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Gastrointestinal Flashcards

1
Q

What is the starting point of digestion?

A

Mouth

Digestion starts in the mouth with mechanical and chemical processes.

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2
Q

What is the role of salivary amylase in digestion?

A

Breakdown starches to maltose

Salivary amylase (ptyalin) initiates chemical digestion in the mouth.

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3
Q

What is deglutition?

A

Swallowing

Deglutition occurs once food is formed into a bolus and mixed with saliva.

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4
Q

What is the function of the esophagus?

A

Passage for food bolus from mouth to stomach by peristalsis

The esophagus transports food using coordinated muscle contractions.

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5
Q

What prevents gastric reflux?

A

Lower esophageal sphincter (LES)

Also known as the cardiac sphincter, it guards the distal end of the esophagus.

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6
Q

What is the capacity of the stomach?

A

Approximately 1,500 mls

The stomach is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen.

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7
Q

List the regions of the stomach.

A
  • Cardiac region
  • Fundus
  • Body
  • Antrum (pyloric region)

These regions serve different functions in digestion.

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8
Q

What is the primary function of gastric juice?

A

Digestion of proteins and protection against bacteria

Gastric juice is composed of mucus, HCl, pepsinogen, and water.

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9
Q

What is pepsinogen?

A

Inactive enzyme converted to pepsin in the presence of HCl

Pepsin begins protein digestion in the stomach.

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10
Q

What happens to carbohydrates in the stomach?

A

Digestion stops due to inactivation of amylase by acidity

The acidic environment halts carbohydrate digestion initiated in the mouth.

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11
Q

What is the length of the small intestine?

A

About 6 meters (20-22 ft)

It extends from the pyloric sphincter to the ileocecal valve.

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12
Q

What are the three parts of the small intestine?

A
  • Duodenum
  • Jejunum
  • Ileum

The majority of digestion occurs in the duodenum.

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13
Q

What hormones do endocrine cells in the small intestine secrete?

A
  • Cholecystokinin
  • Secretin
  • Enterogastrone

These hormones regulate bile and pancreatic juice secretion.

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14
Q

What is the main function of bile?

A

Emulsifies fats

Bile facilitates the action of pancreatic lipase on dietary fats.

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15
Q

What are the primary functions of the large intestine?

A
  • Absorption of water, Na, and Cl
  • Vitamin synthesis
  • Formation of feces
  • Defecation

Approximately 800-1000 mls of water is absorbed here.

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16
Q

What is the normal range for Body Mass Index (BMI)?

A

18.5 – 24.9

BMI is a measure of body fat based on height and weight.

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17
Q

What does a (+) CEA indicate?

A

Colorectal cancer

CEA (Carcinoembryonic Antigen) is a tumor marker used in diagnosis.

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18
Q

What is the purpose of the D-Xylose Absorption Test?

A

Diagnosis of malabsorption

It measures the absorption of D-Xylose in blood and urine.

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19
Q

What dietary restrictions are required before a fecal occult blood test?

A
  • No red meats
  • No poultry
  • No fish
  • No turnips, horseradish, cauliflower, broccoli, melon

These foods may cause false positives in the test results.

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20
Q

What is the Bernstein Test used for?

A

To assess if chest pain is related to gastro-esophageal reflux

It involves instilling normal saline and HCl into the esophagus.

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21
Q

What imaging technique uses a contrast medium to visualize the upper GI tract?

A

Upper GI Series (Barium Swallow)

Barium sulfate is administered to visualize esophagus, stomach, and duodenum.

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22
Q

What is the primary purpose of endoscopy?

A

Direct visualization of the upper GI tract

It includes examination of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum.

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23
Q

What is the significance of the vermiform appendix?

A

Attached to the cecum

It is part of the large intestine, but its exact function is still debated.

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24
Q

What is Computed Tomography?

A

Uses beam of radiation to assess cross sections of the body

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25
Q

What dietary preparation is required in the morning before a CT scan?

A

Clear liquid diet

26
Q

What does NPO stand for in medical terms?

A

Nothing by mouth

27
Q

How long should a patient be NPO before a procedure with contrast medium?

28
Q

What allergy history should be assessed before a CT scan?

A

Allergy to seafoods and iodine

29
Q

True or False: The CT scan procedure is painful.

30
Q

What should be assessed regarding the patient’s mental state before a CT scan?

A

Claustrophobia

31
Q

What is the instruction for the patient during a CT scan?

A

Remain still during the entire procedure

32
Q

What is the purpose of Upper GI Endoscopy?

A

Direct visualization of esophagus, stomach, and duodenum

33
Q

What is the NPO requirement before an Upper GI Endoscopy?

34
Q

What medication may be administered before an Upper GI Endoscopy?

A

Anticholinergic (e.g., AtSO4)

35
Q

What is the role of sedatives in an Upper GI Endoscopy?

A

To relax the client

36
Q

What local anesthetic is used during an Upper GI Endoscopy?

37
Q

What position should the client be placed in after an Upper GI Endoscopy?

A

Side lying position

38
Q

When can a patient resume oral intake after an Upper GI Endoscopy?

A

Once gag reflex returns (2-4 hours)

39
Q

What dietary preparation is required before a Lower GI Endoscopy?

A

Clear liquid diet 24 hours before the procedure

40
Q

What type of position should the patient be in during a Lower GI Endoscopy?

A

Knee chest / lateral position

41
Q

What is a common sign to assess for after a Lower GI Endoscopy?

A

Signs of perforation (bleeding, pain, fever)

42
Q

What position should a patient be in after a Colonoscopy?

A

Supine position for a few minutes

43
Q

What is the NPO requirement before an MRI?

44
Q

What is a contraindication for MRI?

A

Pacemakers

45
Q

Define malnutrition.

A

Occurs when nutrient availability is inadequate or excessive over an extended period

46
Q

What are the two types of starvation?

A
  • Primary malnutrition
  • Secondary malnutrition
47
Q

What characterizes Kwashiorkor?

A

Inadequate protein intake with adequate calorie intake

48
Q

What characterizes Marasmus?

A

Inadequate calorie and protein intake

49
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Pellagra?

A
  • Dermatitis
  • Diarrhea
  • Dementia
  • Dilated cardiomyopathy
50
Q

What is the treatment for Pellagra?

A

Niacin/Niacinamide

51
Q

What is Obesity characterized by?

A

Excess accumulation of fats

52
Q

What are the components of Metabolic Syndrome?

A
  • Increased BP
  • Insulin resistance
  • Central obesity
  • Elevated triglycerides
  • Low HDL levels
53
Q

What is Anorexia Nervosa?

A

Intentional severe dietary restrictions leading to weight loss and distorted body image

54
Q

What characterizes Bulimia Nervosa?

A

Frequent binge eating and purging

55
Q

What is the nursing diagnosis for altered nutrition in Anorexia Nervosa?

A

Altered nutrition: Less than body requirements

56
Q

What is Dental Plaque?

A

Soft mass of proliferating bacteria in a sticky polysaccharide protein matrix

57
Q

What is the primary cause of Dental Caries?

A

Acid production from bacteria and carbohydrates

58
Q

What is Gingivitis?

A

Inflammation of the gums with gum bleeding, reddening, swelling

59
Q

What is Periodontitis?

A

Inflammation extending from the gums into the alveolar bone

60
Q

What is the management for impacted third molars?

A

Requires surgical removal

Medical Surgical (1 decks)

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