Gastroenterology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the causes of diarrhoea?

A
  • Acute
    • Suspect gastroenteritis
    • Travel, diet, contacts?
  • Chronic
    • Diarrhoea alternating with constipation: IBS
    • Anorexia, ↓wt., nocturnal diarrhoea: organic cause
  • Bloody
    • Vascular: ischaemic colitis
    • Infective: campylobacter, shigella, salmonella, E. coli, amoeba, pseudomembranous colitis
    • Inflammatory: UC, Crohn’s
    • Neoplastic: CRC, polyps
  • Mucus
    • IBS, CRC, polyps
  • Pus
    • IBD, diverticulitis, abscess
  • Assoc. c¯ medical disease
    • ↑ T4
    • Autonomic neuropathy (e.g. DM)
    • Carcinoid
  • Assoc. c¯ drugs
    • Abx
    • PPI, cimetidine
    • NSAIDs
    • Digoxin
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2
Q

What investigations would you perform in a patient presenting with diarrhoea?

A
  • Bloods
    • FBC: ↑ WCC, anaemia
    • U+E: ↓K+, dehydration
    • ↑ESR: IBD, Ca
    • ↑CRP: IBD, infection
    • Coeliac serology: anti-TTG or anti-endomysial Abs
  • Stool
    • MCS and C. diff toxin
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3
Q

How would you manage a patient with diarrhoea?

A
  • Treat cause
  • Oral or IV rehydration
  • Codeine phosphate or loperamide after each loose stool
  • Anti-emetic if assoc. with n/v: e.g. prochlorperazine
  • Abx (e.g. cipro) in infective diarrhoea → systemic illness
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4
Q

What is the pathogen, epidemiology and risk factors for C. diff diarrhoea?

A

Pathogen

  • Gm+ve spore-forming anaerobe
  • Release enterotoxins A and B
  • Spores are v. robust and can survive for >40d

Epidemiology

  • Commonest cause (25%) of Abx assoc. diarrhoea
    • 100% of Abx assoc. pseudomembranous colitis
  • Stool carriage in 3% of healthy adults and 15-30% of hospital pts.

Risk Factors

  • Abx: e.g. clindamycin, cefs, augmentin, quinolones
  • ↑ age
  • In hospital: ↑ c¯ length of stay, ↑ c¯ C. diff +ve contact
  • PPIs
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5
Q

How can C. diff infection present?

A
  • Asymptomatic
  • Mild diarrhoea
  • Colitis w/o pseudomembranes
  • Pseudomembranous colitis
  • Fulminant colitis
  • May occur up to 2mo after discontinuation of Abx
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6
Q

What are the features of Pseudomembranous Colitis?

A
  • Severe systemic symptoms: fever, dehydration
  • Abdominal pain, bloody diarrhoea, mucus PR
  • Pseudomembranes (yellow plaques) on flexi sig
  • Complications
    • Paralytic ileus
    • Toxic dilatation → perforation
    • Multi-organ failure
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7
Q

What investigations would you perform in a patient presenting with suspected C. diff?

A
  • Bloods: ↑↑CRP, ↑↑WCC, ↓albumin, dehydration
  • CDT ELISA
  • Stool culture
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8
Q

What markers of severe disease are there for C. diff infection?

A

Severe Disease: ≥1 of

  • WCC >15
  • Cr >50% above baseline
  • Temp >38.5
  • Clinical / radiological evidence of severe colitis
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9
Q

How would you manage a patient with C. diff infection?

A

General

  • Stop causative Abx
  • Avoid antidiarrhoeals and opiates
  • Enteric precautions

Specific

  • 1st line: Metronidazole 400mg TDS PO x 10-14d
  • 2nd line: Vanc 125mg QDS PO x 10-14d
    • Failed metro
  • Severe: Vanc 1st (may add metro IV)
    • ↑ to 250mg QDS if no response (max 500mg)
    • Urgent colectomy may be needed if
      • Toxic megacolon
      • ↑ LDH
      • Deteriorating condition
  • Recurrence (15-30%)
    • Reinfection or residual spores
    • Repeat course of metro x 10-14d
    • Vanc if further relapse (25%)
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10
Q

What are the causes of constipation?

A

OPENED IT

  • Obstruction
    • Mechanical: adhesions, hernia, Ca, inflamatory strictures, pelvic mass
    • Pseudo-obstruction: post-op ileus
  • Pain
    • Anal fissure
    • Proctalgia fugax
  • Endocrine / Electrolytes
    • Endo: ↓T4
    • Electrolytes: ↓Ca, ↓K, uraemia
  • Neuro
    • MS
    • Myelopathy
    • Cauda equina syndrome
  • Elderly
  • Diet / Dehydration
  • IBS
  • Toxins
    • Opioids
    • Anti-mACh
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11
Q

How would you manage a patient with constipation?

A
  • General
    • Drink more
    • ↑ dietary fibre
  • Bulking: ↑ faecal mass → ↑ peristalsis
    • CI: obstruction and faecal impaction
    • Bran
    • Ispaghula husk (Fybogel)
    • Methylcellulose
  • Osmotic: retain fluid in the bowel
    • Lactulose
    • MgSO4 (rapid)
  • Stimulant: ↑ intestinal motility and secretion
    • CI: obstruction, acute colitis
    • SE: abdo cramps
    • Bisacodyl PO or PR
    • Senna
    • Docusate sodium
    • Sodium picosulphate (rapid)
  • Softeners
    • Useful when managing painful anal conditions
    • Liquid paraffin
  • Enemas
    • Phosphate enema (osmotic)
  • Suppositories
    • Glycerol (stimulant)
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12
Q

What is the definition of IBS?

A

Disorders of enhanced visceral perception → bowel symptoms for which no organic cause can be found

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13
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for IBS?

A

ROME Criteria

  • Abdo discomfort / pain for ≥ 12wks which has 2 of:
    • Relieved by defecation
    • Change in stool frequency (D or C)
    • Change in stool form: pellets, mucus
    • 2 of:
      • Urgency
      • Incomplete evacuation
      • Abdo bloating / distension
      • Mucous PR
      • Worsening symptoms after food
  • Exclusion criteria
    • >40yrs
    • Bloody stool
    • Anorexia
    • Wt. loss
    • Diarrhoea at night
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14
Q

How would you investigate and manage a patient with IBS?

A

Investigations

  • Bloods: FBC, ESR, LFT, coeliac serology, TSH
  • Colonoscopy: if >60yrs or any features of organic disease

Management

  • Exclusion diets can be tried
  • Bulking agents for constipation and diarrhoea (e.g.
  • fybogel).
  • Antispasmodics for colic/bloating (e.g. mebeverine)
  • Amitriptyline may be helpful
  • CBT
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15
Q

What are the causes of dysphagia?

A
  • Inflammatory
    • Tonsillitis, pharyngitis
    • Oesophagitis: GORD, candida
    • Oral candidiasis
    • Aphthous ulcers
  • Mechanical Block
    • Luminal
      • FB
      • Large food bolus
    • Mural
      • Benign stricture
        • Web (e.g. Plummer-Vinson)
        • Oesophagitis
        • Trauma (e.g. OGD)
      • Malignant stricture
        • Pharynx, oesophagus, gastric
        • Pharyngeal pouch
    • Extra-mural
      • Lung Ca
      • Rolling hiatus hernia
      • Mediastinal LNs (e.g. lymphoma)
      • Retrosternal goitre
      • Thoracic aortic aneurysm
  • Motility Disorders
    • Local
      • Achalasia
      • Diffuse oesophageal spasm
      • Nutcracker oesophagus
      • Bulbar / pseudobulbar palsy (CVA, MND)
    • Systemic
      • Systemic sclerosis / CREST
      • MG
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16
Q

What are the different ways in which dysphagia can present?

A
  • Dysphagia for liquids and solids at start
    • Yes: motility disorder
    • No, solids > liquids: stricture
  • Difficulty making swallowing movement: bulbar palsy
  • Odonophagia: Ca, oesophageal ulcer, spasm
  • Intermittent: oesophageal spasm
  • Constant and worsening: malignant stricture
  • Neck bulges or gurgles on drinking: pharyngeal pouch
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17
Q

What clinical signs would you look for when examining a patient with dysphagia?

A
  • Cachexia
  • Anaemia
  • Virchow’s node (+ve = Troisier’s sign)
  • Neurology
  • Signs of systemic disease (e.g. scleroderma)
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18
Q

What investigations would you like to perform in a patient with dysphagia?

A
  • Bloods: FBC, U+E
  • CXR
  • OGD
  • Barium swallow ± video fluoroscopy
  • Oesophageal manometrry
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19
Q

What is the pathophysiology, cause, presentation and complication of achalasia?

A
  • Pathophysiology
    • Degeneration of myenteric plexus (Auerbach’s)
    • ↓ peristalsis
    • LOS fails to relax
  • Cause
    • 1O / idiopathic: commonest
    • 2O: oesophageal Ca, Chagas’ disease (T. cruzii)
  • Presentation
    • Dysphagia: liquids and solids at same time
    • Regurgitation
    • Substernal cramps
    • Wt. loss
  • Comps
    • Chronic achalasia → oesophageal SCC
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20
Q

How would you investigate and manage a patient with achalasia?

A
  • Investigations
    • Ba swallow: dilated tapering oesophagus (Bird’s beak)
    • Manometry: failure of relaxation + ↓ peristalsis
    • CXR: may show widended mediastinum
    • OGD: exclude malignancy
  • Management
    • Med: CCBs, nitrates
    • Int: endoscopic balloon dilatation, botulinum toxin injection
    • Surg: Heller’s cardiomyotomy (open or endo)
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21
Q

What should you know about a pharyngeal pouch?

A

AKA Zenker’s Diverticulum

  • Outpouching of oesophagus between upper boarder of cricopharyngeus muscle and lower boarder of inferior constrictor of pharynx
    • Weak area called Killian’s dehiscence.
  • Defect usually occurs posteriorly but swelling usually bulges to left side of neck.
  • Food debris → pouch expansion → oesophageal compression → dysphagia.
  • Pres: regurgitation, halitosis, gurgling sounds
  • Rx: excision, endoscopic stapling
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22
Q

What is diffuse oesophageal spasm?

A
  • Intermittent dysphagia ± chest pain
  • Ba swallow shows corkscrew oesophagus
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23
Q

What is nutcracker oesophagus?

A

↑ contraction pressure with normal peristalsis

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24
Q

What worrying associated features might there be with dyspepsia?

A

ALARM Symptoms

  • Anaemia
  • Loss of wt.
  • Anorexia
  • Recent onset progressive symptoms
  • Melaena or haematemesis
  • Swallowing difficulty
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25
What are the causes of dyspepsia?
* **Inflammation**: GORD, gastritis, PUD * **Ca**: oesophageal, gastric * **Functional**: non-ulcer dyspepsia
26
How would you manage a patient with new onset dyspepsia?
* OGD if \>55 or ALARMS * Try conservative measures for 4 wks * Stop drugs: NSAIDs, CCBs (relax LOS) * Lose wt., stop smoking, ↓ EtOH * Avoid hot drinks and spicy food * OTC * Antacids: magnesium trisilicate * Alginates: gaviscon advance * Test for H. pylori if no improvement: breath or serology * +ve → eradication therapy * Consider OGD if no improvement * -ve → PPI trial for 4wks * Consider OGD if no improvement * PPIs can be used intermittently to control symptoms. * **​​Proven GORD** * Full dose PPI for 1-2mo * Then, low-dose PPI PRN * **Proven PUD** * Full dose PPI for 1-2mo * H. pylori eradication if positive * Endoscopy to check for resolution if GU * Then, low-dose PPI PRN
27
What is H. pylori eradication therapy?
* 7 days Rx * NB. PPIs and cimetidine → false –ve C13 breath tests and antigen tests so stop \>2wks before. * PAC 500 * PPI: lansoprazole 30mg BD * Amoxicillin 1g BD * Clarithromycin 500mg BD * PMC 250 * PPI: lansoprazole 30mg BD * Metronidazole 400mg BD * Clarithromycin 250mg BD * Failure * 95% success * Mostly due to poor compliance * Add bismuth * Stools become tarry black
28
What are the causes of peptic ulcer disease?
* **Acute**: usually due to drugs (NSAIDs, steroids) or “stress” * **Chronic**: drugs, H. pylori, ↑Ca, Zollinger-Ellison
29
What are the features of duodenal ulcers?
* Pathology * 4x commoner than GU * 1st part of duodenum (cap) * M\>F * Risk factors * H. pylori (90%) * Drugs: NSAIDs, steroids * Smoking * EtOH * ↑ gastric emptying * Blood group O * Presentation * Epigastric pain: * Before meals and at night * Relieved by eating or milk
30
What are the features of gastric ulcers?
* Pathology * Lesser curve of gastric antrum * Beware ulcers elsewhere (often malignant) * Risk factors * H. pylori (80%) * Smoking * Drugs * Delayed gastric emptying * Stress * **Cushing’s**: intracranial disease * **Curling’s**: burns, sepsis, trauma * Presentation * Epigastric pain: * Worse on eating * Relieved by antacids * Wt. loss
31
What are the complications of peptic ulcer disease?
* **Haemorrhage** * Haematemeis or melaena * Fe deficiency anaemia * **Perforation** * Peritonitis * **Gastric Outflow Obstruction** * Vomiting, colic, distension * **Malignancy** * ↑ risk c¯ H. pylori
32
How would you investigate a patient with peptic ulcer disease?
* **Bloods**: FBC, urea (↑ in haemorrhage) * C13 breath test * OGD (stop PPIs \>2wks before) * CLO / urease test for H. pylori * Always take biopsies of ulcers to check for Ca * Gastrin levels if Zollinger-Ellison suspected
33
What are the conservative and medical management options for peptic ulcer disease?
* **Conservative** * Lose wt. * Stop smoking and ↓ EtOH * Avoid hot drinks and spicy food * Stop drugs: NSAIDs, steroids * OTC antacids * **Medical** * OTC antacids: Gaviscon, Mg trisilicate * H. pylori eradication: PAC500 or PMC250 * Full-dose acid suppression for 1-2mo * PPIs: lansoprazole 30mg OD * H2RAs: ranitidine 300mg nocte * Low-dose acid suppression PRN
34
What are the surgical management options for peptic ulcer disease?
* **Concepts** * No acid → no ulcer * Secretion stimulated by gastrin and vagus N. * **Vagotomy** * **Truncal**: ↓ acid secretion but prevents pyloric sphincter relaxation so must be combined with pyloroplasty or gastroenterostomy. * **Selective**: vagus nerve only denervated where it supplies lower oesophagus and stomach * Nerves of Laterjet (supply pylorus) left intact * **Antrectomy with vagotomy** * Distal half of stomach removed + anastomosis: * Directly to duodenum: Billroth 1 * To small bowel loop with duodenal stump oversewn: Billroth 2 or Polya * **Subtotal gastrectomy with Roux-en-Y** * Occasionally performed for Zollinger-Ellison
35
What complications can there be following surgical management for peptic ulcer disease?
* **Physical** * **S**tump leakage * **A**bdominal fullness * **R**eflux or bilious vomiting (improves c¯ time) * **S**tricture * **Metabolic** * Dumping syndrome * Abdo distension, flushing, n/v * Early: osmotic hypovolaemia * Late: reactive hypoglycaemia * Blind loop syndrome → malabsorption, diarrhoea * Overgrowth of bacteria in duodenal stump * Anaemia: Fe + B12 * Osteoporosis * Wt. loss: malabsorption of ↓ calories intake
36
What are the risk factors for GORD?
* Hiatus hernia * Smoking * EtOH * Obesity * Pregnancy * Drugs: anti-AChM, nitrates, CCB, TCAs * Iatrogenic: Heller’s myotomy
37
What are the symptoms of GORD?
* **Oesophageal** * Heartburn * Related to meals * Worse lying down / stooping * Relieved by antacids * Belching * Acid brash, water brash * Odonophagia * **Extra-oesophageal** * Nocturnal asthma * Chronic cough * Laryngitis, sinusitis
38
What complications can occur with GORD?
* Oesophagitis: heartburn * Ulceration: rarely → haematemesis, melaena, ↓Fe * Benign stricture: dysphagia * Barrett’s oesophagus * Intestinal metaplasia of squamous epithelium * Metaplasia → dysplasia → adenocarcinoma * Oesophageal adenocarcinoma
39
What is the differential diagnosis for GORD?
* Oesophagitis * Infection: CMV, candida * IBD * Caustic substances / burns * PUD * Oesophageal Ca
40
What investigations would you order for a patient presenting with GORD?
* Isolated symptoms don’t need Ix * **Bloods**: FBC * **CXR**: hiatus hernia may be seen * **OGD** if: * \>55yrs * Symptoms \>4wks * Dysphagia * Persistent symptoms despite Rx * Wt. loss * OGD allows grading by **Los Angeles** **Classification** * **Ba swallow**: hiatus hernia, dysmotility * 24h pH testing ± manometry * pH \<4 for \>4hrs
41
What are the conservative treatment options for GORD?
* Lose wt. * Raise head of bed * Small regular meals ≥ 3h before bed * Stop smoking and ↓ EtOH * Avoid hot drinks and spicy food * Stop drugs: NSAIDs, steroids, CCBs, nitrates
42
What are medical and surgical treatment options for GORD?
* **Medical** * OTC antacids: Gaviscon, Mg trisilicate * 1: Full-dose PPI for 1-2mo * Lansoprazole 30mg OD * 2: No response → double dose PPI BD * 3: No response: add an H2RA * Ranitidine 300mg nocte * Control: low-dose acid suppression PRN * **Surgical**: Nissen Fundoplication * Indications: all 3 of: * Severe symptoms * Refractory to medical therapy * Confirmed reflux (pH monitoring)
43
What is a Nissen Fundoplication?
* **Aim**: prevent reflux, repair diaphragm * Usually laparoscopic approach * Mobilise gastric fundus and wrap around lower oesophagus * Close any diaphragmatic hiatus * **Complications**: * Gas-bloat syn.: inability to belch / vomit * Dysphagia if wrap too tight
44
How are hiatus hernias classified?
* **Sliding (80%)** * Gastro-oesophageal junction slides up into chest * Often assoc. with GORD * **Rolling (15%)** * Gastro-oesophageal junction remains in abdomen but a bulge of stomach rolls into chest alongside the oesophagus * LOS remains intact so GORD uncommon * Can → strangulation * **Mixed (5%)**
45
What investigations would you order for a patient with a suspected hiatus hernia?
* **CXR**: gas bubble and fluid level in chest * **Ba swallow**: diagnostic * **OGD**: visualises the mucosa but can’t exclude hernia * **24h pH + manometry**: exclude dysmotility or achalsia
46
What are the management options for a hiatus hernia?
* Lose wt. * Rx reflux * Surgery if intractable symptoms despite medical Rx. * Should **repair rolling hernia** (even if asympto) as it may strangulate.
47
What is the differential diagnosis for haematemesis?
**VINTAGE** * **Varices** * **Inflammation** * Oesophago-gastro-duodenitis * PUD: DU is commonest cause * **Neoplasia** * Oesophageal or gastric Ca * **Trauma** * Mallory-Weiss Tear * Mucosal tear due to vomiting * Boerhaave’s Syndrome * Full-thickness tear * 2cm proximal to LOS * **Angiodysplasia + other vascular anomalies** * Angiodysplasia * HHT * Dieulafoy lesion: rupture of large arteriole in stomach or other bowel * **Generalised bleeding diathesis** * Warfarin, thrombolytics * CRF * **Epistaxis**
48
What is the differential diagnosis for rectal bleeding?
**DRIPING Arse** * **Diverticulae** * **Rectal** * Haemorrhoids * **Infection** * Campylobacter, shigella, E. coli, C. diff, amoebic dysentery * **Polyps** * **Inflammation** * UC, Crohn’s * **Neoplasia** * **Gastic-upper bowel bleeding** * **Angio** * Ischaemic colitis * HHT * Angiodysplasia
49
What important points should you ask in the history for a patient presenting with an upper GI bleed?
* Previous bleeds * Dyspepsia, known ulcers * Liver disease or oesophageal varices * Dysphagia, wt. loss * Drugs and EtOH * Co-morbidities
50
What should you look for in your examination of a patient presenting with an upper GI bleed?
* Signs of CLD * PR:melaena * Shock? * Cool, clammy, CRT\>2s * ↓BP (\<100) or postural hypotension (\>20 drop) * ↓ urine output (\<30ml/h) * Tachycardia * ↓GCS
51
What are the common causes of an upper GI bleed?
* **PUD**: 40% (DU commonly) * Acute erosions / gastritis:20% * Mallory-Weiss tear: 10% * Varices: 5% * Oesophagitis: 5% * Ca Stomach / oesophagus:\<3%
52
What is the Rockall score?
**Rockall Score**: (Prof T Rockall, St. Mary’s) * Prediction of re-bleeding and mortality * 40% of re-bleeders die * Initial score pre-endoscopy * Age * Shock: BP, pulse * Comorbidities * Final score post-endoscopy * Final Dx + evidence of recent haemorrhage * Active bleeding * Visible vessel * Adherent clot * Initial score ≥3 or final \>6 are indications for surgery
53
What is the pathophysiology and prognosis of oesophageal varicies?
* Portal HTN → dilated veins @ sites of porto-systemic anastomosis: L. gastric and inferior oesophageal veins * 30-50% with portal HTN will bleed from varices * Overall mortality 25%: ↑ with severity of liver disease.
54
What are the causes of protal HTN?
* **Pre-hepatic**: portal vein thrombosis * **Hepatic**: cirrhosis (80% in UK), schistosomasis (commonest worldwide), sarcoidosis. * **Post-hepatic**: Budd-Chiari, RHF, constrictive pericarditis
55
What treatment is used to try and prevent oesophageal varicial bleeds?
* **1º**: β-B, repeat endoscopic banding * **2º**: β-B, repeat banding, TIPSS ## Footnote **Transjugular Intrahepatic Porto-Systemic Shunt (TIPSS)** * IR creates artificial channel between hepatic vein and portal vein → ↓ portal pressure. * Colapinto needle creates tract through liver parenchyma which is expand using a balloon and maintained by placement of a stent. * Used prophylactically or acutely if endoscopic therapy fails to control variceal bleeding.
56
What is the acute management of an upper GI bleed?
* **Resuscitate** * Head-down * 100% O2, protect airway * 2 x 14G cannulae + IV crystalloid infusion up to 1L. * **Bloods**: FBC, U+E (↑ urea), LFTs, clotting, x-match 6u, ABG, glucose * **Blood if remains shocked** * Group specific or O- until X-matched * **Variceal Bleed** * Terlipressin IV (splanchnic vasopressor) * Prophylactic Abx: e.g. ciprofloxacin 1g/24h * **Maintenance** * Crystalloid IVI, transfuse if necessary (keep Hb≥10) * Catheter + consider CVP (aim for \>5cm H2O) * Correct coagulopathy: vit K, FFP, platelets * Thiamine if EtOH * Notify surgeons of severe bleeds * **Urgent Endoscopy**
57
What is the endoscopic management of an acute upper GI bleed?
* **Haemostasis of vessel or ulcer:** * Adrenaline injection * Thermal / laser coagulation * Fibrin glue * Endoclips * **Variceal bleeding:** * 2 of: banding, sclerotherapy, adrenaline, coagulation * Balloon tamponade with Sengstaken-Blakemore tube * Only used if exsanguinating haemorrhage or failure of endoscopic therapy * TIPSS if bleeding can’t be stopped endoscopically * **After endoscopy** * Omeprazole IV + continuation PO (↓s re-bleeding) * Keep NBM for 24h → clear fluids → light diet @ 48h * Daily bloods: FBC, U+E, LFT, clotting * H. pylori testing and eradication * Stop NSAIDs, steroids et.c.
58
What are the indications for surgery for an acute upper GI bleed?
* Re-bleeding * Bleeding despite transfusing 6u * Uncontrollable bleeding at endoscopy * Initial Rockall score ≥3, or final \>6 Open stomach, find bleeder and underrun vessel.
59
What type of fluid replacement should be used for an upper GI bleed in a patient with uncompensated liver disease?
Avoid 0.9% NS in uncompensated liver disease (worsens ascites). Use blood or albumin for resus and 5% dex for maintenance.
60
What is the normal bilirubin physiology?
* Normal BR = 3-17uM * Jaundice visible @ 50uM (3 x ULN) * Hb → unconjugated BR by splenic macrophages * uBR → cBR by BR-UDP-glucuronyl transferase in liver * Secreted in bile then cBR → urobilinogen (colourless) * Some urobilinogen is reabsorbed, returned to liver and re-excreted into bile. * Some reabsorbed urobilinogen is excreted into the urine * The urobilinogen that remains in the GIT is converted to stercobilin (brown) and excreted.
61
What are the causes of jaundice?
* **Pre-Hepatic** * **Excess BR production** * Haemolytic anaemia * Ineffective erythropoiesis e.g. thalassaemia * **Hepatic** * **Unconjugated** * **↓ BR Uptake** * Drugs: contrast, RMP * CCF * **↓ BR Conjugation** * Hypothyroidism * Gilbert’s (AD) * Crigler-Najjar (AR) * Neonatal jaundice is both ↑ production + ↓ conjug. * **Conjugated** * **Hepatocellular Dysfunction** * Congen: HH, Wilson’s, α1ATD * Infection: Hep A/B/C, CMV, EBV * Toxin: EtOH, drugs * AI: AIH * Neoplasia: HCC, mets * Vasc: Budd-Chiari * **↓ Hepatic BR Excretion** * Dubin-Johnson * Rotor’s * **Post-Hepatic** * **Obstruction** * **Stones** * **Ca pancreas** * Drugs * PBC * PSC * Biliary atresia * Choledochal cyst * Cholangio Ca
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What drugs can cause jaundice and by what different mechanisms?
* **Haemolysis** * Antimalarials (e.g. dapsone) * **Hepatitis** * Paracetamol OD * RMP, INH, PZA * Valproate * Statins * Halothane * MOAIs * **Cholestasis** * Fluclox (may be wks after Rx) * Co-amoxiclav * OCP * Sulfonylureas * Chlopromazine, prochlorperazine
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What are Gilbert's and Crigler-Najjar?
* **Gilbert’s** * Autosomal dominant partial UDP-GT deficiency * 2% of the population * Jaundice occurs during intercurrent illness * **Dx**: ↑ uBR on fasting, normal LFTs * **Crigler-Najjar** * Rare autosomal recessive total UDP-GT deficiency * Severe neonatal jaundice and kernicterus * **Rx**: liver Tx
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What investigations would you do for a patient with suspected pre-hepatic jaundice?
* **Urine** * No BR (acholuric) * ↑ urobilinogen * ↑Hb if intravascular haemolysis * **LFTs** * ↑ uBR * ↑ AST * ↑ LDH * **Other** * FBC and film * Coombs Test * Hb electrophoresis
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What investigations would you do for a patient with suspected hepatic jaundice?
* **Urine** * ↑BR * ↑ urobilinogen * **LFTs** * ↑ cBR (usually) * ↑AST:↑ALT * \> 2 = EtOH * \< 1 = Viral * ↑ GGT (EtOH, obstruction) * ↑ ALP * Function: ↓ albumin, ↑ PT * **Other** * FBC: anaemia * Anti- SMA, LKM, SLA, ANA * α1AT, ferritin, caeruloplasmin * Liver biopsy
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What investigations would you do for a patient with suspected post-hepatic jaundice?
* **Urine** * ↑↑ BR * No urobilinogen * **LFTs** * ↑↑ cBR * ↑ AST, ↑ ALT * ↑↑ ALP * ↑ GGT * **Other** * Abdo US: ducts \>6mm * ERCP, MRCP * Anti- AMA, ANCA, ANA
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What are the causes of liver failure?
* **Acute** * **Infection**: Hep A/B, CMV, EBV, leptospirosis * **Toxin**: EtOH, paracetamol, isoniazid, halothane * **Vasc**: Budd-Chiari * **Other**: Wilson’s, AIH * **Obs**: eclampsia, acute fatty liver of pregnancy * **Cirrhosis**
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What are the signs of liver failure?
* Jaundice * Oedema + ascites * Bruising * Encephalopathy * Aterixis * Constructional apraxia (5-pointed star) * Fetor hepaticus * Signs of cirrhosis / chronic liver disease
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What investigations should you do for a patient with suspected liver failure?
* **Blood** * **FBC**: infection, GI bleed, ↓ MCV (EtOH) * **U+E** * ↓U, ↑Cr: hepatorenal syndrome * Urea synth in liver thus poor test of renal function * **LFT** * AST:ALT \> 2 = EtOH * AST:ALT \< 1 = Viral * Albumin: ↓ in chronic liver failure * PT: ↑ in acute liver failure * **Clotting**: ↑INR * **Glucose** * **ABG**: metabolic acidosis * **Cause**: Ferritin, α1AT, caeruloplasmin, Abs, paracetamol levels * **Microbiology** * Hep, CMV, EBV serology * Blood and urine culture * Ascites MCS + SAAG * **Radiology** * CXR * Abdo US + portal vein duplex
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What is the pathophysiology, classification and treatment for hepatorenal syndrome?
* **Hepatorenal syndrome** * Renal failure in pts. with advanced CLF * Dx of exclusion * **Pathophysiology**: “Underfill theory” * Cirrhosis → splanchnic arterial vasodilatation → effective circulatory volume → RAS activation → renal arterial vasoconstriction. * Persistent underfilling of renal circulation → failure * **Classification** * **Type 1:** rapidly progressive deterioration (survival \<2wks) * **Type 2:** steady deterioration (survival ~6mo) * **Rx** * IV albumin + splanchnic vasoconstrictors (terlipressin) * Haemodialysis as supportive Rx * Liver Tx is Rx of choice
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How do you manage liver failure generally and what should be monitored?
* **Management** * Manage in ITU * Rx underlying cause: e.g. NAC in paracetamol OD * Good nutrition: e.g. via NGT with high carbs * Thiamine supplements * Prophylactic PPIs vs. stress ulcers * **Monitoring** * **Fluids**: urinary and central venous catheters * **Bloods**: daily FBC, U+E, LFT, INR * **Glucose**: 1-4hrly + 10% dextrose IV 1L/12h
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What complications can occur in patients with liver failure and how shoud they be managed?
* **Bleeding**: Vit K, platelets, FFP, blood * **Sepsis**: tazocin (avoid gent: nephrotoxicity) * **Ascites**: fluid and salt restrict, spiro, fruse, tap, daily weight * **Hypoglycaemia**: regular BMs, IV glucose if \<2mM * **Encephalopathy**: avoid sedatives, lactulose ± enemas, rifaximin * **Seizures**: lorazepam * **Cerebral oedema**: mannitol
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What do you need to remember when prescribing in liver failure?
* **Avoid**: * opiates * oral hypoglycaemics * Na-containing IVI * **Warfarin effects ↑** * **Hepatotoxic drugs**: * paracetamol * methotrexate * isoniazid * salicylates * tetracycline
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What are poor prognostic factors in liver failure?
* Grade 3/4 hepatic encephalopathy * Age \>40yrs * Albumin \<30g/L * ↑INR * Drug-induced liver failure
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What types of liver transplant are there and what are the criteria?
* **Types** * **Cadaveric**: heart-beating or non-heart beating * **Live**: right lobe * **Kings College Hospital Criteria in Acute Failure** * **Paracetamol-induced** * pH\< 7.3 24h after ingestion * Or all of: * PT \> 100s * Cr \> 300uM * Grade 3/4 encephalopathy * **Non-paracetamol** * PT \> 100s * Or 3 out of 5 of: * Drug-induced * Age \<10 or \>40 * \>1wk from jaundice to encephalopathy * PT \> 50s * BR ≥ 300uM
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What are the causes of cirrhosis?
* **Common** * Chronic EtOH * Chronic HCV (and HBV) * Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease / Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis * **Other** * **Genetic**: Wilson’s, α1ATD, HH, CF * **AI**: AH, PBC, PSC * **Drugs**: Methotrexate, amiodarone, methyldopa, INH * **Neoplasm**: HCC, mets * **Vasc**: Budd-Chiari, RHF, constrictive pericarditis
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What are the clinical signs of cirrhosis?
* **Hands** * Clubbing (± periostitis) * Leuconychia (↓ albumin) * Terry’s nails (white proximally, red distally) * Palmer erythema * Dupuytron’s contracture * **Face** * Pallor: ACD * Xanthelasma: PBC * Parotid enlargement (esp. c¯ EtOH) * **Trunk** * Spider naevi (\>5, fill from centre) * Gynaecomastia * Loss of 2º sexual hair * **Abdo** * Striae * Hepatomegaly (may be small in late disease) * Splenomegaly * Dilated superficial veins (Caput medusa) * Testicular atrophy
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What complications can occur with cirrhosis?
* **Decompensation → Hepatic Failure** * Jaundice (conjugated) * Encephalopathy * Hypoalbuminaemia → oedema + ascites * Coagulopathy → bruising * Hypoglycaemia * **SBP** (spontaneous bacterial peritonitis) * **Portal Hypertension: SAVE** * **S**plenomegaly * **A**scites * **V**arices * Oesophageal varices (90% of cirrhotics) * Caput medusa * Worsens existing piles * **E**ncephalopathy * **↑ risk of HCC**
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What investigations would you order for a patient with cirrhosis?
* **Bloods** * FBC: ↓WCC and ↓ plats indicate hypersplenism * ↑LFTs * ↑INR * ↓Albumin * **Find Cause** * **EtOH**: ↑MCV, ↑GGT * **NASH**: hyperlipidaemia, ↑ glucose * **Infection**: Hep, CMV, EBV serology * **Genetic**: Ferritin, α1AT, caeruloplasmin (↓ in Wilson’s) * **Autoimmune**: Abs (there is lots of cross-over) * **AIH**: SMA, SLA, LKM, ANA * **PBC**: AMA * **PSC**: ANCA, ANA * **Ig**: ↑IgG – AIH, ↑IgM – PBC * **Ca**: α-fetoprotein * **Abdo US + PV Duplex** * Small / large liver * Focal lesions * Reversed portal vein flow * Ascites * **Ascitic Tap + MCS** * PMN \>250mm3 indicates SBP * **Liver biopsy**
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How should a patient with cirrhosis be managed?
* **General** * Good nutrition * EtOH abstinence: baclofen helps ↓ cravings * Colestyramine for pruritus * Screening * HCC: US and AFP * Oesophageal varices: endoscopy * **Specific** * **HCV**: Interferon-α * **PBC**: Ursodeoxycholic acid * **Wilson’s**: Penicillamine * **Complications** * **Varices**: OGD screening + banding * **HCC**: US + AFP every 3-6mo * **Decompensation** * **Ascites**: fluid and salt restrict, spiro, fruse, tap, daily wt * **Coagulopathy**: Vit K, platelets, FFP, blood * **Encephalopathy**: avoid sedatives, lactulose ± enemas, rifaximin * **Sepsis / SBP**: tazocin (avoid gent: nephrotoxicity) * **Hepatorenal syndrome**: IV albumin + terlipressin
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What grading system is used for cirrhosis?
**Child-Pugh Grading of Cirrhosis** * Predicts risk of bleeding, mortality and need for Tx * Graded A-C using severity of 5 factors * **A**lbumin * **B**ilirubin * **C**lotting * **D**istension: Ascites * **E**ncephalopathy * Score \>8 = significant risk of variceal bleeding
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