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Gauge Flashcards

Skywest KV

1
Q

Starter Time limit?

A

60 seconds

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2
Q

Indications would be seen during no light off

A

No ITT increase

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3
Q

How are those indications different from an N2 Stagnation?

A

N2 Stagnation will have an initial light off, but spool up will decelerate to a stop and cause ITT to increase excessively.

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4
Q

Why do you motor to the starter time limit following a No Light Off?

A

Clear fuel out as much as possible.

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5
Q

Double engine failure in the CRJ 200?

A

Ignition CONT/ON
Airspeed/ ≥240KIAS

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6
Q

NO LIGHT OFF

A

Affected thrust lever/SHUTOFF
Ignition/OFF
Dry motor until starter time limit
Affected engine/STOP

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7
Q

HOT START/INTERRUPTED START/N2 STAGNATION

A

Affected thrust lever/SHUTOFF
Ignition/OFF
DryMotor/ Until ITT reduced below 120°C
Respecting starter time limit
Affected Engine/STOP

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8
Q

Where is STAB TRIM DISC?

A

Each pilot’s control wheel upper forward index finger area.

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9
Q

Why are the controls transferred to the Pilot (LH) side?

A

It would be extremely difficult/impossible for the Captain to reach CB panel 4

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10
Q

Where are circuit breaker panels 2 and 4 located?

A

Panel 2 is behind the First Officer and panel 4 is adjacent to the First Officer’s right foot/leg.

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11
Q

Where is the Anti-Skid switch?

A

Left of the MLG handle.

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12
Q

What would occur if the brakes were re-applied heavily?

A

Likely blow out tire(s) from being locked during deceleration.

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13
Q

What airspeed should you accelerate to when recovering from a high-altitude stall?

A

250/0.7M

[SOPM 05-01.9 (p.385)]

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14
Q

When is it appropriate to don oxygen masks?

A

○ Oxygen deficiency or contamination is suspected. [SOPM 05-01.1 (p.377,388)]
○ Smoke
○ Chemical/biological substance is detected/suspected [FOM 11.14 (p.229)]
Pilot out of cockpit above FL410

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15
Q

CA – During a REJECTED TAKEOFF, what are the captain’s actions?

A

a) Call “Abort my controls”
b) Thrust levers IDLE while
c) Wheel Brakes apply maximum braking until safe stop and
d) Thrust Reversers apply MAX consistent with directional control
e) set Parking Brake
f) Passenger PA “This is the Captain remain seated with your seat belt fastened.” g) FA(s) Communication:
1-No Emergency will Taxi;
2-“Assess and Wait for my
Command”
h) Request appropriate checklist as applicable [SOPM 04-07.21 (p. 218)]

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16
Q

FO – What are the First Officer’s actions during a REJECTED TAKEOFF?

A

No response OR “Your Controls”
Monitor airplane deceleration
Verify Reverse Thrust
Advise ATC stopping
Perform appropriate checklist, as applicable

[SOPM 04-07.21 (p.218)]

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17
Q

FO – During an EMERGENCY EVACUATION, if possible, where do you direct passengers as they evacuate the aircraft?

A

At least 500 feet upwind (technique: off pavement)

[FOM 11.28 (p.243); IMT5 lesson]

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18
Q

During an emergency evacuation, what emergency equipment does the FO remove from
the flight deck, as they evacuate the aircraft?

A

The applicable emergency equipment

[FOM 11.28 (p.243)]

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19
Q

CA – After clear communication with the flight attendant(s) and aircraft conditions are
understood, what options does the PIC have?

A

Evacuate or No Evacuation (taxi to the gate)

[FOM 11.27 (p.242)]

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20
Q

What defines a precautionary landing?

A

Precautionary Landing
1. The landing is non-routine but will be successful and will not cause injury to passengers and/or damage to the aircraft.
2. An emergency evacuation IS NOT ANTICIPATED, or the evacuation DECISION will be made after landing.
Airport rescue and fire fighting equipment MAY BE REQUIRED.

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21
Q

What defines a emergency landing?

A

Emergency Landing
1. The landing MAY CAUSE injury to passengers and/or damage to the aircraft.
2. Airport rescue and fire fighting equipment is required.

[FOM 11.26 (p.241)]

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22
Q

Where can an expedited deplaning take place?

A
  1. a) Through the MCD
  2. b) The aircraft must be parked at a gate with the main cabin door open and a
    passenger loading bridge connected or airstairs installed (all SkyWest CRJs
    have airstairs installed).
  3. c) The PIC, or SIC as delegated, calls the Flight Attendant(s) via the interphone and
    informs them to commence an expedited deplaning through the main cabin door.
    d) Followed by a passenger announcement:
    “THIS IS THE CAPTAIN. WE WILL DEPLANE THE AIRPLANE THROUGH THE MAIN CABIN DOOR. FOLLOW THE DIRECTION OF YOUR FLIGHT ATTENDANT(S)”
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23
Q

What is the Max Takeoff Weights for the CRJ 200

A

53,000

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24
Q

Max Zero Fuel Wt

A

44,000

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25
Q

Max Landing wt

A

47,000

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26
Q

Where is the max aft cargo weight found?

A

Flight Release

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27
Q

What is the maximum altitude allowed for all variants?

A

37,000ft

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28
Q

Max Landing gear Retraction speed

A

200

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29
Q

What is the maximum altitude allowed during single pack operations in the CRJ 200

A

25,000’

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30
Q

APU maximum altitude for bleed air use?

A

15,000’

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31
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance for takeoff in the CRJ 200

A

800 pounds

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32
Q

What is the minimum fuel required for a go-around CRJ 200

A

500 (per wing)
fuel burn is 500 pounds
Note: max of 10° pitch up

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33
Q

What is the definition of icing conditions on the ground?

A

The OAT is ≤ 10°C and
1. Visible moisture OR
2. operating on contaminated ramps, taxiways, or runways

[SOPM 04-16.12 (p.362)]

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34
Q

What is the definition of icing conditions in flight?

A

The TAT indicates ≤ 10°C to SAT ≤ -40°C and Visible moisture is encountered

[SOPM 04-16.12 (p.362)]
[SOPM 02-04.5 (p.34)]

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35
Q

When does the wing anti-ice need to be on for descent in the CRJ 200?

A

When ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system,
or
Flying in icing conditions and the airspeed is less than 230 KIAS:

In icing conditions during descent from cruise altitude, or

Prior to extending flaps for all approaches when TAT is 10°C or colder.

[SOPM 04-16.13 (p.363)]

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36
Q

When do Cowls need to be on for takeoff?

A

When OAT is ≤ 10°C and:
* Visible moisture (visibility is ≤ 1 mile or any precipitation);
OR
The runway is contaminated

[SOPM 04-07.10 (p.207)]

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37
Q

When do Wings need to be on for takeoff?

A

OAT ≤ 5°C, and either:
○ Visible moisture in any form including any precipitation, fog, mist, or clouds < 400
feet AGL;
OR
The runway is wet or contaminated

[SOPM 04-07.10 (p.207)]

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38
Q

If the temperature is 5°C and the ATIS reports few at 400 do the wings and cowls need to be on for takeoff?

A

No, neither needs to be on.

[SOPM 04-07.10 (p.207)] Deice/Anti-ice Procedures

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39
Q

What are the critical surfaces on the CRJ?

A
  1. Wing leading edges, wing forward and rear upper surfaces (including winglets), and associated flight controls.
  2. Horizontal stabilizer leading edge, forward and rear upper surfaces, and associated flight controls
  3. Vertical stabilizer and associated flight controls
  4. Engine inlets
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40
Q

What is Josh Anderson

A

A Bitch

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41
Q

Critical areas that must be free of frozen contaminants are:

A
  • Air data probes/sensors
  • AOA vanes
  • Antennas
  • Fuel drains and NACA vent scoops
  • APU intake/exhaust
  • Landing gear
    *Flight deck windshields and windows

[GDPM Appendix A.2 (p.106)]

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42
Q

Under what conditions is a cold weather preflight inspection required?
FATCOI

A

FATCOI
○ Fuel temperature is ≤ 0°C
○ Accumulated ice from the inbound leg may have accumulated, or
○ Temperature ≤ 5°C or
○ Conditions conducive to icing exist, or
○ Overnight aircraft has been subject to contamination
○ ICE is suspected in the fuel tank area.

[GDPM SP 2800-4.5 (p.35)]

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43
Q

How is a cold weather preflight inspection conducted?

A

visual and tactile check of the aircraft’s critical surfaces for frozen contaminants.

[GDPM SP 2800-4.5 (p.35)]

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44
Q

If the temperature is 5°C or less, the preflight inspection must take place no more than how many minutes from pushback?

A

30 [GDPM SP 2800-4.5 (p.35)]

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45
Q

Is it acceptable to depart with frost anywhere on the airplane, if so where?

A

Yes, the underside of the wing fuel tank area that is caused by cold soaked fuel with a maximum 1/8” and a maximum of hoar frost (grayish-white crystalline deposit) on the upper surface of the fuselage through which it is possible to distinguish surface features. [GDPM SP 2800-4.6 (p.36)]

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46
Q

When does the hold over time (HOT) begin?

A

When the final application of the deicing fluid is first applied to the aircraft.
[GDPM SP 2800-4.11 (p.41)]

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47
Q

When is the fuselage required to be deiced?

A

Any time the wing and tail surfaces require deicing (other than allowable hoar frost).
[GDPM SP 2800-4.11, #6 (p.41)]

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48
Q

Calculate a hold over time using the following conditions, can the CRJ200 operate in these conditions?
010/10 1/4SM SN OVC002 -01/-01 A2992
Clariant Safewing MP4 Launch

A

No time exists for heavy snow (1/4SM = heavy)

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49
Q

Does the above HOT change if FG is reported in addition to SN?

A

(Note: must use manual precipitation intensity)
Yes, 0:52 – 1:24 minutes

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50
Q

Can operations be conducted when light and moderate ice pellets and light ice pellets mixed with other forms or precipitation are occurring?

A

Yes, provided the following restrictions/allowances apply:
1. Holdover times cannot be used.
2. Allowance times found in the Allowance Times Tables in the eHOT app (:19)
3. Allowance times begin at the start of the Type III or Type IV fluid is applied.
4. The allowance time cannot be extended by a pre-takeoff check or pre-takeoff
contamination check.
[GDPM SP 2800-B.5, #6 (p.111)]

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51
Q

How does a pilot determine if a fluid has failed?

A

When it is no longer able to absorb frozen precipitation.
It may have lost its glossiness and resembles a dulled, crystalline appearance.
The ability to discern structural detail through the fluid is lost.
Accumulated snow on a wing on top of deice/anti-ice fluids means the fluid has failed.
[GDPM SP 2800-B.6 (p.112)]

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52
Q

When is a pretakeoff contamination check required? How and from where is it accomplished?

A

When freezing or frozen precipitation has been present since completion of the Post Deicing/Anti-icing Check and,
1. a) The HOT has been exceeded, or
2. b) The HOT is no longer valid due to changing weather conditions, or
3. c) Operations in heavy snow are being conducted.

The Pretakeoff Contamination Check is performed from inside the cabin. The Captain sets the aircraft parking brake and the aircraft remains static throughout the check. A flight deck crewmember must conduct a close, visual inspection of both wings’ upper surface, including associated control surfaces and winglets, for evidence of contaminants and deice/anti-ice fluid failure. The upper surface of the wing and associated control surfaces are used as comparative analysis of those surfaces that are not visible. Aircraft emergency lighting must not be used. Several Pretakeoff Contamination Checks may be required in order to comply with the five-minute takeoff time requirement.
[GDPM SP 2800-4.25 (p.55)]

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53
Q

What aircraft does the pretakeoff contamination check apply to?

A

CRJ 700/900 [GDPM 04.24 #15(A)(1) (p.54)]

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54
Q

Where are the complex special departure procedures found?

A

Company 10-7 pages

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55
Q

On a Simple-Special SE Departure Procedure, in IMC conditions, in a non-radar environment, to what altitude must the procedure be complied with?

A

3,000 feet
[Performance Handbook 2.2 (p.20)]

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56
Q

On a Simple-Special SE Departure Procedure, in VMC conditions, in a non-radar environment, to what altitude must the procedure be complied with?

A

1,000 feet
[Performance Handbook 2.2 (p.20)]

57
Q

Where is LAHSO information found if available?

A

ACARS landing performance data. ATC is also responsible for providing available landing distance via ATIS, published U.S. terminal procedures, or the special notices section of the Airport/Facility Directory. Also, the additional information on the back side of the airport diagram.
[SOPM 04-12.12 (p.308)]

58
Q

What value must be used to calculate landing distance if the reported RCC’s are 4/3/5?

A

3 [FOM 07.5(C)(4) (p.166)]

59
Q

What is the minimum cleared width for the CRJ 200

A

75’

59
Q

When a runway is reported as wet, and the same runway has an RCC of 3, which do you use to determine landing distance?

A

RCC of 3 [FOM 07.2(2)(A)(5) (p.163)]

60
Q

With crosswind components greater than 10 knots, what RCC values prohibit takeoffs
and landings?

A

RCC 1 or 2 [Weather tile, CRJ–Crosswind Limitations]

61
Q

What limitations are imposed for RCCs less than 1, or snow over ice?

A

Takeoff and Landings are prohibited. RCCs of 0 represents NIL BA and results in the immediate closure of the runway or taxiway until surface conditions can be improved.
[FOM 07.3 (p.164,166)]

62
Q

What is the minimum fuel value?

A

1,550 pounds
[SOPM 05-01.5 (p.381)]

63
Q

If the temperature is 6°C and the ATIS reports few at 400 do the wings and cowls need to be on for takeoff?

A

No, neither needs to be on.

64
Q

What does declaring minimum fuel mean?

A

The estimated fuel remaining on touchdown at the airport of intended landing is less than 1,550 pounds and further deviation from the planned route of flight could result in declaration of emergency fuel. [SOPM 05-01.5 (p.381)]

65
Q

What is the emergency fuel value?

A

1,050 pounds
[SOPM 05-01.5 (p.381)]

66
Q

What does declaring emergency fuel mean?

A

Estimated fuel remaining on touchdown at the airport of intended landing is less than 30 minutes fuel endurance. [SOPM 05-01.5 (p.381)]

67
Q

What routing, unless specified in the remarks, is used from the destination to a filed
alternate?

A

Direct

68
Q

Fuel burns from the TOD to landing are based at what thrust value?

A

IDLE

69
Q

What is the CRJ 200 minimum spoiler speed?

A

Approach speed + 20 knots

70
Q

During the cold weather preflight inspection the pilot determines there is very light frost on the aileron, what is the appropriate action?

A

When the aircrafts critical surfaces are not free of frozen contaminants, deicing is required

71
Q

What is the clean wing concept?

A

An aircraft must not takeoff with frozen contaminants adhering to the wings, control surfaces, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces.

72
Q

At high altitudes what pitch attitude should be maintained until out of a stall or low speed condition? Could increased nose down pitch be required? If yes, when?

A

Nose down 5° to 10° Yes, in extreme conditions

73
Q

Show me the deice checklist for the CRJ 200 engines running. Is the checklist completed as a challenge/response?

A

Company manuals - Weather
Yes it is a challenge/response as well as read do.

74
Q

Where is the GDPM located?

A

Company manuals - Weather

75
Q

How is deicing accomplished?

A

a. A one step process to remove frozen contaminants from the aircraft

b. Flight deck crew
I. Position the aircraft to the deice location
II. Configure aircraft in accordance with the flight deck deice/anti-ice checklist
III. Establish communications with the deice personnel

76
Q

How is anti-icing accomplished

A

A two step process used to provide protection against the formation of frozen contaminants after the aircraft has been decided

77
Q

What should the flight crew communicate to deice personnel?

A

a. Tail number
b. Brakes set/configured for deicing
c. Type of fluids required
d. Surfaces to be deiced/anti-iced (Deice checklist)

78
Q

What should the deice crew communicate to the flight crew?

A

a. Specifies type of fluid
b. Specifies fluid dilution
c. Specify the time of the beginning of the final anti-icing step

79
Q

Show me the following on the dispatch release:
a. Flight/Trip/ADSB code
b. Destination
c. Aircraft Tail
d. Statement of IFR/VFR flight e. Proposed time of departure
f. Minimum fuel supply
g. Show and read expected weather at destination at time of arrival
h. MELs
i. MFPTW
j. Have student read a NOTAM

A

Get it

80
Q

Can the flight leave the gate with less than release fuel?

A

a. A decrease in fuel of 200 lbs or 50% of the contingency, whichever is most restrictive may be made without consulting the dispatcher

81
Q

Is contingency fuel included in MINTO?

A

No, MINTO includes enroute burn. Go around/most distant alternate, holding and reserve fuel, excludes taxi out and contingency

82
Q

How low can the conditional weather be to apply 17347?

A

a. At the destination, the weather cannot be less than 1⁄2 of the lowest weather minimum visibility established for the approach. At the first alternate, weather must not be less than 1⁄2 of the alternate ceiling and visibility. At the second alternate, the weather must be at or above the alternate airport weather minimum, ceiling and visibility

83
Q

What limitations are imposed for RCC less than 1 or snow over ice?

A

Prohibited

84
Q

What is the definition of a dry runway?

A

Neither wet nor contaminated

85
Q

What is the definition of a wet runway?

A

More than 25% of the runway surface area is covered by any visible dampness or water up to 1⁄8 inch

86
Q

What is the definition of a contaminated runway?

A

More than 25% of the runway surface area is covered by more than 1⁄8 inch of standing water or its equivalent in slush, wet snow, dry snow or any depth of ice or compacted snow

87
Q

If two alternates are given, will fuel allow flight to both alternates?

A

No, only the most distant alternate

88
Q

Mechanical irregularity is discovered at the gate prior to blockout, describe the actions that must be taken:

A

a. Note the irregularity
b. PIC writes up the irregularity in Flightview
c. Place the M288 tag on the thrust levers
d. Ensure the aircraft goes out of service on Flightview
e. Contact maintenance
f. Wait for maintenance to fix or defer
g. Ensure the aircraft returns to service in Flightview and comply with MEL if applicable
h. Remove M288 tag
i. Restart flow if applicable
(FOM)

89
Q

How many generators are installed?

A

4 generators:
2 engine driven,
1 APU, 1 ADG

90
Q

What is the AC power priority?

A

On-side,
inside,
cross side,
external,

91
Q

What converts AC power to DC power?

A

5 TRUs convert 115v AC power to 28v DC power

92
Q

What is IDG logic? (In relation to hydraulic pumps)

A

a. Pumps 1B, 2B, and 3B operate according to IDG logic
b. If 1A fails, 1B is powered by Gen 2
c. If 2A fails, 2B is powered by Gen 1
d. If 3A fails, 3B is powered by either generator
e. When hydraulic pumps are in AUTO mode, for B pumps to operate, IDG logic must be met and flaps must be greater than 0

93
Q

How many hydraulic pumps are there?

A

a. 2 engine driven pumps
b. 4 ACMPs

94
Q

What powers each hydraulic pump/system?

A

a. 1A is a engine driven pump
b. 2A is a engine driven pump
c. 3A is a ACMP
d. 1B is a ACMP
e. 2B is a ACMP
f. 3B is a ACMP

95
Q

Will hydraulic system 3 be powered in the event both engines and the APU generators are inop? If so, by what?

A

Yes, when the ADG deploys, hydraulic pump 3B will operate regardless of switch position

96
Q

What will cause the ADG to deploy?

A

a. Loss of all AC power
b. Last AC source was internal
c. Weight of wheels is sensed
d. Parking brake is released
e. The ADG can also be deployed manually by pulling the ADG manual deploy handle at the bottom of the lower pedestal

97
Q

What does the BLEED MISCONFIG message indicate in the CRJ 200? Which phase of flight are you not permitted to operate with a BLEED MISCONFIG message?

A

a. Gear down or flaps greater than 0
b. 10th stage engine bleeds open
c. Wing and/or cowl anti-ice selected on
Takeoff and landing

98
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Is it acceptable to operate the engines in the amber N2 arcs as long as you have a green WING COWL ANTI ICE advisory message?

A

a. The ICE advisory message indicates the wings have adequate temperature and pressure to provide ice protection even if the N2 gauge is in the yellow arc
b. The amber arc reminds pilots that N2 should be 78% or greater to provide sufficient bleed air to the system

99
Q

Describe the APU LCV interlock protection.

A

a. Interlock protection is used to protect the APU from backflow of high pressure air generated by the engines.
b. APU LCV will close under the following conditions:
1. Left 10th SOV selected OPEN or:
2. Right 10th SOV and 10th ISOL valve selected OPEN

100
Q

When will the fuel system activate to correct a fuel imbalance?

A

a. when a fuel imbalance of more than 200 pounds exist between the wing tanks, the XFLOW/APU pump energizes to correct, the process is stopped when the fuel quantity of the low tank exceeds the other tank by 50 pounds (PRM)

101
Q

Why is the 14th stage ISOL valve opened during single engine operations?

A

a. The 14th stage ISOL allows both wings to be anti-iced from a single source in the event of an engine failure or failure of a wing anti-icing valve, Pneumatically actuated and electrically controlled and spring loaded to the closed position (PRM)

102
Q

Show me the following switches/panels.
EMER DEPRESS
RAM AIR
IGNTION CONT
GROUND LIFT DUMPING
RTU INHIBIT
ARINC FAN
POWER TRANSFER OVERRIDE
ADRP
DCP
ECP
AUDIO WARNING

A

a. EMER DEPRESS
I. When selected the CPC will drive both safety valves fully open, located on Pressurization System Panel, top right in flight deck
b. RAM AIR
I. Located on the Air Conditioning Panel, upper right of flight deck below the Pressurization System Panel
c. IGNITION CONT
I. Located to the right of the Ignition switch lights, labeled CONT
d. GROUND LIFT DUMPING
I. Located above Thrust Reverser Switches
e. RTU INHIBIT
I. Allows a failed RTU to be cross tuned, Located above transponder selector knob
f. ARINC FAN
I. Located on bottom left of flight deck above the Parking Brake near the Stab Trim buttons
g. POWER TRANSFER OVERRIDE
I. When selected returns AC ESS bus to normal AC distribution system and returns HYD 3B to normal operations, Used if a generator has been reset after complete AC power loss, located on the bottom right of the center pedestal, underneath the FireX Monitor buttons
h. ADRP
I. This is the panel where the RA test, and baro knob are located
i. DCP
I. This is the panel where the format/range knob is located
j. ECP
I. The 4 mechanical buttons are PRI, STAT, CAS, STEP, located on the center pedestal
k. AUDIO WARNING
I. DCUs convert information from systems intio EICAS messages, located on the right hand side of the aircraft by the first officers right arm

103
Q

Utilize the aural alert powerpoint and have the applicant identify the stab trim runaway aural alert, and two others of your choice
STAB TRIM
OVERSPEED
STALL COND
FIRE BELL
AUTOPILOT DISENGAGE
LANDING GEAR NOT DOWN
WARNING MESSAGE
ALTITUDE ALERT
CAUTION MESSAGE

A

a. Stab trim runaway - Clacker b. Overspeed - Chirper
c. Stall condition - Warbler
d. Fire bell - Fire bell
e. Autopilot disengage - Cavalry charge
f. Landing gear not down - Horn
g. Warning message - Triple chime or voice alert
h. Altitude alert - C-chord
i. Caution message - Single chime

104
Q

What are LAHSO limitations?

A

a. Dry runway is required
b. Landing distance must be adequate
c. Touchdown in the first 1⁄3 or 3000 feet of runway
d. Night LAHSO only authorized with LAHSO lighting
e. Weather 1000/3 with PAPI or VASI
f. Weather 1500/5 without
g. No windshear in the last 20 minutes
h. Tailwind less than 3 knots

105
Q

When is a reduced thrust (FLEX) takeoff prohibited?

(wachfat)

A

a. anti ice on (wing or cowl)
b. Windshear
c. Anti skid inop
d. Tailwind greater than 5 knots
e. Contaminated runway
f. Heavy aircraft
g. Flaps 8

106
Q

When is a two engine taxi required? (7)

A

a. FFOD
b. Contaminated or congested ramp or taxiways
c. Short taxi out
d. Captain’s discretion
e. Maneuvering room
f. Airport specific regulation
g. Risk of injury or damage

107
Q

What powers the primary flight controls

A

a. The primary flight controls are the elevators, rudder, ailerons, and spoilerons
b. The secondary flight controls are the flaps, spoilers, GLDs, and aileron, rudder, and STAB trims
c. Movement of the cockpit controls is transmitted mechanically via cable/pushrods to the aileron, rudder, and elevator PCUs that hydraulically move the control surfaces
d. Spoilerons are electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated

108
Q

When do you need a destination alternate?

A

a. 1-2-3 rule
b. No instrument approach available
c. Freezing precipitation in the forecast

109
Q

When do you need a take off alternate?

A

a. When weather minimums at the departure airport are below landing minimums, including CAT II minimums

110
Q

RVSM Airspace altitudes?
When cant you fly in RVSM Airspace?

A

FL290-410
-Altitude deviations of 200’ or greater. Declare an emergency when unable to comply with assigned altitudes
-Failure of transponders
-Failure of either primary altimeter system
-Failure of altitude alerting and/or capture capability
-Failure of AFCS

111
Q

What must be included on Release (7)

A

Departure/ Other Airports
ID number for Aircraft
Minto
MEL/DMI
WX Forecasts
IFR/VFR
Trip Number

112
Q

APU Min temp for starting

A

-40°C

113
Q

APU MAX door open speed with APU not operating

A

300KIAS

114
Q

max runway contamination depth for dry snow on takeoff?

A

3.0

115
Q

What is the minimum N1 for reduced thrust takeoffs in the CRJ 200 with 3B1 motors?

A

83.5% N1

116
Q

What limitations apply to departing with fuel in the center tank?

A

Takeoff with fuel in excess of 500 pounds in the center tank is not permitted unless: I. Each main wing tank is above 4400 pounds: or
II. Each main wing tank is above 2000 pounds and:
1 - The allowable zero fuel weight is reduced by the weight of the fuel in the center tank in excess of 500 pounds: and
2 - The allowable CG in the configuration is verified to be within the allowable CG envelope.
b. Alternate fuel loading procedure: when there is fuel in the center tank and the two main tanks are not full, the allowable fuel load must be calculated using Fliteview

117
Q

What is the fuel capacity in the CRJ 200?

A

Pressure 14,518
Gravity 13,906

118
Q

What is the maximum runway contamination depth for dry snow on landing for the CRJ 200?

A

3.75 inches

119
Q

What is the CRJ 200 APU maximum altitude for bleed air use?

A

15,000’

120
Q

What is VFO flap 8 in the CRJ 200?

A

200 KIAS

121
Q

During the cold weather preflight inspection 1/8 inch of ice is observed on the underside of the fuel tank, what is the appropriate action?

A

Deice, there is an allowance for up to an 1/8 inch of frost under the fuel tanks, but not ice

122
Q

How does the pilot determine if the aircraft is contaminated?

A

With a cold weather preflight inspection

123
Q

How low can the weather be at the destination?

A

weather reports, forecasts, or any combination, must indicate the weather conditions will be at or above the authorized minimums at the ETA

124
Q

How much fuel above release fuel is allowed?

A

Any fuel increase must be coordinated with the dispatcher

125
Q

If a heading is listed under VIA what altitude will the turn be commenced?

A

50 feet AFE. If above 50 feet AFE commence turn immediately upon engine failure

126
Q

What does the minimum cleared width mean?

A

Represents the portion of the runway that must be usable

127
Q

If there is a discrepancy between the braking action PIREP and an RCC, which report shall be used to determine landing distance?

A

Whichever is more conservative

128
Q

How is the required landing distance determined when RCC values are not available?

A

contaminant type and depth are used

129
Q

If a FICON notam with RCCs is available at the time of takeoff, how is the RCC applied to the takeoff?

A

RCCs are not used for takeoff, contaminant type and depth are used

130
Q

How do you verify the aircraft is in service after it has been out of service?

A

a. Verify the aircraft status is “In Service”
b. Review DMI/MEL/CDL
c. Review maintenance log
d. These steps can be accomplished either with Flightview or by contacting the dispatcher (FOM)

131
Q

What is the procedure if the pilot cannot be determine if the aircraft is clear of frozen contaminants after deicing/anti-icing?

A

If it cannot be determined that representative surfaces are free of frozen contaminants, the deicing procedure must be repeated

132
Q

When is the pretakeoff check required? How and from where is it accomplished?

A

A pretakeoff check is required anytime an aircraft has been deiced/anti-iced and a HOT has been established.
b. Performed by the flight deck crew within the HOT and as close as practical to takeoff. The flightdeck crew performs the check from any vantage point in the aircraft the PIC determines

133
Q

Can a pre takeoff contamination check be accomplished from the flight deck?

A

No.

134
Q

CRJ 200 stabilizer trim runaway memory item

A

STABILIZER TRIM RUNAWAY
Control Wheel………………………………ASSUME manual control and OVERRIDE runaway Both STAB TRIM DISC…………………….PRESS, HOLD, and RELEASE
Airplane Control……………………………TRANSFER to pilot (LH) side
STAB CH 1 and CH 2 HSTCU Circuit Breakers
(2F5 and 4A1)………………………………OPEN

135
Q

Excessive asymmetry or loss of braking memory item

A

DURING LANDING - EXCESSIVE ASYMMETRY OR LOSS OF BRAKING
Wheel Brakes……………RELEASE momentarily ANTI-SKID………………………………….OFF
Wheel Brakes…………….RE-APPLY, as required

136
Q

What is element A,B,C, and E?

A

a. Specifies type of fluid
b. Specifies fluid dilution
c. Specify the time of the beginning of the final anti-icing step
e. Specification that post deicing or anti-icing check for clean surface is complete

137
Q

What powers the flaps?

A

The flaps are electrically actuated and electrically driven by 2 AC power drive units

skywest kv (2 decks)

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