Gastrointestinal Flashcards
(152 cards)
1
Q
Which drug can discolor teeth?
A
tetracycline
2
Q
What is myxedema?
A
severe hypothyroidism
3
Q
What organ is known to hypertrophy during Myxedema?
A
tongue
4
Q
Which four vitamin deficiencies can cause glossitis?
A
iron deficiency
B12
Niacin
Vitamin C
5
Q
What two infections can cause glossitis?
A
Scarlet fever
EBV
6
Q
Erythroplakia and leukoplakia are indicative of what type of hyperplasia?
A
squamous cell hyperplasia
7
Q
Does leukoplakia or erythroplakia have a higher liklihood to transform into Squamous Cell Carcinoma?
A
erythroplakia
8
Q
What is the most common cause of oral cavity tumors?
A
HPV
9
Q
Where can oral cavity tumors metastisize?
A
jugular node
10
Q
Where does Basal Cell Carcinoma occur in the oral cavity? What is the #1 risk factor for development of BCC?
A
Upper lip
UV light
11
Q
What two glands in the head are affected by Sjogrens Syndrome?
A
salivary and lacrimal
12
Q
What are the two components of pleomorphic Adenomas?
A
epithelial cells and stromal cartilage
13
Q
What marks a Pleomorphic Adenoma transforming into a malignant tumor?
A
Involvement of facial nerve
14
Q
What type of tissue makes up a Warthin tumor?
A
lymphoid
15
Q
What is another name for a Warthin Tumor?
A
Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum
16
Q
Is a Warthin tumor more found in males or females?
A
Males
17
Q
What two cells make up a Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma?
A
epithelial and stromal
18
Q
What is the most common TEF?
A
proximal esophageal atresia
distal tracho-esophageal fistula
19
Q
What could be noticed on physical exam if an infant in utero has a TEF?
A
polyhydramnios
20
Q
What does the R of VACTERL stand for?
A
renal defects and absent radius
21
Q
What causes Plummer-Vinson Syndrome?
A
iron deficiency
22
Q
Are hiatal hernias more common in men or women?
A
women
23
Q
What drug could be discontinued to improve a sliding hernia?
A
CCBs
24
Q
What part of the diaphragm is absent during a Bochdalek Hernia?
A
posterior-lateral
25
What is the test for LES abnormalitites?
Manomatery
26
What does the LES pressure have to be in order to diagnose GERD?
less than 10 mmHg
27
A pleural effusion with amylase would be indicative of what condition?
Boerhaave Syndrome
28
What type of age distribution does Achalasia have?
bimodal
29
What three drugs can be used for achalasia?
CCBs
long acting nitrates
botulinum
30
What is the most common type of Esophageal tumor?
Leimoyoma
31
Would squamous or adeno be more common in developing countries?
squamous
32
Which specific part of the esophagus would SCC be most common?
middle third
33
Which type of esophageal cancer is known for release a paraneoplastic syndrome pepritde? Which peptide is it?
Squamous
PTHrp
34
What is Hb converted into by stomach acid?
Hematin
35
BAO:MAO is normally what ratio?
0.2:1
36
What enzyme is deficient during Pyloric Stenosis?
NOS
37
What is the cause of gastroparesis?
autonomic neuropathy
38
What is the treatment of gastroparesis?
metoclopramide
39
Which worm can cause a stomach disorder? Which stomach disorder is it? How is this worm acquired?
Anisakis
Hemorrrhagic gastritis
eating raw fish
40
What are more common, duodenal or gastric ulcers?
duodenal
41
Which blood group is associated with Duodenal Ulcers?
Group O
42
Which blood group is associated with Gastric Ulcers?
Group A
43
Which type of ulcer has an increased BAO:MAO?
duodenal
44
Which family of tumors can Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome be associated with?
MEN Type I
45
A duodenal ulcer past the proximal duodenum could be suggestive of what disease?
ZE syndrome
46
What other two tumors could ZE Syndrome be associated with?
Parathyroid or pituitary
47
A gastrin level over what is indicative of ZE Syndrome?
1,000 pg/mL
48
What is used to localize a ZE Syndrome tumor?
radiolabeled octreotide
49
Where does gastric cancer commonly metastisize?
Virchow nodes
50
What parasite is known to cause an invasive diarrhea?
Entamoeba histolytica
51
Lactase deficiency clasically effects which two ethnic groups?
Asias and Native Americans
52
What is the most common cause of pancreatitis in adults?
alcohol
53
What is the most common cause of pancreatitis in children?
cystic fibrosis
54
What is the most common viral enteritis in AIDS patients? What is the treatment for this virus?
CMV
gangciclvir
55
What is the most common cause of viral enteritis in adults?
Norovirus
56
What is the most common virus on cruise ships?
Norovirus
57
What is the most common cause of viral enteritis in kids?
rotavirus
58
Why does rotavirus cause diarrhea?
rotavirus damages ion reuptake
59
Which gram positive rod can cause enteritis?
Bacillus cereus
60
Does B. cereus form a toxin or release a preformed toxin?
release preformed toxin
61
Which two foods is B. cereus associated with?
rice and tacos
62
What are the three reservoirs for Campylobacter jejuni?
cattle
chickens
puppies
63
Does C. jejuni produce bloody or non-bloody diarrhea?
bloody
64
How is C. jejuni treated?
erythromycin
65
What other GI tract disease can C, jejuni resemble?
Ulcerative Colitis
66
Guillain-Barre can be associated with what GI bug?
C. jejuni
67
What disease haplotype can C. jejuni similar symptoms to?
HLAB27
68
Is botulism a synthesized toxin or preformed toxin?
Preformed
69
What is the treatment for botulism?
anti-toxin
70
What three antibiotics cause pseudomembrane colitis?
Penicillin, Quinolones, Clindamycin
71
Which lab value can pseudomembrane colitis decrease?
albumin
72
Presence of what enzyme in stool could be indicatvie of pseudomembrane colitis?
Glutamate Dehydrogenase
73
What is the preferred antibiotic treatment for pseudomembrane colitis?
Metronidazole
74
Is C. difficile gram positive or negative?
positive
75
What is the treatment for C. difficile?
ciprofloxacin
76
What population does Mycobacterium Avium Intracellularle infect?
AIDS
77
What other disease can MAC mimmic on histology?
Whipple disease
78
Which non-reptile can Salmonella reside in?
Hamsters
79
What two drugs are used to treat Salmonella?
Ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin
80
What is the classic triad of S. typhi?
neutropenia/splenomegaly/bradycardia
81
Is Typhus treated with antibiotics?
no
82
In what organ can salmonella establish a carrier state?
gallbladder
83
What drug is used to treat Vibrio cholerae?
doxycycline or fluroquinolone
84
How is Yersinia enterocolitica treated?
TMP-SMX
85
What protozoa can cause colonic ulcers and rectal bleeding?
Balantidium coli
86
Which protozoa is known to cause diarrhea in AIDS patients?
Cryptosporidium parvum
87
Which protozoa is known to cause diarrhea from swimming pools?
Cryptosporidium parvum
88
Which protozoa produces flask shaped lesions?
Entamoeba histolytica
89
Does Entamoeba histolyticum cause bloody or non-bloody diarrhea?
bloody
90
Where can Entamoeba histolytica traver to and establish an abscess?
Liver
91
Which protozoa can phagocytose RBCs?
entamoeba histolytica
92
Which intestinal parasite can arise during IgA Deficiency?
Giardia
93
What is the scientific name for Whip Worm?
Trichuris trichuria
94
Which nematode can produce rectal prolapse in children?
Trichuris trichiura
95
Which nematode does not produce Eosinophilia?
Ascaris
96
Which apolipoprotein mediates the secretion of chylomicrons into the lymphatics?
B48
97
How much fat has to be secreted into the stool in a 24 hours period to diagnose malabsorption?
greater than 7 grams
98
β-carotene is a precursor for what vitamin?
Vitamin A
99
When is trypsin concentrtion elevated?
early cystic fibrosis
100
What is the bentiromide test used for?
chymotrypsin insufficiency
101
What does chymotrypsin cleave bentiromide into?
PABA
102
What is C14-Xylose test used for?
bacterial growth in GI tract
103
What is the substrate used for Bile Breath Test?
Cholyglycine
104
What immune disease is celiac disease associated with?
IgA Deficiency
105
What two genetic diseases is Celiac Disease associated with?
Downs and Turner
106
Which auto-antibody is the best for diagnosing Celiac Disease?
anti-endomysium
107
How is Whipple Disease diagnosed?
PCR
108
In what layer of the GI tract do Trypopherma whippeli accumulate?
Lamina propria
109
What is the classic patient to present with a gallstone ileus?
Elderly woman
110
Which type of hernia has the highest rate of bowel incarceration?
femoral
111
What is the most common hernia in adults with ascites?
Umbilical
112
What does Antiphospholipid Syndrome Produce?
Hypercoaguable state
113
What immune cell invades during the early stages of a bowel infarction?
neutrophil
114
What is the radiologic sign for Bowel Ischemic necrosis?
thumb printing
115
What is the treatment for angiodysplasia?
colonoscopy
116
What is the most common finding of a Meckels Diverticulum?
bleeding
117
What causes a pulsion diverticula?
increased transluminal force
118
Where is the most common site for a pulsion diverticula in the small bowel?
Duodenum
119
A wide-mouthed diverticula suggests what other disease?
systemic sclerosis
120
Meckels diverticulitis mimmics what other disease?
appendicitis
121
What are the three associations for a sigmoid diverticulum?
ED
Marfan
ADPKD
122
What is diverticulosis?
painless bleeding
123
Does IBS have normal or abnormal CRP?
normal
124
What is the mainstay of IBS Treatment?
Fiber
125
What is THE most common site for a carcinoid tumor?
vermiform appendix
126
What can carcinoid syndrome do to the face?
Telangiectasia
127
What is avoided during Carcinoid Syndrome?
alcohol
128
What type of drug can be used to treat a carcinoid tumor?
somatostatin analogue
129
Where are the majority of hamartomous polyps found?
Sigmoid
130
Where are the majority of Juvenile polyps found?
rectum
131
What is the mode of inheritance for juvenile polyposis?
autosomal dominant
132
What are the two features of Cronkhite-Canada Syndrome?
nonhereditary polyposis
abnormalities of fingernails
133
What is the Mode of Inheritance for Peutz Jeghers?
autosomal dominant
134
Which gene is Peutz Jeghers associated with? Is this gene activated or inactivated?
STK11
inactivated
135
Large sessile polyps can produce what two metabolic abnormalities?
hypoalbuminemia and hypokalemia
136
What is the mode of inheritace for lynch syndrome?
autosomal dominant
137
What type of drug can inhibit the growth of colon cancer cell lines?
statins
138
What is the best screening molecule for colon cancer?
CEA
139
Which two bacteria are the most common cause of appendicitis?
E. coli
Bacteroides fragilis
140
Which fiber initially carries the pain sensation of appendicitis? Where are these fibers located?
C fibers
visceral peritoneum
141
What is the level of cutaneous hyperesthesia of acute appendicitis?
T12
142
After appendicitis shift to RLQ, what fibers carry the pain sensation? Which layer?
A-delta
parietal peritoneum
143
What is the Blumberg sign?
rebound tenderness at McBurney point
144
What is the Psoas sign?
RLQ pain with right leg extension
145
What is Rovsing sign?
RLQ pain with LLQ palpation
146
What would be most abnormal on a heme workup for a patient with acute appendicitis?
neutrophilic leukocytosis
147
Formation of a periappendiceal abscess is indicative of what bacteria?
Bacteriodes fragilis
148
What is pyelophlebitis?
thrombophlebitis of portal vein caused by infection
149
What is the best method to diagnose acute appendicitis?
spiral CT after gastrografin enema
150
What is the antibiotic treatment of acute appendicitis?
Cefoxitin
151
What are the three most common cause of rectal prolapse in children?
Whip worm (Trichuris trichiura)
Whooping cough
cystic fibrosis
152
What are the two most common causes of anal SCC?
HPV 16 and HPV 18
