Gastroenterology Flashcards

1
Q

Peptic ulcer disease

What is it relieved by?

A

Duodenal ulcers: more common than gastric ulcers, epigastric pain relieved by eating
Gastric ulcers: epigastric pain worsened by eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Appendicitis

Site
Symptoms
Examinations
sign

A

Pain initial in the central abdomen before localising to the right iliac fossa
Anorexia is common
Tachycardia, low-grade pyrexia, tenderness in RIF
Rovsing’s sign: more pain in RIF than LIF when palpating LIF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acute pancreatitis

2 main Causes
Site of pain
Symptoms
Examination

Sign

A

Usually due to alcohol or gallstones
Severe epigastric pain
Vomiting is common
Examination may reveal tenderness, ileus and low-grade fever
Periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) is described but rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Biliary colic

Site
Symptoms
Causes

A

Pain in the RUQ radiating to the back and interscapular region, may be following a fatty meal. Slight misnomer as the pain may persist for hours
Obstructive jaundice may cause pale stools and dark urine
It is sometimes taught that patients are female, forties, fat and fair although this is obviously a generalisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Acute cholecystitis

Site
Symptom

Signs

A

History of gallstones symptoms (see above)
Continuous RUQ pain
Fever, raised inflammatory markers and white cells
Murphy’s sign positive (arrest of inspiration on palpation of the RUQ)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Diverticulitis

Site
Symptom

A

Colicky pain typically in the LLQ
Fever, raised inflammatory markers and white cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

Site
Symptom

A

Severe central abdominal pain radiating to the back
Presentation may be catastrophic (e.g. Sudden collapse) or sub-acute (persistent severe central abdominal pain with developing shock)
Patients may have a history of cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Achalasia

Symptom

Can it cause a malgnant change?

A

Clinical features
dysphagia of BOTH liquids and solids
typically variation in severity of symptoms
heartburn
regurgitation of food
may lead to cough, aspiration pneumonia etc
malignant change in small number of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Achaelsia Ix

A

oesophageal manometry
excessive LOS tone which doesn’t relax on swallowing
considered the most important diagnostic test
barium swallow
shows grossly expanded oesophagus, fluid level
‘bird’s beak’ appearance
chest x-ray
wide mediastinum
fluid level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Achalesia Tx

A

pneumatic (balloon) dilation is increasingly the preferred first-line option
less invasive and quicker recovery time than surgery

patients should be a low surgical risk as surgery may be required if complications occur

surgical intervention with a Heller cardiomyotomy should be considered if recurrent or persistent symptoms

intra-sphincteric injection of botulinum toxin is sometimes used in patients who are a high surgical risk

drug therapy (e.g. nitrates, calcium channel blockers) has a role but is limited by side-effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Acute liver failure
Causes:

PAVA

A

Causes
paracetamol overdose
alcohol
viral hepatitis (usually A or B)
acute fatty liver of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Acute liver failure

A

Features*
jaundice
coagulopathy: raised prothrombin time
hypoalbuminaemia
hepatic encephalopathy
renal failure is common (‘hepatorenal syndrome’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

‘liver function tests’ do not always accurately reflect the synthetic function of the liver.

What is the best way?

A

This is best assessed by looking at the prothrombin time and albumin level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

IX for acute pancreatitis

A

Investigations:
serum amylase
raised in 75% of patients - typically > 3 times the upper limit of normal
levels do not correlate with disease severity
specificity for pancreatitis is around 90%. Other causes of raised amylase include: pancreatic pseudocyst, mesenteric infarct, perforated viscus, acute cholecystitis, diabetic ketoacidosis
serum lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

more sensitive and specific than serum amylase
for acute pancreatitis

and another benefit

A

serum lipase

more sensitive and specific than serum amylase
it also has a longer half-life than amylase and may be useful for late presentations > 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Imaging for Acute pancreatitis

A

a diagnosis of acute pancreatits can be made without imaging if characteristic pain + amylase/lipase > 3 times normal level
however, early ultrasound imaging is important to assess the aetiology as this may affect management - e.g. patients with gallstones/biliary obstruction
other options include contrast-enhanced CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Severe pancreatitis include:

A

severe pancreatitis include:
age > 55 years
hypocalcaemia
hyperglycaemia
hypoxia
neutrophilia
elevated LDH and AST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Causes of Acute Pancreatitis

A

GET SMASHED
Gallstones
Ethanol
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps (other viruses include Coxsackie B)
Autoimmune (e.g. polyarteritis nodosa), Ascaris infection
Scorpion venom
Hypertriglyceridaemia, Hyperchylomicronaemia, Hypercalcaemia, Hypothermia
ERCP
Drugs (azathioprine, mesalazine*, didanosine, bendroflumethiazide, furosemide, pentamidine, steroids, sodium valproate)c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

UGIB most common cause

A

most commonly due to either oesophageal varices or peptic ulcer disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

features OF UGIB

A

clinical features
haematemesis
the most common presenting feature
often bright red but may sometimes be described as ‘coffee ground’
melena

the passage of altered blood per rectum
typically black and ‘tarry’

a raised urea may be seen due to the ‘protein meal’ of the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Management of non-variceal bleeding

A

NICE do not recommend the use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) before endoscopy to patients with suspected variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding although PPIs should be given to patients with non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding and stigmata of recent haemorrhage shown at endoscopy

if further bleeding then options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology and surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Management of variceal bleeding

A

terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients at presentation (i.e. before endoscopy)
band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices
transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

UGIB Tx

A

Resuscitation
ABC, wide-bore intravenous access * 2
platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count of less than 50 x 10*9/litre

fresh frozen plasma to patients who have either a fibrinogen level of less than 1 g/litre, or a prothrombin time (international normalised ratio) or activated partial thromboplastin time greater than 1.5 times normal

prothrombin complex concentrate to patients who are taking warfarin and actively bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Alcoholic Ketoacidosis presenting pattern

who gets it

Treatment

A

Alcoholic ketoacidosis is a non-diabetic euglycaemic form of ketoacidosis. It occurs in people who regularly drink large amounts of alcohol. Often alcoholics will not eat regularly and may vomit food that they do eat, leading to episodes of starvation. Once the person becomes malnourished, after an alcohol binge the body can start to break down body fat, producing ketones. Hence the patient develops a ketoacidosis.

It typically presents with a pattern of:
Metabolic acidosis
Elevated anion gap
Elevated serum ketone levels
Normal or low glucose concentration

The most appropriate treatment is an infusion of saline & thiamine. Thiamine is required to avoid Wernicke encephalopathy or Korsakoff psychosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Alcoholic liver disease covers a spectrum of conditions:

name 3

Selected investigation findings: in the blood

A

Alcoholic liver disease covers a spectrum of conditions:
alcoholic fatty liver disease
alcoholic hepatitis
cirrhosis

Selected investigation findings:
gamma-GT is characteristically elevated
the ratio of AST:ALT is normally > 2, a ratio of > 3 is strongly suggestive of acute alcoholic hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Aminosalicylate drugs

5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) is released in the colon and is not absorbed. It acts locally as an anti-inflammatory. The mechanism of action is not fully understood but 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

A

Sulphasalazine
a combination of sulphapyridine (a sulphonamide) and 5-ASA
many side-effects are due to the sulphapyridine moiety: rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, lung fibrosis
other side-effects are common to 5-ASA drugs (see mesalazine)

Mesalazine
a delayed release form of 5-ASA
sulphapyridine side-effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine are avoided
mesalazine is still however associated with side-effects such as GI upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis*, interstitial nephritis

Olsalazine
two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken by colonic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Selected management notes for alcoholic hepatitis:

A

Selected management notes for alcoholic hepatitis:
glucocorticoids (e.g. prednisolone) are often used during acute episodes of alcoholic hepatitis

Maddrey’s discriminant function (DF) is often used during acute episodes to determine who would benefit from glucocorticoid therapy

it is calculated by a formula using prothrombin time and bilirubin concentration

pentoxyphylline is also sometimes used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Anal Ca presentation

A

Patients typically present with a subacute onset of:
Perianal pain, perianal bleeding
A palpable lesion
Faecal incontinence
A neglected tumour in a female may present with a rectovaginal fistula.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

RF and feature’s of ana; fissure

A

Risk factors
constipation
inflammatory bowel disease
sexually transmitted infections e.g. HIV, syphilis, herpes

Features
painful, bright red, rectal bleeding
around 90% of anal fissures occur on the posterior midline.
if the fissures are found in alternative locations then other underlying causes should be considered e.g. Crohn’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Management of an acute anal fissure (< 1 week)

A

Management of an acute anal fissure (< 1 week)
soften stool
dietary advice: high-fibre diet with high fluid intake
bulk-forming laxatives are first-line - if not tolerated then lactulose should be tried
lubricants such as petroleum jelly may be tried before defecation
topical anaesthetics
analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Management of a chronic anal fissure

A

the above techniques should be continued
topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is first-line treatment for a chronic anal fissure
if topical GTN is not effective after 8 weeks then secondary care referral should be considered for surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Angiodysplasia - brief what is it

A

Angiodysplasia is a vascular deformity of the gastrointestinal tract which predisposes to bleeding and iron deficiency anaemia.

There is thought to be an association with aortic stenosis, although this is debated. Angiodysplasia is generally seen in elderly patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Angiodysplasia features

A

Features
anaemia
gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding
if upper GI then may be melena
if lower GI then may present as brisk, fresh red PR bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Angiodysplasia diagnosis

A

Diagnosis
colonoscopy
mesenteric angiography if acutely bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Angiodysplasia Mx

A

Management
endoscopic cautery or argon plasma coagulation
antifibrinolytics e.g. Tranexamic acid
oestrogens may also be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Charcot’s triad

ascending cholangitis Investigation

A

Charcot’s triad of right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain, fever and jaundice occurs in about 20-50% of patients
fever is the most common feature, seen in 90% of patients
RUQ pain 70%
jaundice 60%
hypotension and confusion are also common (the additional 2 factors in addition to the 3 above make Reynolds’ pentad)

Other features
raised inflammatory markers

Investigation
ultrasound is generally used first-line in suspected cases to look for bile duct dilation and bile duct stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Management of ascending cholangitis

A

Management
intravenous antibiotics
endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Ascities mx

A

Management
reducing dietary sodium

fluid restriction is sometimes recommended if the sodium is < 125 mmol/L

aldosterone antagonists: e.g. spironolactone

loop diuretics are often added. Some authorities only add loop diuretics in patients who don’t respond to aldosterone antagonists whereas other authorities suggest starting both types of diuretic on the first presentation of ascites

drainage if tense ascites (therapeutic abdominal paracentesis)
large-volume paracentesis for the treatment of ascites requires albumin ‘cover’. Evidence suggests this reduces paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction and mortality
paracentesis induced circulatory dysfunction can occur due to large volume paracentesis (> 5 litres). It is associated with a high rate of ascites recurrence, development of hepatorenal syndrome, dilutional hyponatraemia, and high mortality rate

prophylactic antibiotics to reduce the risk of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. NICE recommend: ‘Offer prophylactic oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin for people with cirrhosis and ascites with an ascitic protein of 15 g/litre or less, until the ascites has resolved’
a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered in some patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ALT/AST: INFLAMATION IN LIVER

ALP: PATHOLOGY IN BILE DUCT

A

Autoimmune hepatitis predominantly involves inflammation in the liver and thus ALT / AST are likely to be raised. A markedly raised ALP would suggest pathology involving the bile duct although slight elevation can be present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis

features
Antibodies

liver biopsy

management

A

Features
may present with signs of chronic liver disease
acute hepatitis: fever, jaundice etc (only 25% present in this way)
amenorrhoea (common)
ANA/SMA/LKM1 antibodies, raised IgG levels
liver biopsy: inflammation extending beyond limiting plate ‘piecemeal necrosis’, bridging necrosis

Management
steroids, other immunosuppressants e.g. azathioprine
liver transplantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Barrett’s refers to the metaplasia of the lower oesophageal mucosa, with the usual squamous epithelium being replaced by columnar epithelium

A

Barrett’s refers to the metaplasia of the lower oesophageal mucosa, with the usual squamous epithelium being replaced by columnar epithelium. There is an increased risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma, e

Histological features
the columnar epithelium may resemble that of either the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine (e.g. with goblet cells, brush border)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Barrest Oesophagus RF

A

Risk factors
gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is the single strongest risk factor
male gender (7:1 ratio)
smoking
central obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Barrest Oesophagus Mx

A

Management
high-dose proton pump inhibitor
whilst this is commonly used in patients with Barrett’s the evidence base that this reduces the change of progression to dysplasia or induces regression of the lesion is limited
endoscopic surveillance with biopsies
for patients with metaplasia (but not dysplasia) endoscopy is recommended every 3-5 years
if dysplasia of any grade is identified endoscopic intervention is offered. Options include:
radiofrequency ablation: preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia
endoscopic mucosal resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Bile acid malabsorption

a cause of chronic diarrhoea. This may be primary, due to excessive production of bile acid, or secondary to an underlying gastrointestinal disorder causing reduced bile acid absorption. It can lead to steatorrhoea and vitamin A, D, E, K malabsorption.

Investigation and management

A

Investigation
the test of choice is SeHCAT
nuclear medicine test using a gamma-emitting selenium molecule in selenium homocholic acid taurine or tauroselcholic acid (SeHCAT)
scans are done 7 days apart to assess the retention/loss of radiolabelled 75SeHCAT

Management
bile acid sequestrants e.g. cholestyramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Bile acid malabsorption

a cause of chronic diarrhoea. This may be primary, due to excessive production of bile acid, or secondary to an underlying gastrointestinal disorder causing reduced bile acid absorption. It can lead to steatorrhoea and vitamin A, D, E, K malabsorption.

Secondary causes:

A

Secondary causes are often seen in patients with ileal disease, such as with Crohn’s. Other secondary causes include:
cholecystectomy
coeliac disease
small intestinal bacterial overgrowth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Budd-Chiari syndrome
Budd-Chiari syndrome, or hepatic vein thrombosis, is usually seen in the context of underlying haematological disease or another procoagulant condition.

Causes

A

Causes
polycythaemia rubra vera
thrombophilia: activated protein C resistance, antithrombin III deficiency, protein C & S deficiencies
pregnancy
combined oral contraceptive pill: accounts for around 20% of cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Budd-Chiari syndrome
Budd-Chiari syndrome, or hepatic vein thrombosis, is usually seen in the context of underlying haematological disease or another procoagulant condition.

Features

Investigation

A

The features are classically a triad of:
abdominal pain: sudden onset, severe
ascites → abdominal distension
tender hepatomegaly

Investigations
ultrasound with Doppler flow studies is very sensitive and should be the initial radiological investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Carcinoid tumours
Carcinoid syndrome
usually occurs when metastases are present in the liver and release serotonin into the systemic circulation
may also occur with lung carcinoid as mediators are not ‘cleared’ by the liver

Features

A

flushing (often the earliest symptom)
diarrhoea
bronchospasm
hypotension
right heart valvular stenosis (left heart can be affected in bronchial carcinoid)
other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may also be secreted resulting in, for example, Cushing’s syndrome
pellagra can rarely develop as dietary tryptophan is diverted to serotonin by the tumour

Investigation
urinary 5-HIAA
plasma chromogranin A y

Management
somatostatin analogues e.g. octreotide
diarrhoea: cyproheptadine may help

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Carcinoid tumours
Carcinoid syndrome
usually occurs when metastases are present in the liver and release serotonin into the systemic circulation
may also occur with lung carcinoid as mediators are not ‘cleared’ by the liver

IX

Mx

A

Investigation
urinary 5-HIAA
plasma chromogranin A y

Management
somatostatin analogues e.g. octreotide
diarrhoea: cyproheptadine may help

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma is the medical term for bile duct cancer.

Primary sclerosing cholangitis is the main risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma

Features

A

persistent biliary colic symptoms
associated with anorexia, jaundice and weight loss
a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant (Courvoisier sign)
periumbilical lymphadenopathy (Sister Mary Joseph nodes) and left supraclavicular adenopathy (Virchow node) may be seen
raised CA 19-9 levels
often used for detecting cholangiocarcinoma in patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Clostridioides difficile is a Gram positive rod often encountered in hospital practice. It produces an exotoxin which causes intestinal damage leading to a syndrome called pseudomembranous colitis.

What abx causes#

Other than antibiotics, risk factors include:

A

C. difficile develops when the normal gut flora are suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics. Clindamycin is historically associated with causing C. difficile but the aetiology has evolved significantly over the past 10 years. Second and third-generation cephalosporins are now the leading cause of C. difficile.

Other than antibiotics, risk factors include:
proton pump inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

c diff transmission

A

transmission: via the faecal-oral route by ingestion of spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

C diff features

A

Features
diarrhoea
abdominal pain
a raised white blood cell count (WCC) is characteristic
if severe toxic megacolon may develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

C diff

1ST
SECOND
THRID LINE

A

First episode of C. difficile infection
first-line therapy is oral vancomycin for 10 days
second-line therapy: oral fidaxomicin
third-line therapy: oral vancomycin +/- IV metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Life-threatening C. difficile infection

A

Life-threatening C. difficile infection
oral vancomycin AND IV metronidazole
specialist advice - surgery may be considered

58
Q

Conditions associated with coeliac diseasE

A

Conditions associated with coeliac disease include dermatitis herpetiformis (a vesicular, pruritic skin eruption) and autoimmune disorders (type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis). It is strongly associated with HLA-DQ2 (95% of patients) and HLA-DQ8 (80%).

59
Q

COMPLICATIONS OF CEOLIAC DISEASE

A

Complications
anaemia: iron, folate and vitamin B12 deficiency (folate deficiency is more common than vitamin B12 deficiency in coeliac disease)
hyposplenism
osteoporosis, osteomalacia
lactose intolerance
enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of small intestine
subfertility, unfavourable pregnancy outcomes
rare: oesophageal cancer, other malignancies

60
Q

iMMUNISATION IN cEOLIAC

WHY IS THIS ?

A

Patients with coeliac disease often have a degree of functional hyposplenism
For this reason, all patients with coeliac disease are offered the pneumococcal vaccine
Coeliac UK recommends that everyone with coeliac disease is vaccinated against pneumococcal infection and has a booster every 5 years

61
Q

Crohns affects which part?

A

It commonly affects the terminal ileum and colon but may be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus.

62
Q

Crohns mX

A

Inducing remission
glucocorticoids (oral, topical or intravenous) are generally used to induce remission. Budesonide is an alternative in a subgroup of patients
enteral feeding with an elemental diet may be used in addition to or instead of other measures to induce remission, particularly if there is concern regarding the side-effects of steroids (for example in young children)
5-ASA drugs (e.g. mesalazine) are used second-line to glucocorticoids but are not as effective
azathioprine or mercaptopurine* may be used as an add-on medication to induce remission but is not used as monotherapy. Methotrexate is an alternative to azathioprine
infliximab is useful in refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s. Patients typically continue on azathioprine or methotrexate
metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease

63
Q

Crohns maintaining remission

A

azathioprine or mercaptopurine is used first-line to maintain remission

64
Q

Cancer asscoatiated with crohns , patients are also at risk of:

A

As well as the well-documented complications described above, patients are also at risk of:
small bowel cancer (standard incidence ratio = 40)
colorectal cancer (standard incidence ratio = 2, i.e. less than the risk associated with ulcerative colitis)
osteoporosis

65
Q

Dubin-Johnson syndrome

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome
Dubin-Johnson syndrome is a benign autosomal recessive disorder

resulting in hyperbilirubinaemia (conjugated, therefore present in urine). It is due to a defect in the canillicular multispecific organic anion transporter (cMOAT) protein. This causes defective hepatic bilirubin excretion

66
Q

Pharyngeal pouch

A

More common in older men
Represents a posteromedial herniation between thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles
Usually not seen but if large then a midline lump in the neck that gurgles on palpation
Typical symptoms are dysphagia, regurgitation, aspiration and chronic cough. Halitosis may occasionally be seen

67
Q

Globus hystericus

A

Globus hystericus There may be a history of anxiety
Symptoms are often intermittent and relieved by swallowing
Usually painless - the presence of pain should warrant further investigation for organic causes

68
Q

Gastric Cancer RF

A

Risk factors
Helicobacer pylori
triggers inflammation of the mucosa → atrophy and intestinal metaplasia → dysplasia
pernicious anaemia, atrophic gastritis
diet
salt and salt-preserved foods
nitrates
ethnicity: Japan, China
smoking
blood group A

69
Q

Gastric Cancer FEATURES

A

Features
abdominal pain
typically vague, epigastric pain
may present as dyspepsia
weight loss and anorexia
nausea and vomiting
dysphagia: particularly if the cancer arises in the proximal stomach
overt upper gastrointestinal bleeding is seen only in a minority of patients
if lymphatic spread:
left supraclavicular lymph node (Virchow’s node)
periumbilical nodule (Sister Mary Joseph’s node)

70
Q

Gastric Ca diagnosis

A

Investigations
diagnosis: oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy with biopsy
signet ring cells may be seen in gastric cancer. They contain a large vacuole of mucin which displaces the nucleus to one side. Higher numbers of signet ring cells are associated with a worse prognosis

71
Q

Indications for upper GI endoscopy: for GORD

A

Indications for upper GI endoscopy:
age > 55 years
symptoms > 4 weeks or persistent symptoms despite treatment
dysphagia
relapsing symptoms
weight loss

If endoscopy is negative consider 24-hr oesophageal pH monitoring (the gold standard test for diagnosis)

72
Q

eNZYMES Gastro

A

Amylase is present in saliva and pancreatic secretions. It breaks starch down into sugar

The following brush border enzymes are involved in the breakdown of carbohydrates:
maltase: cleaves disaccharide maltose to glucose + glucose
sucrase: cleaves sucrose to fructose and glucose
lactase: cleaves disaccharide lactose to glucose + galactose

73
Q

Gilbert’s syndrome is an autosomal recessive* condition of defective bilirubin conjugation due to a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase. The prevalence is approximately 1-2% in the general population.

Features
unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia (i.e. not in urine)
jaundice may only be seen during an intercurrent illness, exercise or fasting

Investigaruon

A

Investigation and management
investigation: rise in bilirubin following prolonged fasting or IV nicotinic acid
no treatment required

74
Q

Haemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive disorder of iron absorption and metabolism resulting in iron accumulation. It is caused by inheritance of mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6*

features

A

Presenting features
early symptoms include fatigue, erectile dysfunction and arthralgia (often of the hands)
‘bronze’ skin pigmentation
diabetes mellitus
liver: stigmata of chronic liver disease, hepatomegaly, cirrhosis, hepatocellular deposition)
cardiac failure (2nd to dilated cardiomyopathy)
hypogonadism (2nd to cirrhosis and pituitary dysfunction - hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism)
arthritis (especially of the hands)

75
Q

Haemochromtisis Treatment

A

Outline
venesection is the first-line treatment
monitoring adequacy of venesection: transferrin saturation should be kept below 50% and the serum ferritin concentration below 50 ug/l
desferrioxamine may be used second-line

76
Q

f hepatic encephalopathy treatment

A

NICE recommend lactulose first-line, with the addition of rifaximin for the secondary prophylaxis of hepatic encephalopathy

77
Q

hepatic encephalopathy

Features

A

Features
confusion, altered GCS (see below)
asterixis: ‘liver flap’, arrhythmic negative myoclonus with a frequency of 3-5 Hz
constructional apraxia: inability to draw a 5-pointed star
triphasic slow waves on EEG
raised ammonia level (not commonly measured anymore)

78
Q

HCC RF

A

The main risk factor for developing HCC is liver cirrhosis, for example secondary* to hepatitis B & C, alcohol, haemochromatosis and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other risk factors include:
alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
hereditary tyrosinosis
glycogen storage disease
aflatoxin
drugs: oral contraceptive pill, anabolic steroids
porphyria cutanea tarda
male sex
diabetes mellitus, metabolic syndrome

79
Q

HCC FEATURES

A

Features
tends to present late
features of liver cirrhosis or failure may be seen: jaundice, ascites, RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, pruritus, splenomegaly
possible presentation is decompensation in a patient with chronic liver disease
raised AFP

80
Q

The most common cause of biliary disease in patients with HIV is

A

The most common cause of biliary disease in patients with HIV is sclerosing cholangitis due to infections such as CMV, Cryptosporidium and Microsporidia

81
Q

Hydatid cysts are endemic in Mediterranean and Middle Eastern countries. They are caused by the tapeworm parasite ____________

An outer fibrous capsule is formed containing multiple small daughter cysts. These cysts are allergens which precipitate a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction.

A

Echinococcus granulosus.

82
Q

Inherited causes of jaundice
There are 4 inherited causes of jaundice you need to be aware of: Gilbert’s syndrome, Crigler-Najjar syndrome, Dubin-Johnson syndrome and Rotor’s syndrome.

It is important for the exam to be able to classify them according to whether they cause

A

conjugated or unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia:

83
Q

Unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

A

Gilbert’s syndrome:
autosomal recessive
mild deficiency of UDP-glucuronyl transferase
benign

Crigler-Najjar syndrome:autosomal recessive
absolute deficiency of UDP-glucuronosyl transferase
do not survive to adulthood

84
Q

Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia

A

Dubin-Johnson syndrome:autosomal recessive. Relatively common in Iranian Jews
mutation in the canalicular multidrug resistance protein 2 (MRP2) results in defective hepatic excretion of bilirubin
results in a grossly black liver
benign

Rotor syndrome:
autosomal recessive
defect in the hepatic uptake and storage of bilirubin
benign

85
Q

schaemia to the lower gastrointestinal tract can result in a variety of clinical conditions. Whilst there is no standard classification it can be useful to separate cases into 3 main conditions

A

acute mesenteric ischaemia
chronic mesenteric ischaemia
ischaemic colitis

86
Q

Acute mesenteric ischaemia

A

Acute mesenteric ischaemia

Acute mesenteric ischaemia is typically caused by an embolism resulting in occlusion of an artery which supplies the small bowel, for example the superior mesenteric artery. Classically patients have a history of atrial fibrillation.

The abdominal pain is typically severe, of sudden onset and out-of-keeping with physical exam findings.

Management
urgent surgery is usually required
poor prognosis, especially if surgery delayed

87
Q

Chronic mesenteric ischaemia

A

Chronic mesenteric ischaemia

Chronic mesenteric ischaemia is a relatively rare clinical diagnosis due to it’s non-specific features and may be thought of as ‘intestinal angina’. Colickly, intermittent abdominal pain occurs.

88
Q

Ischaemiac colitis

A

Ischaemiac colitis

Ischaemic colitis describes an acute but transient compromise in the blood flow to the large bowel. This may lead to inflammation, ulceration and haemorrhage. It is more likely to occur in ‘watershed’ areas such as the splenic flexure that are located at the borders of the territory supplied by the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries.

Investigations
‘thumbprinting’ may be seen on abdominal x-ray due to mucosal oedema/haemorrhage

Management
- usually supportive
- surgery may be required in a minority of cases if conservative measures fail. Indications would include generalised peritonitis, perforation or ongoing haemorrhage

89
Q

Jejunal villous atrophy
Whilst coeliac disease is the classic cause of jejunal villous atrophy there are a number of other causes you need to be aware of

A

Causes
coeliac disease
tropical sprue
hypogammaglobulinaemia
gastrointestinal lymphoma
Whipple’s disease
cow’s milk intolerance

90
Q

Contraindications to percutaneous liver biopsy

A

Contraindications to percutaneous liver biopsy
deranged clotting (e.g. INR > 1.4)
low platelets (e.g. < 60 * 109/l)
anaemia
extrahepatic biliary obstruction
hydatid cyst
haemoangioma
uncooperative patient
ascites

91
Q

Melanosis coli

Histology

CAUSE

A

Melanosis coli
Melanosis coli is a disorder of pigmentation of the bowel wall. Histology demonstrates pigment-laden macrophages.

It is associated with laxative abuse, especially anthraquinone compounds such as senna

92
Q

Metoclopramide is a D2 receptor antagonist* mainly used in the management of nausea.

SE

A

Adverse effects
extrapyramidal effects
acute dystonia e.g. oculogyric crisis
this is particularly a problem in children and young adults
diarrhoea
hyperprolactinaemia
tardive dyskinesia
parkinsonism

93
Q

Oesophageal cancer LoCATION

Location Lower third - near the gastroesophageal junction

Upper two-thirds of the oesophagus

A

Adenocarino,a
Location Lower third - near the gastroesophageal junction

Squamous cell canver
Upper two-thirds of the oesophagus

94
Q

The most common organisms found in pyogenic liver abscesses are

A

The most common organisms found in pyogenic liver abscesses are Staphylococcus aureus in children and Escherichia coli in adults.

Management
drainage (typically percutaneous) and antibiotics
amoxicillin + ciprofloxacin + metronidazole
if penicillin allergic: ciprofloxacin + clindamycin

95
Q

refeeding syndrome
bloods

A

hypophosphataemia
this is the hallmark symptom of refeeding syndrome
may result in significant muscle weakness, including myocardial muscle (→ cardiac failure) and the diaphragm (→ respiratory failure)
hypokalaemia
hypomagnesaemia: may predispose to torsades de pointes
abnormal fluid balance

96
Q

Small bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome (SBBOS) is a disorder characterised by excessive amounts of bacteria in the small bowel resulting in gastrointestinal symptoms.

diagnisis and management

A

Diagnosis
hydrogen breath test
small bowel aspiration and culture: this is used less often as invasive and results are often difficult to reproduce
clinicians may sometimes give a course of antibiotics as a diagnostic trial

Management
correction of the underlying disorder
antibiotic therapy:rifaximin is now the treatment of choice due to relatively low resistance. Co-amoxiclav or metronidazole are also effective in the majority of patients.

97
Q

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a form of peritonitis usually seen in patients with ascites secondary to liver cirrhosis.

Features

A

ascites
abdominal pain
fever

98
Q

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP)

diagnosis and mx

A

Diagnosis
paracentesis: neutrophil count > 250 cells/ul
the most common organism found on ascitic fluid culture is E. coli

Management
intravenous cefotaxime is usually given

99
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis should be given to patients with ascites if:

A

patients who have had an episode of SBP
patients with fluid protein <15 g/l and either Child-Pugh score of at least 9 or hepatorenal syndrome
NICE recommend: ‘Offer prophylactic oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin for people with cirrhosis and ascites with an ascitic protein of 15 g/litre or less until the ascites has resolved’

100
Q

what is a poor marker of prognosis in SBP

A

Alcoholic liver disease is a marker of poor prognosis in SBP.

101
Q

UC features symptioms

A

The initial presentation is usually following insidious and intermittent symptoms. Features include:
bloody diarrhoea
urgency
tenesmus
abdominal pain, particularly in the left lower quadrant
extra-intestinal features (see below)

102
Q

Fewer than four stools daily, with or without blood - Mild UC

Four to six stools a day, with minimal systemic disturbance- Mod UC

in UC what is severe

A

More than six stools a day, containing blood

Evidence of systemic disturbance, e.g.
fever
tachycardia
abdominal tenderness, distension or reduced bowel sounds
anaemia
hypoalbuminaemia

103
Q

Severe colitis
should be treated by

A

Severe colitis
should be treated in hospital
IV steroids are usually given first-line
IV ciclosporin may be used if steroids are contraindicated
if after 72 hours there has been no improvement, consider adding IV ciclosporin to IV corticosteroids or consider surgery

104
Q

Treating mild-to-moderate ulcerative colitis

A

proctitis
topical (rectal) aminosalicylate: for distal colitis rectal mesalazine has been shown to be superior to rectal steroids and oral aminosalicylates
if remission is not achieved within 4 weeks, add an oral aminosalicylate
if remission still not achieved add topical or oral corticosteroid

proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis
topical (rectal) aminosalicylate
if remission is not achieved within 4 weeks, add a high-dose oral aminosalicylate OR switch to a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and a topical corticosteroid
if remission still not achieved stop topical treatments and offer an oral aminosalicylate and an oral corticosteroid

extensive disease
topical (rectal) aminosalicylate and a high-dose oral aminosalicylate:
if remission is not achieved within 4 weeks, stop topical treatments and offer a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and an oral corticosteroid

105
Q

Villous adenoma
Villous adenomas are colonic polyps with the potential for malignant transformation. They characteristically secrete large amounts of mucous, potentially resulting in electrolyte disturbances.

vast majority are asymptomatic. Possible features:

A

vast majority are asymptomatic. Possible features:
non-specific lower gastrointestinal symptoms
secretory diarrhoea may occur
microcytic anaemia
hypokalaemia

106
Q

Whipple’s disease is a rare multi-system disorder caused by

Its most commen in whom

A

Tropheryma whippelii infection.

It is more common in those who are HLA-B27 positive and in middle-aged men.

107
Q

Whipples disease features

A

Features
malabsorption: diarrhoea, weight loss
large-joint arthralgia
lymphadenopathy
skin: hyperpigmentation and photosensitivity
pleurisy, pericarditis
neurological symptoms (rare): ophthalmoplegia, dementia, seizures, ataxia, myoclonus

108
Q

Whipples inx and mx

A

Investigation
jejunal biopsy shows deposition of macrophages containing Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) granules

Management
guidelines vary: oral co-trimoxazole for a year is thought to have the lowest relapse rate, sometimes preceded by a course of IV penicillin

109
Q

Zollinger elission syn diagnosis

A

Diagnosis
fasting gastrin levels: the single best screen test
secretin stimulation test

110
Q

ZES features

A

Features
multiple gastroduodenal ulcers
diarrhoea
malabsorption

111
Q

Wilson’s disease is an autosomal recessive disorder characterised by excessive copper deposition in the tissues.

Metabolic abnormalities include increased copper absorption from the small intestine and decreased hepatic copper excretion. Wilson’s disease is caused by a defect

A

in the ATP7B gene located on chromosome 13.

112
Q

Features result from excessive copper deposition in the tissues,

especially the brain, liver and cornea:

A

Features result from excessive copper deposition in the tissues, especially the brain, liver and cornea:

liver: hepatitis, cirrhosis

neurological:
basal ganglia degeneration: in the brain, most copper is deposited in the basal ganglia, particularly in the putamen and globus pallidus
speech, behavioural and psychiatric problems are often the first manifestations

also: asterixis, chorea, dementia, parkinsonism

Kayser-Fleischer rings

green-brown rings in the periphery of the iris
due to copper accumulation in Descemet membrane

present in around 50% of patients with isolated hepatic Wilson’s disease and 90% who have neurological involvement

renal tubular acidosis (esp. Fanconi syndrome)
haemolysis
blue nails

113
Q

Wilsons inx

A

Investigations
slit lamp examination for Kayser-Fleischer rings
reduced serum caeruloplasmin
reduced total serum copper (counter-intuitive, but 95% of plasma copper is carried by ceruloplasmin)
free (non-ceruloplasmin-bound) serum copper is increased
increased 24hr urinary copper excretion
the diagnosis is confirmed by genetic analysis of the ATP7B gene

114
Q

Wilsons mx

A

Management
penicillamine (chelates copper) has been the traditional first-line treatment
trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent which may become first-line treatment in the future
tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigatio

115
Q

what feature in haemochromatosis may be reversible with treatment?

A

In haemochromatosis, cardiomyopathy and skin pigmentation are reversible with treatment

116
Q

Irreversible complications of haemchromotoasis

A

Liver cirrhosis**
Diabetes mellitus
Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism
Arthropathy

117
Q

Clinical features
early in PBC may be asymptomatic

or fatigue, pruritus
cholestatic jaundice
hyperpigmentation, especially over pressure points
around 10% of patients have right upper quadrant pain
xanthelasmas, xanthomata
also: clubbing, hepatosplenomegaly
late: may progress to liver failure

A

Primary biliary cholangitis - the M rule
IgM
anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, M2 subtype
Middle aged females

e.g. raised ALP on routine LFTs)

118
Q

What cardiac abnormalities are associated with this cARCINOID TUMOUR

A

Carcinoid syndrome can affect the right side of the heart. The valvular effects are tricuspid insufficiency and pulmonary stenosis

119
Q

Diagnosing chronic pancreatitis

A

CT pancreas is the preferred diagnostic test for chronic pancreatitis - looking for pancreatic calcification

120
Q

Screening for haemochromatosis

A

general population: transferrin saturation > ferritin
family members: HFE genetic testing

low TIBC

ferritin should also be measured but is not usually abnormal in the early stages of iron accumulation

121
Q

test recommended for H. pylori post-eradication therapy

A

Urea breath test is the only test recommended for H. pylori post-eradication therapy

122
Q

diagnose small bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome

A

hydrogen breath test is used to diagnose small bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome

123
Q

The following drugs tend to cause a hepatocellular picture:

A

paracetamol
sodium valproate, phenytoin
MAOIs
halothane
anti-tuberculosis: isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide
statins
alcohol
amiodarone
methyldopa
nitrofurantoin

124
Q

The following drugs tend to cause cholestasis (+/- hepatitis):

A

combined oral contraceptive pill
antibiotics: flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, erythromycin*
anabolic steroids, testosterones
phenothiazines: chlorpromazine, prochlorperazine
sulphonylureas
fibrates
rare reported causes: nifedipine

125
Q

Liver cirrhosis causing drugs

A

methotrexate
methyldopa
amiodarone

126
Q

How to work out SAAG

A high SAAG indiactes+____

A

To calculate SAAG, we subtract the ascitic albumin value from the serum albumin value

Ascites: a high SAAG gradient (> 11g/L) indicates portal hypertension

127
Q

alcoholism

Which of these abnormalities is attributable chronic excessive alcohol use without being secondary to liver decompensation?

Macrocytic anaemia

Neutrophilia

Thrombocytopenia

Deranged clotting

Hypoalbuminaemia

A

Macrocytosis is common in patients with alcoholism,

128
Q

Anti-HBs

A

Anti-HBs implies immunity (either exposure or immunisation). It is negative in chronic disease

129
Q

Anti-HBc

A

Anti-HBc implies previous (or current) infection. IgM anti-HBc appears during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and is present for about 6 months. IgG anti-HBc persists

HBsAg = ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present > 6 months

anti-HBc = caught, i.e. negative if immunized

130
Q

HBsAg

A

HBsAg normally implies acute disease (present for 1-6 months)

if HBsAg is present for > 6 months then this implies chronic disease (i.e. Infective)

HBsAg = ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present > 6 months

anti-HBc = caught, i.e. negative if immunized

131
Q

Ongoing diarrhoea in Crohn’s patient post-resection with normal CRP →

A

cholestyramine

Adverse effects
abdominal cramps and constipation
decreases absorption of fat-soluble vitamins
cholesterol gallstones
may raise level of triglycerides

132
Q

GORD DIAGNOSIS

A

If endoscopy is negative consider 24-hr oesophageal pH monitoring (the gold standard test for diagnosis)

133
Q

TPMT activity should be assessed before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine therapy in Crohn’s disease

A

Thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) is an enzyme involved in the metabolism of azathioprine and mercaptopurine. Some people have a deficiency of TPMT due to genetic mutations, and these people are at a greater risk of experiencing severe side effects from conventional doses of azathioprine or mercaptopurine. TPMT activity should therefore be assessed before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine therapy. Such medications should not be commenced if TPMT is very low or absent. If TPMT activity is below normal, but not deficient, azathioprine or mercaptopurine can be commenced at a lower dose.

134
Q

Diarrhoea, weight, arthralgia, lymphadenopathy, ophthalmoplegia ?

A

Whipple’s disease

135
Q

Diarrhoea + hypokalaemia →

A

villous adenoma

136
Q

PPIs are a cause of microscopic colitis, which can present with chronic diarrhoea,

ix

A

colonoscopy and biopsy should be considered when patients present in this way and are taking a PPI

137
Q

Familial adenomatous polyposis - once diagnosed patients typically have

A

a total proctocolectomy with ileal pouch anal anastomosis due to the extremely high risk of developing colorectal cancer

138
Q

CCK

A

I cells in upper small intestine

139
Q

Secretin

A

S cells in upper small intestine

140
Q

VIP

A

Small intestine, pancreas

141
Q

Somatostatin

A

D cells in the pancreas & stomach