained, can the flight continue?

A

Yes if pilot thinks weather at departure will allow safe return within 1hr of departure. Flight can also continue if forecast for destination obtained within 30 min of departure.
Also can depart if an alternate meets the requirements.

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12
Q

What is the rated coverage of NDB’s, VOR’s, and DME’s?

A 
NDB: published in ERSA 
VOR/DME/TACAN: 
<5000’ 60NM
5000 - 10000’ 90NM 
10000 - 15000’ 120NM 
15000 - 20000’ 150NM 
>20000’ 180NM

LLZ at 2000agl within +- 10deg
of course line: 25NM
<5000’ 30 NM
>5000’ 50NM

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13
Q

Define INTER, TEMPO, FM and BECMG

A

Inter: frequent changes, conditions fluctuating constantly for periods < 30 and not expected to cover more than half the given period.

Tempo: change in prevailing conditions to last periods of 30 - 60 mins in each instance and not expected to cover more than half the given period.

FM: changes expected at the specified time

BECMG: changes expected to develop at regular and irregular rate during specified times period

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14
Q

What must a pilot study before flight?

A
  • Weather for route and aerodromes
  • Airways facilities and their condition
  • Suitability of aerodromes being used
  • ATC rules and procs for the flight
  • head office NOTAMs and location NOTAMs
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15
Q

VFR flight on top of SCT (4/8ths) cloud is available provided that:

A

Visual position fixing every 30 min, or using IFR nav method

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16
Q

How is LSALT calculated in accordance with GPA?

A

Where highest obstacle >360’ above terrain, LSALT 1000’ above highest obstacle

Highest obstacle <360’, LSALT 1360’ above terrain

If elevation of highest terrain <500’amsl, LSALT not less than 1500’

LSALT rounded up to nearest 100’

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17
Q

When weather conditions deteriorate temporarily/intermittently, when is an alternate not required?

A

If appropriate holding fuel is carried. Carry for most limiting requirement, noting inter and tempo don’t stack up. Fuel must be carried if ETA is 30 min before start or after end of deteriorations, except for first 3 hours of TAF3?

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18
Q

When must a missed approach be executed?

A
  • navaid our of tolerance on finals
  • below MSA, navaid suspect/fails
  • not visual by MAPt
  • Lansing can’t be effected from RWY approach (unless circling can be done)
  • lose visual reference while circling
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19
Q

What are the take off minima for PC21 ops?

A

300’ cloud ceiling

2000m vis

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20
Q

When must a VFR or IFR military aircraft submit a flight plan?

A

Planned to take place in or nearby CTA except those originating in military CTR and remaining in local flying training area.

Flights proceeding to another airfield, except where destination is also in same military CTR.

Flights conducted outside of local training area.

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21
Q

In CTA, how soon after receiving an ATC instruction must the pilot commence a level change?

A

ASAP, no later than 1min

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22
Q

Within what distance of a facility can an aircraft deviate from track being flown for the purpose of a instrument landing?

A

25NM or 10nm (use appropriate MSA) to deviate from track for purpose of entering an instrument approach.

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23
Q

What are the alternate nav aid requirements for military aircraft?

A

Alternate required unless:
Destination served by navaid with prescribed approach and aircraft has 2 independent nav systems capable of using that aid
OR destination served by 2 navaids with independent approaches that aircraft has seperate nav systems which can use those aids.
OR by day only, no navaid, no more than SCT cloud below final route segment LSALT + 500 and vis >8km, aircraft can be navigated with IFR nav rules

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24
Q

When is captain exempt from having to provide a suitable alternate aerodrome?

A

When operating VFR by day within 50NM from point of departure

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25
Q

When does outbound timing commence in a holding pattern?

A

Abeam fix or when outbound HDG attained, whichever comes later.

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26
Q

In VMC, pilot of IFR a/c may request a vis departure. What requirements must be met for pilot to request and ATC to offer?

A

Pilot: request only if cloud base will allow a/c to climb in VMC to MSA/LSALT for departure. If intended cruising level is lower than route LSALT, cloud base must permit VMC flight at that level.

ATC: will only issue when cloud base allows pilot to maintains flight in VMC below MVA or LSALT/MSA. When given alt/hdg instructions below MVA/MSA/LSALT, “visual” will be appended to departure.

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27
Q

How accurate must time reference be?

A

+/- 30 sec

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28
Q

Can a pilot of a VFR aircraft navigate by any other means than visual reference when below 2000’?

A

No

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29
Q

What are the landing minima for aerodromes without an approved instrument approach procedure? (IFR day and IFR night)

A

IFR day: visual approach requirements

IFR night: VMC from LSALT within 3NM

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30
Q

What are the speed limitations for holding?

A

FL200: 265kts

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31
Q

What are the VFR and IFR cruising levels in Australia

A

East odds, west evens
IFR every 1000’, VFR every 1000’ + 500’
000 - east - 179
180 - west - 359

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32
Q

When can aircraft be flown with altimeter error greater than required accuracy?

A

Error between 60’ - 75’, IFR flight to first point of landing, where accuracy rechecked. One altimeter has to be within 60’.

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33
Q

Are allowances for heading and/or timing permissible during a reversal procedure?

A

Allowance should be made in heading and timing to compensate for wind

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34
Q

When may VFR or IFR flights operate on reporting schedules?

A 
Mercy flights 
Flood, famine, fire relief flights
Search and rescue flights 
Over water flights 
Military flights
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35
Q

Heights measured from 1013.25 datum must be expressed as what?

A

“Flight level”

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36
Q

If a missed approach is carried out prior to the MAPt, what track should be flown?

A

Pilot to fly a/c to MAPt and then follow MAP procedure.

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37
Q

White cross, double cross and dumbbell ground sign meanings

A

White cross: aerodrome U/S
Double cross: gliding ops in progress
Dumbbell: hard surface movements only

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38
Q

State VMC criteria for class C, D, E and G airspace

A

C: above 10000’, 8km vis, 1500m horizontal and 1000’ vertical clear of cloud
Below 10000’, 5km vis, same cloud restrictions

D: 5km vis, 600m horizontal, 1000’ above and 500’ below cloud

E: same as class C

G: above 10000’, same as class C 
Below 10000’, same as class C 
At/below 3000amsl or 1000agl, whichever is higher, 5km vis, clear of cloud, in sight ground or water, require radio
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39
Q

Purpose of special VFR?

A

For entering or leaving CTR in conditions < VMC

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40
Q

A positive radio fix is one determined by the passage of the aircraft over:

A 
NDB
VOR/TACAN 
DME 
GNSS meeting req’s of OAA 
intersection of 2 or more position lines intersecting at angles >45deg, obtained from NDB/VOR/TACAN//DME in any combo within rated range.
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41
Q

An aircraft must not descend below the LSALT or MSA for the route segment being flown, until it has arrived over the IAF faculty, except when…

A

Except when complying with requirements of visual approach, when doing published DME/GPS arrives procedure, or when identified and assigned alt by ATC.

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42
Q

VFR altimeters should read within how many feet of nominated altitude?

A

100’ of site elevation with actual QNH, (110’ for test sites above 3300’)

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43
Q

What is the definition of night?

A

Period of time between end of evening civil twilight and beginning of morning civil twilight (centre of sun 6 deg below horizon)

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44
Q

What are the alternate minims for VFR flights?

A

VFR (day or night) alt min

Ceiling of 1500’ and 8km vis

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45
Q

What are pilots responsibilities when assigned to follow another arriving aircraft?

A

When pilot reports sighting maintain separation and not overtake. Pilot also to provide wake turbulence separation (ATC will wake separate landing a/c).

If you lose sight, notify ATC immediately.

46
Q

An IFR flight must provide a suitable alternate unless:

A

Dest has radio nav aid and jet has 2 seperate systems capable of using, OR
dest has 2 radio nav aids and jet has seperate system for both OR
by day only, no navaid, no more than SCT cloud below final route segment LSALT + 500 and vis 8km and jet can be nav to aerodrome IAW IFR nav rules

For perm lighting, alternate planned unless standby power or portable lighting and a responsible person in attendance.
For PAL, must have standby power and responsible person in attendance.
Portable lighting, must have responsible person in attendance.

Cloud: for app req 1 aid, no more than SCT below HAA/HAT + 500’.
For app req 2 aid, no more than SCT below HAA/HAT + 500’ for app with 2nd lowest MDA/DH available

Vis less than plate + 2000m and 2nd lowest plate + 2000m for app req 2 aids.

47
Q

When would IFR altimeter be considered unserviceable when you have actual QNH?

A

Error > +/- 75’

48
Q

What are the landing minima for aerodromes with an approved instrument approach procedure? (NPA and PA)

A

NPA: IFR by day + night:
Minima specified on chart, unless HIAL not working + 900m

PA: published minima with some lighting exceptions

49
Q

Area QNH’s of adjoining areas can vary by max of how many hPa?

A

5 hPa

50
Q

What is the bank angle and max allowable speed for a SID?

A

Unless otherwise specified:

  • 15 deg average AoB
  • 290kts max speed for turning departures
51
Q

Whose responsibility is obstacle/terrain avoidance whilst below LSALT or MSA?

A

Pilot’s responsibility, except when ATC assign level using ATS terrain clearance procs prior to handover of responsibility/vis or inst app commenced

52
Q

What factor determines the correct sector entry to be flown and what buffer is applied?

A

Heading determines the sector entry. A 5 deg buffer applies on either side of sector “boundaries”

53
Q

When may special VFR be authorised in CTR or CTA next to CTR?

A

ATC responsible for CTR may issue at pilot request for purpose of leaving and entering, provided it will not delay an IFR flight

54
Q

After T/O, by what point must you be established on track?

A

Within 5NM, except where following a SID

55
Q

IFR altimeters should read within how many feet of nominated altitude?

A

60’ with actual QNH

56
Q

What are the normal and maximum descent gradients for a non-precision approach in the various segments?

A 
Arrival: as required 
Initial: normal 4%, max 8%
Intermediate: normal level, max 5%
Final: NPA normal 5.2%, max 6.5%
          Precision normal 3 deg, max n/a
57
Q

What are the limits of clearances given in CTA?

A

Authorises flight in specified manner until first point a/c leaves CTA or if completely in CTA, the first landing point.

58
Q

What is the reference for cloud based in TAF’s, TTF’s, ARFOR’s, etc

A

TAF/TTF: above aerodrome elevation

All others: flight level/above MSL

59
Q

What bank angles are inst approach procedures based on?

A

25 deg AoB or AoB for rate one turn, whichever is less

60
Q

What 4 areas must be considered when planning a suitable alternate?

A

Weather, radio nav aids, RWY lighting, nominated flight rules

61
Q

Define obstacle clearance altitude for a precision approach, a non precision approach and visual circling

A

Prec app: lowest alt that MAP initiated to comply with obstacle clearance criteria
Non-prec app: lowest alt that a/c can’t descend below without infringing obstacle clearance
Circling: lowest alt above aerodrome elevation in accordance with obstacle clearance criteria

62
Q

If FM or BECMG introduce/remove operational requirements, how long before/after do the requirements take effect?

A

FM or BECMG creating requirement, op requirement effective 30 min before.

FM or BECMG removing requirement, op requirement still effective 30 min after.

63
Q

What is a standard rate climb or descent?

A

RoC/RoD not less than 500fpm, expect last 1000’ of climb/descent ‘shall’ be made at 500fpm

64
Q

When may an aircraft commence an approach without conducting a sector entry?

A

Controlled airspace: when cleared by ATC

Any airspace:

  • if entry requirements for reversal procedures (ENR 1.5 2.7) are satisfied, or
  • A DME arc is joined at or before the IAF and not below the MSA or sector DME arrival step, or
  • the en route track to the procedure is with 30 deg of the first track of the procedure
  • for procedures using GNSS, the aircraft is tracking to an initial waypoint from within the capture region, or is being vectored to intercept final or is tracking intermediate fix.
65
Q

What period of validity must the aerodrome forecast have?

A

Forecasts must cover period of flight and aerodrome forecasts valid for 30min prior and 60 min after planned ETA

66
Q

For what period must the pilot ensure that non-PAL is operated?

A

Departure: 10 min before ETD to 30min after T/O

Arrival: 30 min before ETA to time taxiing completed.

67
Q

Meanings of different light signals to aircraft?

A

Green: cleared T/O and cleared land
Flashing green: return to land and cleared to taxi
Red: continue circling and give way, and stop where you are on ground
Flashing red: aerodrome U/S so don’t land, and vacate RWY on ground
Flashing white: return to starting point

68
Q

To stay in CTA, how high above lower limit of CTA steps should you be?

A

At least 500’ above lower limit

69
Q

May the captain of an aircraft use the speeds of a higher category aircraft?

A

Yes, must increase cat when actual handing speeds are in excess of those for category (based on Vat)

70
Q

What is the climb gradient on a missed approach?

A

2.5% (152’/NM) with 100’ obstacle clearance

71
Q

Max time between positive fixes for IFR flights?

A

2 hours

72
Q

What are three types of icing, temps and requirements for their formations and associated hazards?

A

Clear: 0 to -10 deg, from large super cooled water droplets (SCWD). Most hazardous, can build up faster than de-icing equip can remove. Detrimental to control

Mixed: -10 to -20, from mixed sizes of SCWD. Hazardous, can be difficult to remove and impairs control.

Rome: below -20, from small SCWD, less hazardous due to slower buildup

73
Q

Aircraft should only conduct SI approaches at uncontrolled aerodromes in accordance with following requirements

A

SI approaches must give way to other cct a/c and must not disrupt other cct traffic

74
Q

Outside what tracking tolerances must a pilot inform ATC?

A

VOR/TACAN: 1/2 scale CDI deflection or more
NDB: +/- 5 deg from specified bearing
DME: +/- 2nm from arc
RNAV: outside required RNP (0.3nm on final)
Vis ref to ground/water: outside 1nm from cleared track

75
Q

When may ATC authorise a visual approach (IFR day and night, VFR)?

A

IFR by day:

  • a/c within 30nm of aerodrome
  • pilot established, can continue to aerodrome with continuous reference to ground or water
  • vis not less than 5000m

IFR by night: same as by day but including
- receiving ATS surveillance, and assigned MVA, given HDG and tracking instructions to intercept final or position a/c within circling area

VFR: within 30NM

76
Q

Below what respective QNHs are FL110, FL115, FL120 and FL125 not available?

A

1013
997
980
963

77
Q

What is an a/c’s performance category based on?

A

Based of Vat. Vat = IAS at threshold, which is equal to Vso x 1.3 or Vs1g x 1.23 (whichever is higher) at max landing weight in landing configuration.

Unless a/c handling speeds are in excess of that category.

78
Q

What are the the descent below MDA requirements for visual circling?

A
  • maintain a/c in circling area
  • vis >= min specified on plate
  • maintain vis with RWY
  • day or night, intercept downwind, base, final, commence continuous descent whilst maintaining obstacle clearance for aircraft category until aligned with RWY
  • day: maintain vis with obstacles on flight path until aligned with RWY
79
Q

What track is flown after reaching the fix for a sector 2 entry?

A

Fly heading to make good a track 30 deg from reciprocal of inbound track.

80
Q

What does the term “DME limit” mean in relation to a holding pattern?

A

DME dist at which outbound leg of hold terminated and turn onto reciprocal track commenced

81
Q

If pre-flight MET briefing more than 1 hour before ETD?

A

Get an update via NAIPS, phone or radio if needed.

82
Q

When are you considered “established” on an NDB bearing, VOR/tacan radial or DME arc?

A

1/2 scale deflection for ils, vor and gps, within 5 deg of required bearing for NDB, or within 2nm of DME arc

83
Q

What are the handling speeds for a cat c aircraft conducting an inst approach?

A 
Vat: 121 - 140 
Initial approach seg: 160 - 240
Final approach speed: 115 - 160 
Max vis manoev: 180 
Max MAP: 240
84
Q

Descent rate after the FAF should not exceed

A

1000fpm

85
Q

What does a shaded background around the minima on approach plates mean?

A

Minima reduced by 100’ when actual aerodrome QNH is set

86
Q

At an uncontrolled aerodrome, the runway to be used for landing must be:

A
  • most into wind RWY
  • any RWY for operational reasons, without conflicting traffic using into wind RWY
  • serviceable and clear of ground equipment and personnel
87
Q

When operating under special VFR clearance, pilots are responsible for ensuring that

A
  • a/c clear of cloud

- vis not less than 1600m

88
Q

When navigating by visual reference, how often must a positive fix from maps be made?

A

Max 30 mins

89
Q

Describe the 3 types of reversal procedure (ENR 1.5 2.7)

A

Procedure turns 45/180
Procedure turns 80/260
Base turns

90
Q

It is permissible to shorten a holding pattern. Is it also permissible to lengthen one?

A

Only for prolonged holding at a level not limited by obstacles, subject to ATC approval where appropriate.

91
Q

State the visual flight rules

A
  • In VMC
  • at/below 2000’ above ground/water, nav by vis ref to ground/water
  • subsonic speeds
  • in accordance with speed restrictions in ENR 1.4
92
Q

When flying a vis dep in an IFR aircraft, what are your and ATC’s obligations in regard to terrain clearance and traffic separation?

A

ATC will only issue when cloud base allows pilot to maintain flight in VMC below MVA/MSA/LSALT

Pilot must maintain tracks/headings authoriser by ATC
Remain not less than 500’ above lower limit of CTA
Visually maintain obstacle clearance

93
Q

What obstacle clearance does MSA provide?

A

1000’

94
Q

How long is an area QNH valid for?

A

3 hours

95
Q

What are the min alt requirements for a vis approach by day or night, for a VFR or IFR a/c?

A

Day:

  • IFR, >500’ above lower limit of CTA
  • IFR + VFR, not below lowest alt permissible for VFR flight

Night:

  • IFR, maintain alt not less than LSALT/MSA or DME/GPS steps, or 500’ above lower limit of CTA if this is higher
  • if ATS surveillance and being vectored, not below last assigned alt

Until a/c is

  • within circling area, aerodrome in sight
  • within 5NM (7 with ILS) of aerodrome, aligned with RWY centreline, and established not below on slope on T-VASI or PAPI
  • within 10nm of aerodrome, est not below ILS gpath, with less than full scale deflection

VFR
- maintain not less than lowest alt permissible for VFR flight, until within 3NM and aerodrome in sight

96
Q

What weather info must be obtained by pilot?

A

Forecasts (one of flight or area forecast of SIGWX above A100)
Dest aerodrome forecast
Alt aerodrome forecast if required
If no inst app at aerodrome a min of GAF required.

97
Q

What forecast conditions on a TAF would require the carrying of extra fuel?

A

Tempo, inter, FM, or BCMG that introduce weather below minima

98
Q

During radar vectors to cloud break, terrain clearance can be reduced to BLANK when within BLANK NM of the aerodrome

A

Within 10NM, terrain clearance reduced to 500’ below min radar clearance alt (e.g 1500’ in a 2000’ sector), not below the circling minima, if reported cloud base is 300’ or more above assignable alt (e.g 1800’ or more)

99
Q

What is the threshold speed range of cat c?

A

121 - 140 KIAS

100
Q

What are the stages of a thunderstorm and briefly describe each stage.

A

Immature: moist unstable air forming into a CB

mature: start of precipitation, downdrafts, lightning, hail, last approx 60 mins

Dissipating: decreasing precipitation, no more lightning

101
Q

When must a pilot report a timing error in a previously notified position report?

A

When pilot becomes aware that the error is more than 2 min

102
Q

Under IFR, when are position reports not required?

A

Mil flights in following:

  • Fights OCTA using area guard comms
  • ops under radio silence
  • ops in CTA reserved for military use only
  • ops under NOCOM procedure, expect where possible short reports to be made
  • ops under SARTIME procedure except where possible short reports to be made
103
Q

Define CAVOK

hehe :P

A
  • Vis 10km or more
  • no cloud below 5000’ or highest MSA, whichever is greater
  • No CB or TCU at any height
  • Nil sig weather
104
Q

What are the 2 types of fog and describe how they are formed

A

Advection: warm moist air moving over a cool surface

Radiation: high relative humidity, SFC cooling, with wind 2 - 6kts

105
Q

What are the tracking requirements for a visual approach?

A 
Maintain HDG/track auth’d by ATC until: 
by day: within 5NM of aerodrome 
by night: 
- IFR, within circling area 
- VFR, within 3NM of aerodrome 
- aerodrome in sight

Circuit must be joined as ATC direct

106
Q

What are the requirements for VFR aircraft with regard to operating levels in CTA?

A

VFR must operate under crushing levels if >5000amsl and must operate to levels <5000amsl whenever practicable

107
Q

Who has priority for landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome?

A

An a/c established on base leg/final approach for any RWY has priority over a/c doing SI app

108
Q

What are the lighting requirements when planning an alternate?

A

By night:

  • for permanent lighting, need an alternate unless destination has standby power or portable lighting and a responsible person in attendance
  • for PAL, aerodrome requires standby power and responsible person in attendance
  • for portable lighting, a responsible person must be in attendance.
109
Q

The outbound leg of holding pattern/sector entry must be no longer than?

A

FL140 - 1min 30sec or time on plate

110
Q

Are winds forecast as true or magnetic?

A

True

IRT Quiz Questions (1 decks)

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