Gastroenterology Flashcards
Anatomical boundaries and blood supply of the GI tract?
Foregut = oesophagus to proximal half of 2nd part of duodenum (coeliac artery)
Midgut = distal half of 2nd part of duodenum to proximal 2/3rd transverse colon (SMA)
Hindgut = distal 1/3rd transverse colon to rectum (IMA)
Segments of the small vs large bowel?
Small = duodenum → jejunum → ileum
Large = caecum → ascending → transverse → descending → sigmoid → rectum → anus
Fat-soluble vitamins?
A, D, E and K
Deficiency signs of vitamin A, B1, B3, B12, C, D and K?
A = night blindness
B1 (thiamine) = wernicke-korsakoff, dry beri beri, wet beri beri
B3 (niacin) = pellagra (dermatitis, diarrhoea, depression)
B12 = macrocytic anaemia, atrophic glossitis
C = scurvy (gum disease, poor wound healing)
D= rickets, osteomalacia
K = coagulopathy
Gastroenteritis bacteria with short incubation time?
Staphylococcus aureus
Bacillus cereus
Clostridium perfringens
Gastroenteritis pathogens which cause bloody diarrhoea?
E. Coli O157 (shiga toxin-producing)
Shigella
Salmonella
Campylobacter
Amoebiasis
Gastroenteritis pathogens linked to severe dehydration & rice water diarrhoea, flu-like prodrome, long incubation, most common in UK, most common viral, most common in kids?
Severe dehydration/rice water diarrhoea = cholera
Flu-like prodrome = campylobacter
Long incubation = amoebiasis, giardiasis
Most common in UK = campylobacter
Most common viral = norovirus
Most common in kids = rotavirus
Most common cause of Traveller’s diarrhoea and complication?
E. Coli O157
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (AKI, microangiopathic haemaolysis and thrombocytopaenia)
WHO definition of diarrhoea and timescale?
≥ 4 loose/watery stools a day
< 14 days = acute
> 14 days = chronic
Common antidiarrhoeal drug and mechanism of action?
Loperamide
Opioid agonist
What conditions does IBD cover?
Crohn’s disease
Ulcerative colitis (UC)
Extra-intestinal features of IBD?
Arthritis
Osteoporosis
Episcleritis, uveitis
Erythema nodosum
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Blood test features of IBD?
Anaemia
Vitamin deficiencies
Raised inflammatory markers e.g. CRP/ESR
Raised faecal calprotectin
Bowel section most affected in Crohn’s vs UC?
Crohn’s = terminal ileum
UC = rectum (proctitis)
Clinical and histological features of Crohn’s disease?
Diarrhoea (non-bloody)
Weight loss
Abdominal pain
Perianal disease
Histology = transmural inflammation, skip lesions, non-caseating granulomas, cobblestoning, lots of goblet cells
Investigations for Crohn’s disease?
Colonoscopy + biopsy
Small bowel enema
MRI for small bowel disease
Findings of small bowel enema in Crohn’s disease?
“Kantor’s string” sign
“Rose thorn” ulcers
Drug options for inducing remission in Crohn’s disease?
1st line = steroid (adults), enteral nutrition (kids)
2nd line = azathioprine or mercaptopurine
3rd line = infliximab
Drugs options for maintaining Crohn’s remission and screening test?
Azathioprine or mercaptopurine
→ thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT)
Drug for isolated perianal vs ileocaecal Crohn’s disease?
Perianal = metronidazole
Ileocaecal = budesonide
Investigation and management of perianal fistulae?
Investigation = MRI
Management = draining seton (high) or fistulotomy (low)
Management of perianal abscess?
Incision and drainage + antibiotics
Management of anal fissures?
Acute = soften stool (fluids/laxatives), topical treatment
Chronic = topical GTN (1st line) or sphincterotomy (2nd line)
Classic position of haemorrhoids?
3, 7 and 11 o’clock position
Management of haemorrhoids?
1st line = soften stool (fluids/laxatives), topical treatment
2nd line = surgery e.g. rubber band ligation, haemorrhoidectomy, stapling
Types of UC and where they affect?
Proctitis (rectum)
Left sided colitis (rectum + left colon)
Pancolitis (rectum + whole colon)
Clinical and histological features of UC?
Diarrhoea (bloody)
Tenesmus
Weight loss
Abdominal pain
Histology = mucosal/submucosal inflammation, continuous, crypt abscesses, loss of goblet cells
Investigations for UC?
Sigmoidoscopy/colonoscopy + biopsy
Barium enema
Findings of barium enema in UC?
Loss of haustra
Pseudopolyps
“Drainpipe” colon
Drug options for inducing remission in UC?
1st line = topical aminosalicylate
2nd line = oral aminosalicylate
3rd line = steroid
Drug options for maintaining remission in UC?
1st line = topical aminosalicylate
2nd line = topical + oral aminosalicylate
3rd line = azathioprine or mercaptopurine
Aminosalicylate examples, mechanism of action and side effects?
Examples = mesalazine, sulfasalazine
Mechanism of action = inhibits prostaglandin synthesis
Side effects = GI upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis (mesalazine), lung fibrosis
Truelove and Witt’s criteria for UC flare?
Mild = < 4 stools/day + little blood
Moderate = 4-6 stools/day + varying blood
Severe = > 6 stools/day + systemic upset
Management of severe UC flare?
1st line = IV steroids
2nd line = IV ciclosporin
3rd line = surgery
Surgical techniques commonly used for rectosigmoid pathology?
Hartmann’s procedure + end colostomy
Cancer linked to IBD and which condition is it more common in?
Colorectal cancer
More common in UC
Classification of C. difficile infection by WCC?
Normal = mild
< 15 = moderate
> 15 = severe
N.B. life-threatening characterised by hypotension, shock, toxic megacolon etc.
Investigation and management of C. difficile infection?
Investigation = stool toxin
First episode = oral vancomycin (1st line) or oral fidoxamin (2nd line)
Recurrent episode = oral fidoxamin (< 12 weeks) or oral vancomycin OR fidoxamin (> 12 weeks)
Life threatening = oral vancomycin + IV metronidazole
N.B. faecal transplant an option if ≥ 2 episodes
Investigation and feature of toxic megacolon?
AXR
Transverse colon dilatation > 6cm
Clinical and histological features of coeliac disease?
Diarrhoea (non-bloody)
Steatorrhoea
Weight loss
Abdominal pain
Histology = villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, intra-epithelial lymphocytes
Conditions associated with coeliac disease?
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Hyposplenism
Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Autoimmune thyroid disease e.g. Grave’s
Investigations and management of coeliac disease?
Anti TTG IgA antibodies + total IgA
OGD + jejunal biopsy (gold-standard)
Management = gluten-free diet
Vaccination advice for coeliac disease?
Pneumococcal booster every 5 years
Cancer linked to coeliac disease?
Enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma
Features of irritable bowel syndrome?
Abdominal pain (relieved by defecation)
Bloating
Change in bowel habit
Management of irritable bowel syndrome?
Pain = antispasmodic
Diarrhoea = loperamide
Constipation = bulk-forming laxative
Diverticulosis vs diverticular disease vs diverticulitis?
Diverticulosis = diverticula present
Diverticular disease = symptomatic diverticulosis
Diverticulitis = infected diverticulum
Most common site affected by diverticulosis?
Sigmoid colon
Feature and management of diverticular disease?
Colicky left sided abdominal pain
Management = high-fibre diet
Features and management of diverticulitis?
Generally unwell e.g. fever, N&V
Diarrhoea (bloody or non-bloody)
Left iliac fossa pain
Management = oral antibiotic (mild) or IV antibiotics + IV fluids (severe)
Hinchey classification of diverticulitis?
I = para-colic abscess
II = pelvic abscess
III = purulent peritonitis
IV = faecal peritonitis
Investigations and management of SBBOS?
Hydrogen breath test
Trial of antibiotics
Management = rifaxamin
Jejunal biopsy showing macrophages with Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) granules and management?
Whipple’s disease
Management = co-trimoxazole
Cause of achalasia?
Damage to myenteric plexus reducing LOS relaxation
Investigation, feature and management of achalasia?
Investigations = barium swallow (bird beak appearance)
Management = balloon dilatation, Heller’s cardiomyotomy
Investigations for GORD?
Standard dose PPI trial
Upper GI endoscopy if concerned
Oesophageal pH monitoring
Short-term management of GORD?
1st line = high-dose PPI for 1-2 months
2nd line = H. pylori test if still symptomatic
Long-term management of GORD?
Ideally an antacid e.g. Gavison
Low-dose PPI if symptoms persist
Histology of Barrett’s oesophagus?
Metaplasia of squamous to columnar epithelium
Management of metaplastic vs dysplastic Barrett’s oesophagus?
Metaplastic = high-dose PPI + endoscopic surveillance every 3-5 years
Dysplasia = radiofrequency ablation or endoscopic mucosal resection
PPI examples, mechanism of action and side effects?
Examples = omeprazole, lanzoprazole
Mechanism of action = blocks H+/K+ ATPase of gastric parietal cells
Side effects = hyponatraemia, hypomagnesia, osteoporosis, increased risk of C. diff
Preferred PPI for patients taking clopidogrel?
Lansoprazole
ALARMS features of upper GI malignancy?
Anaemia/age > 55
Loss of weight
Anorexia
Recent onset
Masses/malaena/haematemesis
Swallowing issues
Types of oesophageal cancer, where they affect and key risk factor?
Adenocarcinoma (lower 1/3rd) = Barrett’s oesophagus
Squamous cell carcinoma (upper 2/3rds) = smoking
Investigation for H. Pylori and rules?
Urea breath test
→ not within 4 weeks of antibiotic treatment
→ not within 2 weeks of PPI
H. pylori eradication?
No penicillin allergy = PPI + amoxicillin + clarithromycin or metronidazole
Penicillin allergy = PPI + clairithromycin + metronidazole
Complications of H. pylori infection?
Duodenal ulcers (95% responsible)
Gastric ulcers (75% responsible)
MALT lymphoma
Atrophic gastritis
Main feature of duodenal vs gastric ulcers?
Epigastric pain
Duodenal = worse at night, relieved by eating
Gastric = worse when eating
Drugs associated with peptic ulcer disease?
NSAIDs
SSRIs
Corticosteroids
Bisphosphonates
Investigation and management of peptic ulcer disease?
Investigation = endoscopy + rapid urease test
Management = PPI (H. pylori -ve) or H. pylori eradication (H. pylori +ve)
Main bleeding source in ruptured peptic ulcer?
Gastroduodenal artery
Investigation, feature and management of a ruptured peptic ulcer?
Investigation = erect CXR (pneumoperitoneum)
Management = endoscopic intervention + IV PPI
Most common causes of acute upper GI bleed and scoring systems?
Peptic ulcer disease and oesophageal varices
Glasgow-Blatchford score (pre-endoscopy)
Rockall score (post-endoscopy)
Blood test feature indicating an upper rather than lower GI bleed and why?
High urea
Blood proteins are dissolved in stomach
Outline the pathology of pernicious anaemia?
- Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies bind to intrinsic factor blocking vitamin B12
- Gastric parietal cell antibodies cause atrophic gastritis
- Decreased intrinsic factor production → low vitamin B12 absorption
Investigation and management of pernicious anaemia?
Investigation = anti-intrinsic factor antibodies
Management = IM vitamin B12