Gastroenterology Flashcards

0
Q

Patient presents with red crusted lesions around mouth and finger pulps 3 months after SB resection for Crohns. What is the cause?

A

zinc deficiency.

Presents as “Acrodermatitis”

  • peri-oral dermatitis
  • acral involvement
  • sometimes alopecia
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1
Q

What is the cell that is responsible for causing fibrosis in the liver?

A

STELLATE CELLS

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2
Q

What is the IL 28B genotype?

A

IL28B is a Genotype IN PATIENTS (NOT the virus!) that influences the viral kinetics in Hepatitis C.

IL28B has 2 main subsets: CC and TT

  • “CC” is a GOOD/favourable genotype. (“Yum, these CC’s are good!”)
  • “TT” is a BAD genotype (“Tsk Tsk! Don’t do that- That’s bad!”)
  • CC is the commonest and is the best to treat, 80% respond to treatment
  • TT mainly in Africans, responds very poorly to treatment

The favourable “CC” IL28B genotype is the single most important predictor of:

    • TREATMENT RESPONSE with Peg-Riba
    • SUSTAINED VIRAL CLEARANCE
    • SPONTANEOUS Viral clearance

hence for CC –> treat immediately
TT –> no good data yet on best treatment regimen

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3
Q

What does it mean to have Hep C Genotype 1?

A

Genotypes 1-3 are the VIRAL GENOTYPES that influence response to treatment.
(genotype of the virus, not the patient)

Genotypes 2/3 are best to treat, but less common.

Genotype 1 is BAD.
Most prevalent worldwide.
TYPE 1A is worst&raquo_space; 1B (“TYPE A personalities are the worst!”)

The new standard of care for Hep C Genotype 1’s are:
PEG-RIBA WITH PROTEASE INHIBITORS (TRIPLE THERAPY )
Options are: Peg-Riba-Telaprevir, or Peg-Riba-Boceprevir

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4
Q

What are the SIDE EFFECTS of using “Triple Therapy” for Hep C Genotype 1’s?

A

Triple therapy involves Peg-Riba PLUS a PROTEASE INHIBITOR.

Options are: Peg-Riba-Telaprevir or Peg-Riba-Boceprevir

SIDE EFFECTS of BOTH:
1. Myelosuppression
2. Riba –> severe HAEMOLYTIC ANAEMIA
(If resistant to one Prot inhibitor, you can not use the other. Resistance is a major problem)

SIDE EFFECTS of OF TELAPREVIR:
- “Fire-a-rrhoea” (Telaprevir is excreted in bile –> diarrhoea and anal pain)
- Rash in 6%
(“if you watch TELAvision all day, your ass will hurt!”)

SIDE EFFECTS OF BOCEPRREVIR:
- Dysgeusia (bad taste)
- nausea
(“This BOCCONCINI Cheese left a bad taste in my mouth- it’s “dysguesting”!!”)

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5
Q

What is the duration of treatment for Hep C Triple therapy?

A

Trick question.
Duration of therapy is determined by “Response guided therapy”
That is, we monitor HCV RNA at the 8-week mark.

If HCV RNA UNDETECTABLE at 8 weeks, then the TRIPLE THERAPY DURATION IS 24 WEEKS (6 months)

If HCV is DETECTABLE, then treatment duration is 48 WEEKS (approx 12 months)

Note:

    • New treatment is Sofosbovir and Ledipasvir (“SOFT-LED”) for 12 WEEKS ONLY.
    • 90% effective for ALL Genotypes, and good toxicity profile.
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6
Q

What is Sofosbovir?

What are the other new agents?

A

NEW drug treatment for Hep C Genotype 1.

(“If nothing else works for HepC, just hit them over the head with “SOFT-LEAD”) ie. SOF-LED.

SOFosvobir is a POLYMERASE INHIBITOR - a new Direct Antiviral agent.

“SOFOSBOVIR-LEDIPASVIR” is the NEW gold-standard treatment of ALL Genotypes.
Sofosbovir plus Ledipasvir combination for 12 WEEKS ONLY.

Good toxicity profile.

Available in Australia on compassionate grounds only.
But readily available in America.

(Also new drugs being trialled are other Protease Inhibitors:
Ritonavir (used in HIV)
simepravir (less s/e)
And another target is IFN LAMBDA)

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7
Q

What are the PHASES of Hep B infection, and what do these following tests correspond to?

  1. sAg positive, eAg positive, core IgM +/-, core IgG positive, HBV DNA positive, sAb neg, eAb neg.
  2. sAg positive, eAg negative, core IgM positive, core IgG positive, HBV DNA positive, sAb neg, eAb positive.
  3. sAg positive, eAg negative, core IgM negative, core IgG positive, HBV DNA negative, sAb negative, eAb negative.
A

Phases of Hep B:
Phase I - Immunotolerant (NO liver disease, occurs in 80%)
Phase II - acute infection (either acute 1st episode or acute flare of chronic hep)
Phase III - latent disease
Phase IV - pre-core mutant infection (when the host directs a lot of immune pressure towards the eAg (eAg is only present in wild type virus) –> results in neg eAg and positive eAb –> however patient is still susceptible to a flare up of hepatitis from a pre-core mutant, hence core IgM positive.

Note that eAg only indicates infection with the wild type virus.
sAg indicates infection with any type of virus (wild or mutant)

  1. Acute flare of a chronic infection (phase II) - active hepatitis
  2. Pre-core mutant infection (phase IV) - active hepatitis
  3. Latent disease (phase III)
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8
Q

What is the standard of care for Hep B?

A
  1. In YOUNG patients or those with Hep D co infection –> PEG (pegylated IFN) “single”-agent therapy for 48 weeks (approx 1 year)

(“BE (B) quick!! You need to PEG the SINGLE YOUNG guy!)
= PEG Single agent in hep B

  • there is a risk of decompensated liver disease
  • 1/3 of patients get a sustained viral response
  1. (“You can “be” L.A.T.E. For OLDER guys”)
    L - Lamivudine - but problems with resistance
    A - Adefovir
    T - Tenofovir - renal side effects
    E - Entecavir
    All of these are Nucleoside Analogue Reverse Transcriptase inhibitors –> prevents viral replication in cells
Indefinite duration of therapy
Almost all (95-100%) patients get viral suppression but only a sustained response in 6%
Not much risk of decompensated liver disease
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9
Q

What is the treatment for Hep B reactivation in pregnancy?

A

There is a 10% risk of vertical transmission if untreated!

hence treat mum with LAMIVUDINE And TELBIVUDINE (Lam-Telbi)
At 32 weeks to decrease vertical transmission

12hrs prior to delivery –> Hep B Immunoglobulin

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10
Q

What percentage of people with Hep B develop cirrhosis?

What is the most important risk factor for cirrhosis?

A

20%

Hep B DNA Viral load!!

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11
Q

Treatment for HCC

A

Stage A:
Small SINGLE tumours resect and laser RFA ablation

Stage B:
Multinodular –> TACE /chemoembolisation
(Chemo with anthracyclines Doxo or Epirubicin, plus Lipiodol and Gelfoam –> into hepatic artery as blood supply to HCC is from hepatic artery not portal vein)

Stage C:
** SORAFENIB = VEGF inhibitor. Inhibits angiogenesis.
S/E rash, hand-foot reaction (good signs)

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12
Q

Middle-aged patient presents with fatigue and arthralgias in the 2nd and 3rd MCP joints for the last 3 years. He has bronzed skin, newly diagnosed Diabetes. He drinks moderate alcohol. On examination there is hepatomegaly. What is the diagnosis?

A
Hereditary Haemochromatosis.
Autosomal recessive.
Carrier status 1:8
Due to homozygosity in C282Y (H63D also causes HH- less commonly)
48% have Diabetes at diagnosis.

–> Increased Fe absorption AND
Inceased Fe release from MACROPHAGES in erythrophagocytosis

–> leads to Fe deposition in LIVER (cirrhosis due to Fe accumulation in peri portal hepatocytes), HEART (cardiomyopathy- do a TTE), PITUITARY (hypogonadism, check FSH), PANCREAS (diabetes), JOINTS (2nd/3rd MCP)

CRITERIA IS:
Tsats high >45%
Ferritin high >674 in men and >449 in women
CRP normal (need to exclude acute infection)

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13
Q
Which of these does NOT cause Pancreatitis?
A. statins
B. fibrates 
C. triglycerides
D. thiazides
E. Ercp

List all the things that cause Pancreatitis (name at least 8)

A

Answer is A.
New evidence that STATINS are PROTECTIVE against pancreatitis
but
FIBRATES INCREASE RISK OF PANCREATITIS.

Causes of Pancreatitis:
Alcohol, gallstones
ERCP (2% mortality) --> hence give NSAIDS/Indomethacin suppository prior to ERCP
*** FIBRATES ***
THIAZIDES!
Triglycerides

SPINK1 mutation –> HEREDITARY, Auto DOM, chronic pancreatitis

Autoimmune causes: related to Sjogrens, Primary Biliary Cirrhosis, RA
–> treat with steroids

Necrotising pancreatitis = cx mgt

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14
Q

What genes are associated with Crohn’s disease?

A

NOD2 and CARD 15.

  • part of the innate immune system
  • NOD recognises a PAMP called Muramyl Dipeptide which is on bacterial peptidoglycan cell wall

NOD 2 positivity is bad!!

  • predicts a higher need for bowel resection in Crohns
  • predicts MORE OPERATIONS a
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15
Q

What are “high risk” features in Crohn’s disease?

A
STRICTURES (worst feature)
Weight loss (also bad)
Steroids at time of diagnosis
Smoking (increases risk by 90%, increases risk perianal fistulae)
Perianal disease
ASCA positive - in 40% of Crohns
Deep ulcers in colon
Upper GI disease
NOD 2 positivity
Female
Young age < 40

(Ken says worst feature is strictures and weight loss)

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16
Q

What is the management for Crohns Disease?

A

Use a “Step Up” approach.

  1. Quit smoking (as effective as starting a patient on Infliximab!)
  2. ASA’s for DISTAL disease
    - reasonable to try ASAs but not amazing evidence
    - PR plus PO combination is more effective than single agent
  3. Steroids
  4. Thiopurines - AZA –> 6MP
    - ** Early therapy reduced risk for surgery! **
    - Test thiopurine metabolites if patient not responding:
    the higher the level of 6-TGN, the better the response
    (6MMPR = hepatotoxicity)
  5. MTX
  6. Anti-TNFs - INFLIXIMAB, Adalimumab (Biologics)
    - more effective when combined with AZA
    - need to qualify for this!
  7. Monitor for mucosal healing (repeat scope)
  8. Surgery
    - options - seton, or Ileocolic resection
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17
Q

Side effects of 5-ASAs

A

Stephen Johnsons Syndrome in Sulfazalazine! (Sulfa drug)
Interstitial nephritis
Diarrhoea
Pancreatitis

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18
Q

Patient with Crohns is not responding to AZA.
Thiopurine metabolites show a low TGN and high 6MMPR.
What is the next step in management?

A

Add on ALLOPURINOL to increase TGN levels.

–> clinical improvement.

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19
Q

What are the side effects of Thiopurines AZA / 6MP?

A
LYMPHOMAS (2x increased risk!)
Skin cancers
BM suppression
Hepatitis
Pancreatitis
Flu-like symptoms
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20
Q

What is the criteria for qualifying for anti-TNF therapy in Crohns?

A

To qualify for Biologics, must have:

FISTULISING CROHNS,

OR

No response to Thiopurines/Methotrexate for 3 MONTHS, and
Steroids for 6 MONTHS.

Also need to DEMONSTRATE a response to Biologics with the “CDAI” (“Crohns Disease Activity Index”) to continue therapy. CDAI >300.

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21
Q

What is the management for Fistulising Crohns Disease?

A
  1. Infliximab
  2. Antibiotics (metronidazole +/- Ciprifloxacin)
  3. Seton

–> 4. last resort is Ileocolic resection

22
Q

Prior to Biologics, what vaccinations would you give to the patient?

A
Hep B
VZV (no live vaccines allowed while on Biologics)
Pneumococcal
Flu
HPV
23
Q

What clinical sign parallels with disease activity in Inflammatory Bowel Disease?

A

Erythema Nodosum

24
Q

What cancers are linked with Ulcerative Colitis?

How would you monitor for these?

A

Bowel Cancer and Cholangiocarcinomas

If Co-existent PSC/Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis –> increased risk of Cholangiocarcinomas and bowel cancers.
Needs ANNUAL SCREENING for Cancer (but Cancer very hard to see on scope- appears as flat dysplasia)

All other patients:
Surveillance with COLONOSCOPY EVERY 2 YEARS for any patient with Ulceractive Colitis > 8 YEARS (chronic UC)
–> if low grade dysplasia, needs repeat scope every 6 months
–> if high grade –> Colectomy

25
Q

What is the management for Ulcerative Colitis?

A

EASY as NO EVIDENCE FOR MTX or BIOLOGICS IN UC.

Mx is:

  1. ASAs - oral, rectal and topical
  2. Steroids
  3. Thiopurines - AZA/6MP

Need to look for mucosal healing to guide therapy

26
Q

What is the new mab agent with proven benefit in Ulcerative Colitis in clinical trials?

A

VEDOLIZUMAB

Binds to alpha4 / beta7 Integrin to target lymphocyte adhesion and tracking.
These integrins are found in Peyers Patch.

27
Q

What vasculitic marker is associated with Ulcerative Colitis?

A

P-ANCA

28
Q

What are the factors which accelerate the natural progression of Hep C disease?

A
Alcohol - #1
Fatty Liver # 2
HH
duration of disease
Transfusions
(Not genotype)

These factors significantly accelerate Hep C disease

29
Q

What is the worst Hepatitis in pregnancy?

A

Hep E - mortality of 20% in pregnancy
Results in fulminant hepatic failure

Transmission is Enteric (hep “E” for enteric)
- found in sewerage, not person to person, low viral load in faeces

30
Q

NAFLD. What percentage of patients develop cirrhosis with

  1. Steatosis only
  2. NASH
A

Steatosis –> 10% develop cirrhosis

NASH –> 30 % develop cirrhosis

31
Q

What is the NAFLD score?

A

The NAFLD score EXCLUDES significant fibrosis.

It is a good guide of who will NOT get sick.

32
Q

How does Budd Chiari present?

A

Triad of:
Ascites
Hepatomegaly
Abdo Pain.

Budd Chiari is the occlusion of hepatic veins, due to:

  • thrombosis (primary cause, in 75%) or
  • compression 2ry to HCC / tumour
Associated with pro-thrombotic states
Eg. Pregnancy
OCP
Anti phospholipid syndrome
Polycythemia, Myeloproliferative disorders
Lupus
33
Q

Young, healthy female has an incidental finding of liver lesion. CT shows a “central artery” with a “stellate scar” and the lesion is solitary and circumscribed. What is the lesion?

A

Focal Nodular Hyperplasia

On CT looks like a wagon wheel around the central artery. STELLATE scar = fibrosis

34
Q

What is the genetic defect in Wilsons Disease?

How do you make a diagnosis of Wilsons?

A

Auto recessive defect in ATP 7B - a metal transporter in the liver.

Copper gets into the liver but CAN NOT BIND TO CAERULOPLASMIN hence there is accumulation of Cu –> hepatic injury.

Patients can present with ANY pattern of liver derangement.
Neuro - Basal ganglia involvement
Eyes - K-F rings

DIAGNOSIS:
CAERULOPLASMIN = LOW (Unbound Caeru”LOW”plasmin does not last long in circulation)
Serum Copper = Low
24-hr Urine copper = HIGH

LIVER Bx: Lots of COPPER

35
Q
Patient is day 10 post stem cell transplant for AML and presents with weight gain of 12kg. Bloods show deranged LFTs:
Bilirubin 90
ALP 500
GGT 600
ALT 150
AST 120
WCC 0. Neutrophils 0.
What is the diagnosis?
A

Sinusoidal Obstruction Syndrome (old name: Veno-Occlusive Disease)

TRIAD OF:
Hepatomegaly
Jaundice 
Weight gain (from ascites)
(Looks like Budd Chiari clinically but no hepatic vein obstruction)

DUE TO:
Bone Marrow Transplant
Chemotherapy
Immunosuppresion - AZA

TREATMENT: Supportive, but be aware 15-30% MORTALITY

36
Q

Middle aged female, obese, presents with cholestatic LFTs.
What is the diagnosis and pathophysiology/ cells affected?
What markers are positive in this condition?
At what stage would you consider a liver transplant?

A

Diagnosis is Primary Biliary Cirrhosis.
Non-caseating, GRANULOMATOUS , AUTOIMMUNE damage to the SMALL bile ducts.

Pathophysiology: immune attack on the small bile ducts via antibody to mitochondrial membrane.

Patients are AMA positive (anti mitochondrial) and antiSMA (anti smooth muscle) positive.
95% are female and fat.
May have xanthelasma.
May have HIGH IgM.

Mx is Ursodeoxycholic acid (s/e diarrhoea) and needs liver transplant if Bilirubin >100.

37
Q

What is Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis?

What 3 conditions is it associated with?

A

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis is the SCLEROSIS and Inflammation of the BILE DUCT and LARGE channels…

(which therefore have a propensity for developing Cholangio-carcinomas –> hence biopsy needed)

ASSOCIATED WITH:

  1. ULCERATIVE COLITIS (in 75%)
  2. CHOLANGIOCARCINOMAS (in 10%)
  3. Colorectal Cancers (due to coexistence with UC)
38
Q

How do you make a diagnosis of Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis?

A

MRCP: “BEADING” (= fibrosis!)

Bloods: pANCA positive in 70%, HLDA DR4 more rapid progression

Liver Bx: “ONION SKINNING” or FIBROSIS around the bile ducts, patchy disease.

May have CHOLANGIOCARCINOMA (10%) and ULCERATIVE COLITIS (75%)

39
Q

When do you use these scoring systems? (Why are they useful?)

  1. Maddrey Factor
  2. Child-Pugh score
  3. MELD Score
  4. Glasgow alcoholic hepatitis score
  5. Lille Score
  6. ABIC Score
A

Basically the indicators of HIGH MORTALITY in Alcoholic Hepatitis are: “Beer, Port and Ethanol” =

  • Bilirubin
  • PT prolongation and
  • Encephalopathy.

** anything transplant-related– use Creatinine **

The following scores test a variation of these factors.

  1. Maddrey Factor - for MORTALITY, SEVERITY and PROGNOSIS in Alcoholic Hepatitis
    - Bilirubin and INR in formula
    - >32 is a POOR prognosis
    - ** Tells you if you need PREDNISONE for management of Alcoholic Hepatitis **
  2. Child-Pugh score - for MORTALITY at 1 year or 2 years
    - Child A = survival 100% at 1 year
    - Child B = 80%
    - Child C = 45%
  3. MELD Score - for MORTALITY at 3 months in IN-HOSPITALS patients eg. following a TRANSPLANT, or hospitalised for alcoholic hepatitis.
    - Bilirubin, INR and CREATININE in formula
    - predicts survival among patients following a transplant or TIPPS
    - used by Surgeons mostly
  4. Glasgow alcoholic hepatitis score - for MORTALITY in Alcoholic Hep
    - More specific but less sensitive than Maddrey in predicting outcome
  5. Lille Score - determines RESPONSE to treatment
  6. ABIC Score (not used much - accounts for age)
    - “AGE, Bilirubin, INR, Creatinine
40
Q

Pancreatitis. What are the causes?

What drug is found to be PROTECTIVE?

A

Alcohol, gallstones
Drugs - ** FIBRATES!!! & THIAZIDES
Metabolic - High Triglycerides
ERCP (2% mortality)

*** STATINS ARE PROTECTIVE IN PANCREATITIS, whereas
Fibrates increase risk of Pancreatitis

41
Q

What is the disease involving SPINK1 mutation?

A

Autosomal Dominant Hereditary Pancreatitis

–> Chronic Pancreatitis

42
Q

How does IgG 4 Disease present and what is the management?

A
Typically Middle aged men
Weight loss
Lymphadenopathy
Jaundice
may have Pancreatic insufficiency or new onset Diabetes

(from UpToDate)
Manifestations of IgG4 Disease:
- Type 1 Autoimmune Pancreatitis
- Salivary gland (sialadenitis) and lacrimal gland involvement
- Sclerosing Cholangitis; IgG4-related
- RETROPERITONEAL FIBROSIS
- Aortitis
- Thyroiditis
- IgG4 related Interstitial Pneumonitis and Pulmonary inflammatory pseudotumours
- IgG4 related RENAL disease, particularly Tubulointerstitial nephritis

TREATMENT = CORTICOSTEROIDS for 2 months, then taper.
But relapse is common with discontinuation.

43
Q

What is the significance of the Cag-A gene?

A

H.Pylori gram neg spiral shaped bacterium.

If Cag-A gene positive in H.Pylori:

  • More VIRULENT
  • causes more Duodenal and Gastric Ulcers
  • more RELAPSE
44
Q

H.Pylori. What determines whether a patient will develop Duodenal or Gastic ulcers?

A

MOST (80%) of Duodenal cancers are due to H.Pylori.
60% of Peptic/Gastric Ulcers are due to H.Pylori.

Pattern of Gastritis determines WHERE patient will develop Ulcer.
PAN-GASTRITIS –> Intestinal metaplasia in stomach (duodenum normal) –> Acid reduced –> Gastric Ulcers

ANTRUM-Predominant Gastritis –> High acid output –> Gastric metaplasia in duodenum –> Duodenal ulcers

NB.
Present in 30% of Australians.
H.Pylori infection confers a lifetime risk of Peptic Ulcer disease of 15-20% and Gastric cancer risk of 2%.

Gastric MALT Lymphomas are uncommon but MOSTLY caused by H.Pylori infection.

45
Q

H.Pylori detection. What molecule does the Urea breath test and CLO test detect?

A

Urea —(urease)—> Ammonia (NH3) + CO2

Urea breath test detects CO2 (sens and spec 95-100%)

CLO test (Rapid Urease test on biopsy) detects Ammonia (NH3)

46
Q

What are the first line agents used for eradication of H.Pylori?

What is the best “salvage” treatment in the event of 2x failures of eradication?

A

First line is 1/52 of Triple Therapy with:
Clarithromycin
Amoxicillin
Omeprazole
Then repeat Urea breath test at 6/52 to confirm eradication.

(If penicillin allergy, use Metronidazole instead of Amoxicillin)

Watch for adverse reaction if patient on warfarin - interacts with Clarithromycin

SALVAGE THERAPY:
Use MOXIfloxacin / LEVOfloxacin (FQ’s) + Amoxycillin + PPI
For 10 DAYS

47
Q

Patient is a young male Asthmatic who presents with dysphagia and a food bolus obstruction. What is your diagnosis and management?

A

Classic presentation of Eosinophilic Oesophagitis.

Diagnosis is with gastroscopy which shows horizontal rings/ridging.
Biopsy shows eosinophilia.
Th2-driven.

MANAGEMENT:
1. ELIMINATION Diet (“Six food elimination diet” - eliminate 6 foods for 6 weeks then reintroduce one at a time)
main culprits are WHEAT and MILK. Also cut out eggs, soy, nuts, seafood.

(In children – use Elemental diet which is a formula with amino-acids only. Devoid of antigens)

  1. PPI (if predominant symptom is heartburn)
  2. TOPICAL STEROID - FLUTICASONE puffer sprayed onto throat and swallowed into Oesophagitis
48
Q

How does Small Bowel bacterial overgrowth present, and how do you confirm the diagnosis?

A

History of diabetes, past surgery, Coeliac or Crohn’s disease.
Typical symptoms are weight loss, bloating, flatulence, cramping and mild-mod diarrhoea.

LOW Vit B12 / FOLATE due to bacterial consumption.

DIAGNOSIS:
- ** HYDROGEN BREATH TEST is diagnostic ** (a rise in hydrogen or methane)

Other tests:
B12/Folate def
Small bowel series - looks like small bowel diverticulosis

Treat with antibiotics.

49
Q

Coeliac Disease. What are the tests that are

  • most sensitive
  • most specific
A

HLA DQ2 and DQ8 = Most Sensitive (negative test rules out diagnosis)

tTG antibodies (IgA) = Most Specific and highly accurate.
- Note that tTG Abs are present from the SECOND TIME gluten is consumed.

Other confirmatory tests:
Endomysial Ab (IgA)
Anti-gliadin Ab (IgA / IgM) (not very good)

BIOPSY (gold std) of DUODENUM:

  1. Villous atrophy –> FLAT
  2. Crypt hyperplasia
  3. Lymphocytosis

NB. coeliac is T cell mediated. Present in 2% of population.

50
Q

Gastroenteritis. What are the common causes of diarrhoea if the time to symptoms is:

  1. Less than 12 hours
  2. 6 to 24 hours
  3. 12 to 48 hours
  4. 12 hours to 3 days
  5. 2 to 4 days
  6. 2 to 5 days
  7. Up to 10 days
  8. 3 days to many weeks (70 days)
A
  1. Less than 12 hours - Staph Aureus (toxin mediated) or Bacillus (assoc with rice)
  2. 6 to 24 hours - Clostridium perfringens (gravy/cafeteria food)
    - ———–
  3. 12 to 48 hours - Norovirus (shellfish)
  4. 12 hours to 3 days - Salmonella (chicken)
  5. 2 to 4 days - Vibrio (oysters and uncooked seafood)
    - ———–
  6. 2 to 5 days - CAMPYLOBACTER
  7. Up to 10 days - E.Coli
  8. 3 days to many weeks (70 days) - LISTERIA
51
Q

What are the criteria for proceeding to a liver transplant in a patient that has a Paracetamol overdose, with LFTs not responding to NAC?

A

Kings College Criteria for liver transplant in acute liver failure–

PARACETAMOL OVERDOSE (= ingestion of 150mg/kg or total dose 7.5g)
Refer for liver transplant if:
1. pH < 7.3
Or
2. Grade III or IV Encephalopathy + PT>100 + Creat>300

CRITERIA IN OTHER CAUSES OF FULMINANT HEPATIC FAILURE:
refer to surgeons if any 3 of:
- Age 40
- Unfavourable disease pathology eg. Wilsons, Drug, nonA/B viral hep
- Duration of jaundice >7 days prior to development of encephalopathy
- PT>50
- Bilirubin >18

52
Q

What are the Grades of Hepatic Encephalopathy?

A

4 grades.

I - mild confusion, slurred speech

II - lethargy and moderate confusion

III - stupor, drowsy, marked confusion, incoherent

IV - coma

53
Q

What is the significance of having positive SMA and LKM antibodies?

A

Smooth Muscle Antibody (SMA) and LKM antibodies are present in Autoimmune Hepatitis.

SMA - classically TYPE 1 AI Hep, also has positive ANA

LKM - TYPE 2 AI Hep, which is more AGGRESSIVE and affects young