Gastroenterology Flashcards

1
Q

how is bilirubin produced in liver?

A

conjugated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

clinical signs of conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

A

jaundice
dark urine
pale stool
itch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what causes conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

A

post-hepatic obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

causes of obstructive jaundice (5)

A

common: gallstones (biliary colic and cholecystitis/chalngitis), carcinoma of head of pancreas
uncommon: sclerosing cholangitis, cholangiocarcinoma, chronic pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

causes of hepatocellular jaundice

A

common: alcoholic hepatitis or cirrhosis, viral hepatitis, drug induced, NASH
uncommon: autoimmune liver disease, haemochromatosis, Wilson’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

most likely diagnosis if rise in ALT, AST&raquo_space; rise in alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

A

hepatocelullar damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

most likely diagnosis if rise in ALT, AST &laquo_space;rise in alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

A

obstructive cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

organs of production of AST

A

liver (mitochondrial enzyme), heart, muscle, kidney and brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ALT:AST ratio in disease

A
  • viral hepatitis: ALT>AST
  • viral hepatitis + cirrhosis: AST>ALT and ratio >1
  • alcoholic liver disease and steastohepatitis: AST>ALT
  • liver disease w/out cirrhosis (alcohol and obesity most common cause): AST>ALT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

organs of production of alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

A

hepatic canalicular and sinusoidal membranes
bone
intestine
placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

serum levels of ALP in intracellular and extracellular cholestatic disease

A

increased

if GGT abnormal, ALP presumed to come from liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

gamma-glumayl transpeptidase activation and serum levels

A

increased activity with drugs (phenytoin, warfarin and rifampicin) and alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

levels of alpha- fetoproteins in liver disease

A

raised in hepatocellular carcinoma

increased in pregnancy and regenerative liver tissue with hepatitis, chronic liver disease and teratomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is an alcohol unit?

A

10ml or 8g of pure alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

acute confusional state from alcohol withdrawal

A

delirium tremens: untreated can result in seizures and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

heme breakdown

A

heme –> (heme oxygenase)
biliverdin –> (biliverdin reductase)
bilirubin

by phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is CAGE

A
  • have you ever attempted to CUT down on drinking
  • do you ever get ANNOYED when people complain about your drinking
  • do you ever feel GUILTY about things you have done while drinking
  • do you ever need a drink to get going in the morning (EYE OPENER)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

bilirubin excretion

A

conjugated bilirubin –> (bacteria) urobilinogen (unconjugated and colourless) –> stercobilin (brown) or urobilin (yellow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

increase unconjugated bilirubin cause

A

increase breakdown of RBC, Gilbert’s syndrome, haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

causes of jaundice?

A
  • prehepatic: haemolysis (i.e. sick cell) (unconjugated)
  • hepatic: liver failure
  • post hepatic: obstructive (pale stools, dark nine, itch)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

def hepatitis

A

liver inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

def cirrhosis

A

fibrosis of the liver

nodule formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

symptoms of acute hepatitis

A

unwell
jaundice
RUQ pain

confusion
coagulopathy (bruising)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

symptoms of chronic hepatitis

A

often none
fatigue
low grade fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

def fulminant hepatitis

A

ACUTE hepatitis with liver failure

dvlpt of encephalopathy within 28 days of jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

blood test results in acute hepatitis

A

raised ALT/AST (>1000)
high bilirubin

(in severe cases):
coagulopathy
renal impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

complications of cirrhosis

A

-loss of function:
jaundice (heme breakdown)
coagulopathy (clotting)
decreased drug metabolism (sedatives: benzos and opiates)
decreased hormone metabolism (increased levels of oestrogen)
increased sepsis (decreased immune)

-portal hypertension:
varices (oesophageal, caput medusa, piles)
ascites
encephalopathy (ammonia)
hepatorenal syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

normal venous portal pressure and portal pressure in portal hypertension

A

normal: 5-8 mmHg

in portal hypertension: 10-12 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

symptoms present with decreased hormone metabolism (increased oestrogen)

A
erythema
spider nevi
gynocomastia
loss of secondary body hair
shrinking external genitalia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

causes of cirrhosis

A
hazardous alcohol
chronic hep B and C 
autoimmune liver disease
haemachromatosis
Wilson's disease
chronic obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

why do you get leuconychia with liver disease

A

pale nails due to decreased albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

alcoholic hepatitis symptoms and signs

A

jaundice
large tender liver
vomitting (feeling ill: not eating or drinking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what must be the plasma concentration of bilirubin for jaundice to be clinically apparent

A

50 microM/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how is bile released and how much is released in a day from liver?

A

CCK
vagal
–> response to food

500-1000 ml/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

composition of bile

A
  • 98% water
  • HCO3
  • bilirubin
  • bile salts/acids (derived from cholesterol)
  • metabolites of hormones and drugs
  • heavy metal ions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

conjugation of bilirubin

A

in hepatocyte:

  • protein bound and conjugated with glucuronic acid (by glucuronyl transferase enzyme)
  • -> glucuronyl transferase renders it water soluble
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

causes of haemolytic jaundice (prehepatic)

A
  • RBC abnormality (ie sickle cell)
  • incompatible blood transfusion
  • drug reaction
  • hypersplenism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

biochemistry in haemolytic jaundice

A
  • liver function normal
  • glucuronyl transferase saturated
  • increase conjugated bilirubin output
  • increase unconjugated bilirubin in plasma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

hepatocellular jaundice causes

A
  • congenital (neonatal)
  • infection (viral hep)
  • cirrhosis (alcohol or NASH (steatohepatitis))
  • damage due to toxins or drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

biochemistry in hepatocellular jaundice

A
  • increase unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin
  • may be decrease of conjugated bilirubin in gut (due to hepatocellular fibrosis)
  • elevated ALT
  • mild raised ALP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

def kernicterus

A

build-up of bilirubin in the brain (especially in neonates): bile pigment deposition in basal ganglia: permanent brain damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Qs to ask with jaundice for symptoms

A
  • pain
  • duration
  • itching
  • colour of stools and urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

obstructive jaundice causes

A
  • obstruction of bile duct by stone
  • obstruction of bile duct by tumour (i.e. head of the pancreas)
  • intra-hepatic cholestasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

biochemistry of obstructive jaundice

A
  • normal liver function
  • raised plasma bilirubin and conjugated bilirubin
  • raised ALP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Qs to ask in jaundice in social history

A
  • drug and alcohol
  • cigarette use (pancreatic cancer)
  • foreign travel
  • sexual history (hep B)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

jaundice and examination

A
  • sclera and skin
  • scratches (pruritus)
  • evidence of weight loss (thenar wasting)
  • troisier’s node (malignancy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Prognosis of hep A

A

99% recovery

1% Fulminant hepatitis: transplant or death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Epidemiology of hep A

Spread, countries, duration, incubation

A

Faecal-oral spreadable
Dvlping countries
12/52 duration
4-6 weeks incubation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Hep B

spread, endemic, complications

A

Blood, sex, vertical (mother to child)
Africa and Asia
Liver cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Factors determining progression of acute hepatitis B to chronic infection

A

-age:
<1yo: 90% chronic
1-5 yo: 30% chronic
>5 yo: 1-% chronic

  • immunosuppression (ie HIV)
  • route of infection
  • genotype
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Hep B cirrhosis prognosis

A

Determined by:

  • Rate of fibrosis progression (stage and grade)
  • Viral load
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is Wilson’s disease + symptoms

A

Autosomal recessive condition characterised by toxic accumulation of copper in liver and brain
Symptoms: neurological: tremor, dementia, dyskinesia, dysarthria
Liver: cirrhosis, hepatitis
Kayser-Fleischer rings (eyes)
Renal tubular acidosis
Haemolysis
Blue nails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is Rovsing’s sign?

A

Pushing the colon in a anti peristalsis direction in the left iliac fossa to illicit pain in the right iliac fossa
Sign of appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Diagnosis of Wilson’s disease

A

Reduced serum caeruloplasmin
Reduced serum copper
Increased 24h urinary copper excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome( cause and symptoms)

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy: triad of mental confusion, ataxia and ophthalmoplegia
Korsakoff’s syndrome: late manifestation when Wernicke’s encephalopathy has not been treated

Thiamine deficiency (alcohol, chronic subdural haematoma, hype remedies gravidarium, thyrotoxiscosis, spread of cancers, log term dialysis, congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Def ophthalmoplegia

A

Paralysis/weakness of one or more occulomotor muscles

Could be myotonic or neuropathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Def hyperemesis gravidarium

A

Pregnancy complication: severe nausea, vomiting, fatigue, dehydration, weight loss
Goes beyond the 12th week of regnant (up to he 20th week)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

def odynophagia

A

pain on swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

def halitosis

A

bad breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is delirium tremens

A

acute confusional state which results when sudden alcohol withdrawal in chronic alcohol intake
untreated: seizures and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

management of acute alcohol withdrawal

A
  • benzodiazepine or carbamazepine
  • clomethiazole (alternative to benzodiazepine or carbamazepine)
  • info about local alcohol support services

-for delirium tremens: oral lorazepam (or parenteral lorazepam or haloperidol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

difference between acute and chronic hepatitis

A

inflammation persisting > 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

natural history of acute hepatitis

A

3 possibilities:

  • recovery
  • fulminant hepatitis (death or liver transplant)
  • chronic hepatits –> increase fibrosis –> cirrhosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

def of steatohepatitis

A

inflammation in the liver in association with fatty infiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

signs of decompensated liver disease

A
jaundice 
ascites
encephalopathy 
vatical bleeding
small liver
easily bruising
spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
collateral veins in the abdomen
\+stigmata of liver disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

management of alcohol related liver disease

A
  • liver transplant (if decompensated liver disease after best management and 3 months abstinence from alcohol)
  • corticosteroids
  • nutritional support
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

main causes of cirrhosis

A

alcohol abuse
hep B and C
NAFLD and NASH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

types of neonatal jaundice

A
  • unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia: potentially toxic (penetration through blood brain barrier), may be pathological or physiological (glucuronyl transferase not at optimal level)
  • conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia: non toxic, always pathological
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

treatment of neonatal jaundice

A
  • unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia: phototherapy or exchange transfusion
  • conjugated: treat underlying obstructive condition
70
Q

investigations in jaundice

A
  • trans-abdominal US: duct dilation or normal ducts?

- CT

71
Q

obstructive jaundice clinical picture

A

jaundice
dark urine
pale stools

72
Q

pre hepatic jaundice clinical picture

A

jaundice
no dark urine
no pale stools (may have dark stools)

73
Q

infective causes of liver disease

A

hepatitis A, B or C
cytomegalovirus
Epstein Barr virus

74
Q

lifestyle cause of liver disease

A

DM
obesity
alcohol excess

75
Q

drug causes of liver disease

A
paracetamol overdose
anti epileptics 
rifampicin 
flucloxacillin 
methotrexate
76
Q

obstructive causes of liver disease

A

carcinoma of the pancreas

gallstone

77
Q

autoimmune causes of liver disease

A

autoimmune hepatits
primary billiard cholangitis
primary sclerosing cholangitis

78
Q

hereditary causes of liver disease

A

hereditary haemochromatosis
Wilson’s disease
alpa-1-antitrypsin deficiency

79
Q

biliary tree path from liver to duodenum

A
  • left and right hepatic ducts
  • common hepatic duct
  • cystic duct
  • common bile duct
  • ampulla of Vater/Sphincter of Oddi/ Major duodenal papillary
80
Q

causes of acute pancreatitis

A
Idiopathic
Gallstones, genetic (CF)
Ethanol 
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmune
Scorpion venom
Hyperlipidemia/hypercholesteremia
ERCP
Drugs
81
Q

management of acute pancreatitis

A
  • IV fluids, O2 and pain relief
  • antibiotics if associated infection
  • early nutritional support
  • lipase and amylase levels
  • CT, MRI or ultrasound
  • ERCP/cholecystectomy if caused by gallstones
82
Q

what might precipitate decompensation of a previous stable liver cirrhosis

A
  • infection
  • alcohol binge
  • GI bleed
  • hypoglycaemia
83
Q

causes of fresh blood in the stools

A
haemorrhoids
acute anal fissure
colorectal neoplasms
acute proctitis
IBD
84
Q

def hemicolectomy

A

removal of half the colon

85
Q

def ileostomy

A

stoma of SI

86
Q

def colostomy

A

stoma of colon

87
Q

def anterior resection

A

removal of part of the rectum (leaving rectal sphincter intact)

88
Q

def abdomino-perineal resection

A

excision of lower rectum and anus with removal of the anal sphincter and placement of colostomy

89
Q

what is the 2 week wait guideline for colorectal cancer

A
  • > 40 w/ unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain
  • > 50 w/ unexplained rectal bleeding
  • > 60 w/ iron deficiency anaemia OR changes in bowel habit >6weeks
  • tests that show occult blood in their faeces
90
Q

what is the screening for colorectal cancer?

A

from 50; every 2 years

  • faecal immunochemical test
  • faecal occult blood
  • flexible sigmoidoscopy
91
Q

what should you advise to reduce risk of bowel cancer?

A
  • bowel screening
  • healthy weight
  • diet high in starchy veg, pulses and whole grains
  • reduce consumption of red and processed meat
  • avoid alcohol and smoking
  • regular physical activity
92
Q

most frequent sights for CRC

A

left side of colon, in sigmoid
caecum
rectum

93
Q

risk factors for CRC

A
  • age
  • animal fat and red meat
  • sugar consumption
  • colorectal polyps
  • FH
  • chronic IBD
  • obesity
  • smoking
  • acromegaly
  • abdo radiotherapy
  • uretosigmoidoscopy
94
Q

what reduces the risk of CRC

A
  • vegetables, garlic, milk, Ca consumption
  • exercise
  • aspin and NSAIDs
95
Q

what are the different types of CRC

A
  • adenocarcinomas (from polyps)

- carcinoid tumours (from neuroendocrine cells)

96
Q

CRC TNM staging

A

T1: tumour in inner layer of bowel
T2: tumour in muscle layer
T3: tumour grown into outer lining go bowel wall
T4: tumour has grown through outer layer of muscle wall

N0: no lymph nodes
N1: cancer cells in up to 3 nearby lymph nodes
N2: cancer cells in 4+ nearby lymph nodes

M0
M1: metastests (liver, lungs)

97
Q

CRC number staging

A
  • Stage 1: T1/T2, N0, M0 (cancer hasn’t spread outside the bowel wall)
  • Stage 2: T3/T4, N0, M0 (cancer has grown into or through the outer layer of the bowel wall)
  • Stage 3: any T, N1/N2, M0 (the cancer has spread to nearby lymph nodes)
  • Stage 4: Any T, Any N, M1 (the cancer has spread to other parts of the body)
98
Q

CRC Dukes’ staging

A

Dukes’ A: TNM stage 1
Dukes’ B: TNM stage 2
Dukes’ C: TNM stage 3
Dukes’ D: TNM stage 4

99
Q

what is Lynch syndrome?

  • mutation
  • inheritance
  • cancers
  • diagnosis
A

HNPCC: mismatch repair gene mutation (microsatelite instability)

inheritance: autosomal dominance
- cancer: colon, stomach, SI, bladder, skin, brain, hepatobiliary system, endometrial/ovarian
- diagnosis: Amsterdam criteria, Bethesda guidelines

100
Q

diagnostic methods of CRC

A

barium enema
colonoscopy
CT/MR

101
Q

what are the different mutations in CRC

A

apc (FAP)
Kras
P53
MLH1/MSH2 (HNPCC°

102
Q

what is the Amsterdam criteria?

A
  • > 3 relatives, spanning 2 generations (1 must be first degree relative)
  • age of onset <50 in at least 1 relative
  • FAP excluded
103
Q

treatment of CRC

A

surgery

chemo

104
Q

what is diverticular disease

A

out pouching of colonic mucosa and submucosa through inherent weakness in outer muscle layers

105
Q

where is the commonest site for diverticular disease?

A

sigmoid colon (due to chronic constipation and/or accumulation of faecal matter)

106
Q

risk factors of diverticular disease

A

age
high meat and red meat intake
FH
chronic constipation

107
Q

complications of diverticular disease

A
  • infection (diverticulitis)
  • bleeding (occult/overt)
  • perforation
  • abscess formation
  • fistula formation (with bladder or vagina)
  • obstruction
108
Q

clinical features of diverticular disease

A
  • asymptomatic
  • intermittent LIF pain/discomfort
  • erratic bowel habit
  • severe pain and constipation (if narrowing)
109
Q

presentation of acute diverticulitis

A

sever pain in LIF
fever
constipation

110
Q

presentation of acute appendicitis?

A
  • T° (37.7-38.3)
  • loss of appetite
  • nausea and vomiting (+Diarroea)
  • dull pain in umbilical region that becomes sharp when moving towards RIF
  • abdominal tenderness RIF
111
Q

what is acute abdomen?

A

condition of severe abode pain, requiring emergency surgery, caused by acute disease of or injury to the internal organs

112
Q

how do you know if it is acute abdomen?

A

if someone previously well and abode pain > 6h, w/ no symptoms of diarrhoea

113
Q

causes of bowel obstruction

A
adhesions
hernia
stricture
cancer
gallstones ileus
114
Q

acute abdomen: causes of RUQ pain

A
  • Gallbaldder disease (cholecstitis, cholangitis etc)
    • Duodenal ulcers
    • Pancreatitis
    • Medical disorders (ie referred pain from pneumonia)
    • Hernias
115
Q

acute abdomen: causes of LUQ pain

A
  • Acute pancreatitis
    • Spontaneous splenic rupture
    • Medical disorders (ie pneumonia)
      Hernias
116
Q

acute abdomen: causes of RIF pain

A
  • Acute appendicitis
    • Perforated duodenal ulcer
    • Crohn’s disease
    • Diverticulitis
    • Constipation
    • Renal colic
      Obs and gynae (ectopic pregnancy, ruptured ovarian cyst, salphingitis)
117
Q

acute abdomen: causes of LIF pain

A
  • Diverticulitis
    • Constipation
      Obs and gynae (ectopic pregnancy, ruptured ovarian cyst, salphingitis)
118
Q

acute abdomen: causes of epigastric pain

A
  • peptic or duodenal ulcers

- acute pancreatitis

119
Q

acute abdomen: causes of central pain

A
  • Early appendicitis
    • Small bowel obstruction
    • Acute pancreatits
      Mesenteric thrombosis
120
Q

acute abdomen: causes of suprapubic pain

A
  • acute urinary retention
    • UTI
      Ectopic pregnancy
121
Q

classic signs of acute abdomen?

A
  • Fever (low grade)
    • Tenderness
    • Rigidity and guarding
    • Rebound tenderness
    • Bowel sounds (absent in peritinitis and increased in small bowel obstruction)
      Abdominal distention (6Fs)
122
Q

where is the deep inguinal ring located?

A

between the pubis tubercle and ASIS (midpoint of the inguinal ligament

123
Q

where is the superficial inguinal ring located?

A

above and medial to pubis tubercle

124
Q

predisposing factors to hernias

A
  • weakness of abdominal wall/increase in abode pressure
  • coughing
  • straining
  • obesity
  • abdominal distension
  • pregnancy
  • heavy lifting
  • age
  • congenital
125
Q

what are the different types of hernias?

A
epigastric
umbilical
incisional
direct inguinal
indirect inguinal
femoral
126
Q

what is the difference between a direct and indirect inguinal hernia

A

indirect: pass through deep inguinal ring (IN the canal)
direct: weakness in the posterior wall of the abode canal

127
Q

what can cause dysphagia

A
  • muscular (muscular dystrophy, myasthenia gravis)
  • neuro (stroke, PD, MS)
  • weakened muscle or impaired coordination
  • narrowing of the throat/oesophagus (throat/oesophageal cancer, GORD, sacs/rings in oesophagus)
  • achalasia
128
Q

what are the complications of dysphagia

A

choking
pulmonary aspiration
lack of nutrition

129
Q

def odynophagia

A

dysphagia with pain

130
Q

causes of odynophagia

A

ulcers
tumours
fungal infections

131
Q

what must you ask when taking a UGIT disease history

A
  • weight loss
  • vomit and blood
  • meleana? change in bowel habit
  • pain
  • symptoms of anaemia
  • any previous investigations (i.e. endoscopy)
  • meds linked i.e. omeprazole, NSAIDs
  • any previous abode surgery
  • relevant FH
  • lifestyle
132
Q

what cellular changes happens in Barretts oesophagus

A

epithelium change from squamous to columnar (metaplasia to dysplasia)

133
Q

2 week referral for oesophageal cancer?

A

-dysphagia OR
->55 with weight loss AND 1 of following:
upper abdo pain
reflex
dyspepsia

134
Q

risk factors for oesophageal cancer

A
  • smoking
  • alcohol
  • diet lacking in veg/fruit/dairy/folate/vit A
  • pickle consumption
  • high BMI
  • GORD
135
Q

what investigations if oesophageal cancer?

A
OGD, bloods, ECG/Pulmonary Function Test/CXR
CT thorax/abd/pelvis
EUS
PET
laparoscopy
CPx (cardio pulmonary exercise test)
136
Q

treatment of oesophageal cancer

A

surgery
chemo
radiotherapy

137
Q

cause of peptic ulcer disese

A

H pylori

NSAIDs

138
Q

risk factors for peptic ulcer disease

A

-smoking
-alcohol
-FH of PUD
-physical stress
-hypersecretory syndromes (Zollinger Ellison syndrome)
medications

139
Q

drugs that are linked to formation of peptic ulcers or GI bleeds

A
anticoags
corticosteroids
K+ channel activator
SSRIs
antiplatelets
NSAIDs
140
Q

symptoms of peptic ulcer disease

A
epigastric pain 
dyspepsia
appetite loss
vomiting/nausea
GORD
feeling full after a meal
(w/ duodenal ulcers, pain can get better w/eating)
141
Q

treatment of H pylori?

A

7 day, twice daily course of

  • PPI
  • amoxicillin
  • either clarithromyocin or metronidazole

(if allergic to penicillin: clarithromyocin and metronidazole)

142
Q

treatment of peptic ulcer disease due to NSAIDs

A

stop NSAIDs

4-8 week course of full dose PPI

143
Q

complications of peptic ulcer disease

A
  • internal bleeding (anaemia, haematesis, meleana)
  • perforation
  • gastric outlet obstruction
  • stomach cancer
144
Q

what is the Glasgow blatchford score used for

A

stratifies upper GI bleeding patients who are at low risk and candidates for outpatient management

145
Q

what is the Rockall score used for?

A

determines severity of upper GI bleeding (needs to have an endoscopy done)

146
Q

what does coffee group blood suggest in emesis

A

bleeding has slowed or stopped

147
Q

what is Mallory Weiss oesophageal tear

A

due to alcohol or bullimia (vomiting/retching)

due to prolonged vomiting

148
Q

what is the trauma lethal triad

A

hypothermia
coagulopathy
metabolic acidosis

149
Q

what are abdominal red flag symptoms

A
rectal bleeding
anaemia
weight loss
FH of colorectal cancer
abdo/rectal mass
raised CRP/ESR or faecal calprotectin 
for woman > 50 with persistent bloating: can be ovarian cancer
150
Q

what are the 2 types of IBS

A

diarrhoea

constipation

151
Q

symptoms of IBS

A

colicky pain
bloating
altered bowel habit

(extra-intestinal manifestations: nausea, thigh pain, backache, lethargy, urinary symptoms, gynae symptoms)

152
Q

diagnostic criteria of IBS

A

-abdominal pain/discomfort that is relieved by defecation OR associated with altered bowel frequency or stool form

+ at least 2 of the following

  • altered stool passage
  • abdominal bloating, distention, tension orr hardness
  • symptoms made worse by eating
  • passage of mucus
153
Q

treatment of IBS

A
  • diet
  • exercise
  • laxatives or loperamide, tricyclic antidepressants
  • psychological help
  • acupuncture
  • probiotics?
  • hypnotherapy?
154
Q

what is Carnett’s sign

A

abdo pain s unchanged or increased when muscles of abode wall are tensed

155
Q

def diarrhoea

A

production of more that 2 unformed stools per day

156
Q

difference between acute and chronic diarrhoea

A

acute: less than 4 weeks
chronic: more than 4 weeks

157
Q

def dysentery

A

diarrhoea with visible blood in the stools

158
Q

def tenesmus

A

ineffective and painful straining on stool or urination

159
Q

social history of patient with diarrhoea?

A
travel
employment (food-handler, caregiver)
consumption of unsafe foods
swimming/drinking untreated fresh surface water
animal contact
receptive anal intercourse
contact with other ill persons
160
Q

causes of diarrhoea

A
gastroenteritis
diverticulitis
antibiotic therapy 
IBS
IBD
colorectal cancer
coeliac disease
appendicitis
161
Q

causes of constipation

A
rectocele
IBS
drug induced 
dysinergic defecation 
enterocoele
slow transit
162
Q

risk factors for IBD

A
  • genetics
  • smoking
  • NSAIDs
  • hygiene (decrease in it decreases risk for CD)
  • stress/depression
  • appendectomy (is protective)
163
Q

histological difference between crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis

A
  • inflammation: CD: deep (transmural), patchy/ UC: mucosal, continuous
  • granulomas: CD: ++/ UC: rare
  • goblet cells: CD: present/ UC: depleted
  • crypt abscesses: CD: +/ UC: ++
164
Q

clinical features of Crohn’s disease

A
diarrhoea (sometimes w/ blood)
abdo pain 
weight loss
malaise
lethargy 
anorexia
nausea/vomiting
low grade fever
mouth ulcers
joint pain/back pain
uveitis/conjunctivitis
165
Q

investigations in Crohn’s disease

A
  • bloods: CRP, FBC, etc
  • faecal calprotectin
  • stool sample for infective agent
  • endoscopy
166
Q

management of Crohn’s disease

A
  • glucocorticoid
  • azathioprine or mercaptopurine
  • infliximab and adalimumab (TNF-A inhibitors)

-surgery

167
Q

clinical features of Ulcerative Colitis

A
  • diarrhoea with blood and mucus
  • lower abode discomfort
  • malaise, lethargy, weight loss, anorexia
  • aphthous ulcerations in the mouth may be seen
168
Q

def proctitis

A

inflammation of the lining of the rectum

169
Q

investigations of ulcerative colitis?

A
  • bloods: CRP, FBC, etc
  • faecal calprotectin
  • stool sample for infective agent
  • endoscopy
170
Q

treatment of ulcerative colitis

A
  • topical (or oral) aminosalicylate
  • topical or oral corticosteroids
  • tofacinib, vedolizumab

-surgery

171
Q

causes of hypoalbuminia

A

reduced synthesis
loss (renal or bowel)

NOT MALNUTRITION

172
Q

what is the MUST score

A

5 step screening tool to identify adults who are malnourished or at risk