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Goljan > Gastrointestinal > Flashcards

Gastrointestinal Flashcards

1
Q

Which drug can discolor teeth?

A

tetracycline

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2
Q

What is myxedema?

A

severe hypothyroidism

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3
Q

What organ is known to hypertrophy during Myxedema?

A

tongue

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4
Q

Which four vitamin deficiencies can cause glossitis?

A

iron deficiency

B12

Niacin

Vitamin C

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5
Q

What two infections can cause glossitis?

A

Scarlet fever

EBV

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6
Q

Erythroplakia and leukoplakia are indicative of what type of hyperplasia?

A

squamous cell hyperplasia

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7
Q

Does leukoplakia or erythroplakia have a higher liklihood to transform into Squamous Cell Carcinoma?

A

erythroplakia

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8
Q

What is the most common cause of oral cavity tumors?

A

HPV

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9
Q

Where can oral cavity tumors metastisize?

A

jugular node

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10
Q

Where does Basal Cell Carcinoma occur in the oral cavity? What is the #1 risk factor for development of BCC?

A

Upper lip

UV light

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11
Q

What two glands in the head are affected by Sjogrens Syndrome?

A

salivary and lacrimal

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12
Q

What are the two components of pleomorphic Adenomas?

A

epithelial cells and stromal cartilage

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13
Q

What marks a Pleomorphic Adenoma transforming into a malignant tumor?

A

Involvement of facial nerve

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14
Q

What type of tissue makes up a Warthin tumor?

A

lymphoid

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15
Q

What is another name for a Warthin Tumor?

A

Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum

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16
Q

Is a Warthin tumor more found in males or females?

A

Males

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17
Q

What two cells make up a Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma?

A

epithelial and stromal

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18
Q

What is the most common TEF?

A

proximal esophageal atresia

distal tracho-esophageal fistula

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19
Q

What could be noticed on physical exam if an infant in utero has a TEF?

A

polyhydramnios

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20
Q

What does the R of VACTERL stand for?

A

renal defects and absent radius

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21
Q

What causes Plummer-Vinson Syndrome?

A

iron deficiency

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22
Q

Are hiatal hernias more common in men or women?

A

women

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23
Q

What drug could be discontinued to improve a sliding hernia?

A

CCBs

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24
Q

What part of the diaphragm is absent during a Bochdalek Hernia?

A

posterior-lateral

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25
Q

What is the test for LES abnormalitites?

A

Manomatery

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26
Q

What does the LES pressure have to be in order to diagnose GERD?

A

less than 10 mmHg

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27
Q

A pleural effusion with amylase would be indicative of what condition?

A

Boerhaave Syndrome

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28
Q

What type of age distribution does Achalasia have?

A

bimodal

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29
Q

What three drugs can be used for achalasia?

A

CCBs

long acting nitrates

botulinum

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30
Q

What is the most common type of Esophageal tumor?

A

Leimoyoma

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31
Q

Would squamous or adeno be more common in developing countries?

A

squamous

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32
Q

Which specific part of the esophagus would SCC be most common?

A

middle third

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33
Q

Which type of esophageal cancer is known for release a paraneoplastic syndrome pepritde? Which peptide is it?

A

Squamous

PTHrp

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34
Q

What is Hb converted into by stomach acid?

A

Hematin

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35
Q

BAO:MAO is normally what ratio?

A

0.2:1

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36
Q

What enzyme is deficient during Pyloric Stenosis?

A

NOS

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37
Q

What is the cause of gastroparesis?

A

autonomic neuropathy

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38
Q

What is the treatment of gastroparesis?

A

metoclopramide

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39
Q

Which worm can cause a stomach disorder? Which stomach disorder is it? How is this worm acquired?

A

Anisakis

Hemorrrhagic gastritis

eating raw fish

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40
Q

What are more common, duodenal or gastric ulcers?

A

duodenal

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41
Q

Which blood group is associated with Duodenal Ulcers?

A

Group O

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42
Q

Which blood group is associated with Gastric Ulcers?

A

Group A

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43
Q

Which type of ulcer has an increased BAO:MAO?

A

duodenal

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44
Q

Which family of tumors can Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome be associated with?

A

MEN Type I

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45
Q

A duodenal ulcer past the proximal duodenum could be suggestive of what disease?

A

ZE syndrome

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46
Q

What other two tumors could ZE Syndrome be associated with?

A

Parathyroid or pituitary

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47
Q

A gastrin level over what is indicative of ZE Syndrome?

A

1,000 pg/mL

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48
Q

What is used to localize a ZE Syndrome tumor?

A

radiolabeled octreotide

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49
Q

Where does gastric cancer commonly metastisize?

A

Virchow nodes

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50
Q

What parasite is known to cause an invasive diarrhea?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

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51
Q

Lactase deficiency clasically effects which two ethnic groups?

A

Asias and Native Americans

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52
Q

What is the most common cause of pancreatitis in adults?

A

alcohol

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53
Q

What is the most common cause of pancreatitis in children?

A

cystic fibrosis

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54
Q

What is the most common viral enteritis in AIDS patients? What is the treatment for this virus?

A

CMV

gangciclvir

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55
Q

What is the most common cause of viral enteritis in adults?

A

Norovirus

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56
Q

What is the most common virus on cruise ships?

A

Norovirus

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57
Q

What is the most common cause of viral enteritis in kids?

A

rotavirus

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58
Q

Why does rotavirus cause diarrhea?

A

rotavirus damages ion reuptake

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59
Q

Which gram positive rod can cause enteritis?

A

Bacillus cereus

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60
Q

Does B. cereus form a toxin or release a preformed toxin?

A

release preformed toxin

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61
Q

Which two foods is B. cereus associated with?

A

rice and tacos

62
Q

What are the three reservoirs for Campylobacter jejuni?

A

cattle

chickens

puppies

63
Q

Does C. jejuni produce bloody or non-bloody diarrhea?

A

bloody

64
Q

How is C. jejuni treated?

A

erythromycin

65
Q

What other GI tract disease can C, jejuni resemble?

A

Ulcerative Colitis

66
Q

Guillain-Barre can be associated with what GI bug?

A

C. jejuni

67
Q

What disease haplotype can C. jejuni similar symptoms to?

A

HLAB27

68
Q

Is botulism a synthesized toxin or preformed toxin?

A

Preformed

69
Q

What is the treatment for botulism?

A

anti-toxin

70
Q

What three antibiotics cause pseudomembrane colitis?

A

Penicillin, Quinolones, Clindamycin

71
Q

Which lab value can pseudomembrane colitis decrease?

A

albumin

72
Q

Presence of what enzyme in stool could be indicatvie of pseudomembrane colitis?

A

Glutamate Dehydrogenase

73
Q

What is the preferred antibiotic treatment for pseudomembrane colitis?

A

Metronidazole

74
Q

Is C. difficile gram positive or negative?

A

positive

75
Q

What is the treatment for C. difficile?

A

ciprofloxacin

76
Q

What population does Mycobacterium Avium Intracellularle infect?

A

AIDS

77
Q

What other disease can MAC mimmic on histology?

A

Whipple disease

78
Q

Which non-reptile can Salmonella reside in?

A

Hamsters

79
Q

What two drugs are used to treat Salmonella?

A

Ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin

80
Q

What is the classic triad of S. typhi?

A

neutropenia/splenomegaly/bradycardia

81
Q

Is Typhus treated with antibiotics?

A

no

82
Q

In what organ can salmonella establish a carrier state?

A

gallbladder

83
Q

What drug is used to treat Vibrio cholerae?

A

doxycycline or fluroquinolone

84
Q

How is Yersinia enterocolitica treated?

A

TMP-SMX

85
Q

What protozoa can cause colonic ulcers and rectal bleeding?

A

Balantidium coli

86
Q

Which protozoa is known to cause diarrhea in AIDS patients?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

87
Q

Which protozoa is known to cause diarrhea from swimming pools?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

88
Q

Which protozoa produces flask shaped lesions?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

89
Q

Does Entamoeba histolyticum cause bloody or non-bloody diarrhea?

A

bloody

90
Q

Where can Entamoeba histolytica traver to and establish an abscess?

A

Liver

91
Q

Which protozoa can phagocytose RBCs?

A

entamoeba histolytica

92
Q

Which intestinal parasite can arise during IgA Deficiency?

A

Giardia

93
Q

What is the scientific name for Whip Worm?

A

Trichuris trichuria

94
Q

Which nematode can produce rectal prolapse in children?

A

Trichuris trichiura

95
Q

Which nematode does not produce Eosinophilia?

A

Ascaris

96
Q

Which apolipoprotein mediates the secretion of chylomicrons into the lymphatics?

A

B48

97
Q

How much fat has to be secreted into the stool in a 24 hours period to diagnose malabsorption?

A

greater than 7 grams

98
Q

β-carotene is a precursor for what vitamin?

A

Vitamin A

99
Q

When is trypsin concentrtion elevated?

A

early cystic fibrosis

100
Q

What is the bentiromide test used for?

A

chymotrypsin insufficiency

101
Q

What does chymotrypsin cleave bentiromide into?

A

PABA

102
Q

What is C14-Xylose test used for?

A

bacterial growth in GI tract

103
Q

What is the substrate used for Bile Breath Test?

A

Cholyglycine

104
Q

What immune disease is celiac disease associated with?

A

IgA Deficiency

105
Q

What two genetic diseases is Celiac Disease associated with?

A

Downs and Turner

106
Q

Which auto-antibody is the best for diagnosing Celiac Disease?

A

anti-endomysium

107
Q

How is Whipple Disease diagnosed?

A

PCR

108
Q

In what layer of the GI tract do Trypopherma whippeli accumulate?

A

Lamina propria

109
Q

What is the classic patient to present with a gallstone ileus?

A

Elderly woman

110
Q

Which type of hernia has the highest rate of bowel incarceration?

A

femoral

111
Q

What is the most common hernia in adults with ascites?

A

Umbilical

112
Q

What does Antiphospholipid Syndrome Produce?

A

Hypercoaguable state

113
Q

What immune cell invades during the early stages of a bowel infarction?

A

neutrophil

114
Q

What is the radiologic sign for Bowel Ischemic necrosis?

A

thumb printing

115
Q

What is the treatment for angiodysplasia?

A

colonoscopy

116
Q

What is the most common finding of a Meckels Diverticulum?

A

bleeding

117
Q

What causes a pulsion diverticula?

A

increased transluminal force

118
Q

Where is the most common site for a pulsion diverticula in the small bowel?

A

Duodenum

119
Q

A wide-mouthed diverticula suggests what other disease?

A

systemic sclerosis

120
Q

Meckels diverticulitis mimmics what other disease?

A

appendicitis

121
Q

What are the three associations for a sigmoid diverticulum?

A

ED

Marfan

ADPKD

122
Q

What is diverticulosis?

A

painless bleeding

123
Q

Does IBS have normal or abnormal CRP?

A

normal

124
Q

What is the mainstay of IBS Treatment?

A

Fiber

125
Q

What is THE most common site for a carcinoid tumor?

A

vermiform appendix

126
Q

What can carcinoid syndrome do to the face?

A

Telangiectasia

127
Q

What is avoided during Carcinoid Syndrome?

A

alcohol

128
Q

What type of drug can be used to treat a carcinoid tumor?

A

somatostatin analogue

129
Q

Where are the majority of hamartomous polyps found?

A

Sigmoid

130
Q

Where are the majority of Juvenile polyps found?

A

rectum

131
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for juvenile polyposis?

A

autosomal dominant

132
Q

What are the two features of Cronkhite-Canada Syndrome?

A

nonhereditary polyposis

abnormalities of fingernails

133
Q

What is the Mode of Inheritance for Peutz Jeghers?

A

autosomal dominant

134
Q

Which gene is Peutz Jeghers associated with? Is this gene activated or inactivated?

A

STK11

inactivated

135
Q

Large sessile polyps can produce what two metabolic abnormalities?

A

hypoalbuminemia and hypokalemia

136
Q

What is the mode of inheritace for lynch syndrome?

A

autosomal dominant

137
Q

What type of drug can inhibit the growth of colon cancer cell lines?

A

statins

138
Q

What is the best screening molecule for colon cancer?

A

CEA

139
Q

Which two bacteria are the most common cause of appendicitis?

A

E. coli

Bacteroides fragilis

140
Q

Which fiber initially carries the pain sensation of appendicitis? Where are these fibers located?

A

C fibers

visceral peritoneum

141
Q

What is the level of cutaneous hyperesthesia of acute appendicitis?

A

T12

142
Q

After appendicitis shift to RLQ, what fibers carry the pain sensation? Which layer?

A

A-delta

parietal peritoneum

143
Q

What is the Blumberg sign?

A

rebound tenderness at McBurney point

144
Q

What is the Psoas sign?

A

RLQ pain with right leg extension

145
Q

What is Rovsing sign?

A

RLQ pain with LLQ palpation

146
Q

What would be most abnormal on a heme workup for a patient with acute appendicitis?

A

neutrophilic leukocytosis

147
Q

Formation of a periappendiceal abscess is indicative of what bacteria?

A

Bacteriodes fragilis

148
Q

What is pyelophlebitis?

A

thrombophlebitis of portal vein caused by infection

149
Q

What is the best method to diagnose acute appendicitis?

A

spiral CT after gastrografin enema

150
Q

What is the antibiotic treatment of acute appendicitis?

A

Cefoxitin

151
Q

What are the three most common cause of rectal prolapse in children?

A

Whip worm (Trichuris trichiura)

Whooping cough

cystic fibrosis

152
Q

What are the two most common causes of anal SCC?

A

HPV 16 and HPV 18

Goljan (2 decks)

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