gastro conditions Flashcards

1
Q

what are haemorrhoids

A

they are vascular cushions on the anus that help the sphincters constrict

however we only say someone has haemorrhoids when these cushions become inflamed

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2
Q

presentation of haemorrhoids

A

usually PAINLESS fresh blood from back passage
NOT mixed in stool
pruritus may be present!!!

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3
Q

explain clock positions for pR exam and locations of haemorrhoids on this

A

clock times allocated with patient flat on back and open legs (like in surgery) and 12 is tomards belly 6 is towards back

however pr exam is not done in this position so it can be confusing

haemorrhoids in 3, 7 and 11 oclock position

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4
Q

haemorrhoids 2 types

A

internal: above dentate line in anal canal- less likely to be painful
external: below dentate line: more likely to be thrombosed and painful

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5
Q

haemorrhoids grades of classification

A

grade 1: do not prolapse out of the anal canal
grade 2: prolapse out of anal canal only in defecation
grade 3: prolapse out of anal canal in defecation and stay there but can be reduced
4: cannot be reduced

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6
Q

haemorrhoids diagnosis

A

a rigid anoscope, proctoscope, or rectoscope

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7
Q

when suspecting haemorrhoids what fo you do?

A

abdo exam and inspect rectum and PR exam to RULE OUT other pathology eg fissures or other sinister pathology

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8
Q

haemorrhoids management

A

prevention: preventing constipation: high fibre, liquids and laxatives when needed

pharmacological treatment: bunch of creams and stuff you can use

non surgical treatments: BAND LIGATION: killing the supply to haemorrhoids> injection sclerotherapy

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9
Q

management of acute thrombosed external haemorrhoids

A

veery painful
patients may benefit from admission if presentation within 72 hours for procedure

otherwise stool softeners ice packs and analgesia will do the trick

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10
Q

colon cancer non acute presentation

A

blood in stool, unexplained weight loss, change in bowel habit (usually more lose stool),
iron def anaemia, unexplained ABDO PAIN!!!!

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11
Q

screening bowel cancer programme ENgland and scotland

A

FIT test sent out to everyone 60-74 in england and 50-74 in scotland

positive fit test patients are offered a colonoscopy

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12
Q

risk factors for bowel cancer

A

diet- high in meat low in fiber
obesity

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13
Q

how are the genetics of bowel cancer classified

A

1) SPORADIC 95%
2- hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma 5%– isolated cancer
3- familial adenomatous polyposis 1%

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14
Q
  • familial adenomatous polyposis pathology and management
A

patients are full of polyps by age of 30-40 and need total proctocolectomy

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15
Q

any age person single symptom indicator for FIT test

A

change in bowel habit
iron def anaemia!!!!!!
abdo mass

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16
Q

over 50 single symptom FIT indicators

A

rectal bleeding
abdo pain
weight loss

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17
Q

40+ 2 symptom combo FIT indicator

A

unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain,

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18
Q

under 50 2 symptoms combos FIT indicators

A

rectal bleeding and either of the following unexplained symptoms:
abdominal pain
weight loss,

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19
Q

60+ person (low threshold) FIT indicator

A

anaemia even if not iron def

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20
Q

what symptoms can indicate direct referral even without FIT testing

A

anal mass
rectal mass and
anal ulcer

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21
Q

post fit test result approach

A

if positive 2 week wait and if negative can still be considered for referral if symptoms presist and no other expl is found

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22
Q

coloractal cancer management

A

palliative
chemo
surgery - palliative (symptom control) or curative intent

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23
Q

what is the CEA

A

carcino embryonic antigen is a blood test used in staging and looking for reccurance of colon cacner not for screening though

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24
Q

other staging investigation of colon cancer

A

CT of the chest, abdomen and pelvis

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25
Q

anal fissure presentation

A

bright red blood, painful with defecation

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26
Q

risk factors for anal fissure

A

constipation, IBD, STI!!

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27
Q

Acute management of anal fissure

A

dietary advice high fibre and fluids

bulk forming laxative if needed and lactulose if that doesnt work

lubricants before defecation
topical anaesthetics and analgesia

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28
Q

chronic management of anal fissure

A

same as acute and additional topical GTN if needed and if that doesnt work then referral for anal sphincterotomy

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29
Q

diverticular disease presentation

A

altered bowel habit, rectal bleeding, abdo pain

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30
Q

pathophysiology of diverticular disease

A

outpouchings on the bowel wall - usually happen between taenia coli where vessels pierce muscle to supply the mucosa fo rthis reason the rectum which lacks taenia is often sparred

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31
Q

complications of diverticular disease

A

diverticulitis
perforation
abscess
peritonitis
fistula
haemorrhage

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32
Q

diagnosis of patients presenting in clinic with suspected diverticular disease

A

colonoscopy or CT cologram or barium enema

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33
Q

diagnosis of patients acutely unwell with diverticular disease

A

plain xray will show perforation
then if needed abdo CT with IV and oral contrast to identify inflammation of bowel and local complications such as abscess formation.

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34
Q

severity classification tool for diverticular disease complications

A

Hinchey classificatoin

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35
Q

management of diverticular disease stable disease

A

high fibre and liquid diet

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36
Q

diverticulitis management

A

sometimes people have rescue pack AB but may need surgical involvement if recurrent acute diverticulitis attacks, if hinchley class 4: faecal peritonitis- needs resection and maybe stoma- bad prognosis

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37
Q

ulcerative colitis presentation

A

bloody diarrhoea, abdo pain, younger patients, left abdo pain> right

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38
Q

diagnostics for UC when stable and if diagnosis being made in flare

A

colonoscopy with biopsy are usually diagnostic,
raised faecal calprotectin in IBD

NO colonoscopy when flare- flexi sigmoidoscopy preferred

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39
Q

pathophysiological features of UC including histology

A
  • red raw mucosa that easily bleeds
  • only past ileocoecal valve so only large bowel
  • inflammation doesnt go past submucosa (nooot all layers)
  • depleted goblet cells and mucin form gland epithelium
  • pseudopolyps since theres ulcerated mucosa with adjacent unaffected mucosa making it look like polyps (in lumen)
  • crypt abscesses filled with neutrophils
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40
Q

most common site of UC

A

rectum since this is where the inflammation always starts from

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41
Q

conditions commonly associate with UC

A

primary sclerosing colangitis, arthritis, uveitis

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42
Q

vit b12 deficiency causes

A

1) pernicious anaemia most common
other causes: malnutrition, gastrectomy, atrophic gastritis

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43
Q

pernicious anaemia pathophysiology

A

autoimmune condition leading to destruction of gastric mucosa
what leads to vit b12 deficiency
1) IF antibodies
2) destruction of gastric mucosa so less production oF IF

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44
Q

presentation of pernicious anaemia

A

1) anaemia since b12 not produced
2) neuro symptoms since b12 is critical in myelination of neurones so tingling, confusion, concentration problems,
- other: jaundice with pallor: “lemon tinge”
atrophic glossitis

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45
Q

management of pernicious anaemia

A

-IM b12 3/ week initially then 1 every 3 months
-oral b12 not commonly used but may be evidence suggesting it helps maintenance of levels
-folate supplements may also be needed

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46
Q

which cancer does pernicious anaemia predispose to

A

gastric cancer

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47
Q

pancreatic cancer presentation

A

unspecific symptoms: weight loss, anorexia, epigastric pain, atypical back pain

PAINLESS!!! jaundice, abdo mass, hepatomegaly

SPECIFIC potential symptoms:
steatorrhoea due to exocrine function loss, Diabetes due to endocrine function loss

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48
Q

pancreatic cancer LFTs picture

A

obstructive picture (ALP> ALT)

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49
Q

pancreatic cancer diagnostics and sign on high reso CT

A

high resolution CT (double duct sign)- can also do a uss

50
Q

management of pancreatic cancer

A

less than 20% of cases are operable at diagnosis
whipple procedure: pancreaticoduodenectomy
is performed for resectable lesions in the head of pancreas.

adjuvant chemotherapy used AFTER surgery
ERCP with stenting can be used palliatively

51
Q

alcoholic liver disease stages

A

healthy-> fatty liver->hepatitis-> fibrotic liver-> cirrhosis

52
Q

alcoholic liver disease LFT picture

A

AST/ ALT ration HIGH
gamma GT raised

53
Q

management of acute alcoholic heptitis

A

glucocorticoid

(phentoxyphiline sometimes used but research says is not that good)

54
Q

c dif infection most common triggers

A

used ot be clyndamycin now its cephalosporins
PPIs are also triggering

55
Q

micorbiology of c dif

A

gram positive, anaerobic, spore forming, toxin producing, bacillus

spreads faecal oral route by spread of the spores

56
Q

complications of c dif

A

toxic megacolon

57
Q

how is c dif diagnosis made

A

CDT (meanig from the cc dif toxin and NOT the anitgen - that would just so exposure rather than infection

58
Q

management of C dif

A

1) stop current ab is possible
2) start ORAL VANCOMYCIN
fidaxomycin- second line
vancomycin and iV mtroonidazole is third line

isolate patient in ward - hand washing!! (alcohol doesnt kill )

if reccurent infections consider microbiota transplant

59
Q

what LFT picture does paracetamol, sodium valporate and anti TB drugs cause?

A

hepatocellular picture so ALT> ALP

60
Q

What LFT picture does combined oral contraceptive pill cause

A

cholestasic picture so ALP> ALT

61
Q

femoral henrnia presentation is it painful and is it reducible?

A

usually painless and usually non reducible

62
Q

complications of femoral hernia

A

striangulation and bowel obstruction: both are surgial emergencies

63
Q

important DDx to exclude for femoral hernias

A

femoral artery aneurism
inguinal hernia
lymphadenopahty
abscess
lipoma
hydrocoele

64
Q

Most common type of bowel cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

65
Q

meaning of incarcerated hernia

A

when its non reducible- stuck hernia essentially but not yet STRIANGULATED

66
Q

how to differentiate incarcerated from striangulated hernia

A

PAIINNN!! incarcerated hernia is typically painless vs striangulated is painful

67
Q

difference in management of an incarcerated vs striangulated hernia

A

striangulated hernia needs IMMEDIATE surgery vs incarcerated just elective

68
Q

what advice is given to a patient while waiting to get surgery for striangulated hernia

A

DONT try to reduce it - can exacerbrate peritonitis

69
Q

OTHER NAME FOR VIT B12

70
Q

coeliac disease pathophysiology

A

the protein gluten causes villous atrophy and this in turn causes malabsorption

71
Q

coeliac disease presentation

A
  • chronic or intermittent diarrhoea
  • Persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms including nausea and vomiting
  • prolonged fatigue
  • recurrent abdo pain, cramping or distension
  • sudden or unexpected weight loss
  • unexplained iron deficiency anaemia
  • sudden or unexpected weigh loss
72
Q

coeliac disease associated conditions

A

autoimmune diseases
dermatitis herpetiformis (doesnt happen much independently to coeliac disease- mostly with it)

73
Q

diagnosis of coeliac disease

A

–serology - TTG!! and IgA
—and endoscopic intestinal biopsy is the golden standard!!!!!– form duodenym> jejenum
—main findings of the biopsy: crypt hyperplasia, villous atrophy, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes

(Also a lot of the cases are associated with HLA-DQ2 or HLA-DQ8)

74
Q

For the endoscopic intestinal biopsy, what is true regarding the patients consumption of gluten in the 6 weeks prior?

A

patient needs to have been consuming gluten for at least 6 weeks prior

75
Q

management of coeliac disease

A

–no gluten in diet
–this reverses the atrophy usually
– (pasta bread, beer ect have gluten, –RICE does not, potatoes dont corn doesnt)

76
Q

what is another important aspect of management of coeliac disease?

A

pneumococcal vaccine and booster every 5 years because all coeliac disease patients have a degree of functional hyposplenism

and flu vaccine on an individual basis

77
Q

Ascending cholangitis pathophysiology and cause

A

ascending cholangitis is caused by a combination of outflow obstruction and infection of the billiary tree most commonly caused by e coli

78
Q

most common predisposing factor to ascending cholanfitis

A

gallstone disease

79
Q

two types of gallstone disease progression leading to ascending cholangitis

A

Mirizi syndrome - gallstones in gallbladder externally compress the common bile duct
or
- cholidocholithiasis- gallstones move down to the common bile duct

80
Q

presentation of ascending cholangitis

A

charcot’s triad: jaundice, fever, RUQ pain

if also HYPOTENSIVE and CONFUSED (think SYSTEMIC symptoms) then its reynold’s pentad

81
Q

blood results of ascending cholangitis

A

infective markers raised and obstructive pattern LFTs alp> alt + GGT (also raised but less) and also billirubin raised

82
Q

diagnostic golden standard of ascending cholangitis and findings

A

abdo USS - stones are seen AND dilation of the bile ducts

83
Q

crohns disease causes

A

generally unknown but strong genetic component

84
Q

crohns disease ages peak incidnce

A

20-30 can happen in adolescence too!

85
Q

presentation of Crohn’s - most common symptom in adults and children

A

adults: diarrhoea (can be bloody but this is more characteristic of UC)

CHILDREN; abdo pain

other: weight loss, lethargy,
perianal disease: skin tags and ulcering
extra-intestinal features (more common in crohns colitis)

86
Q

most common sites of Crohns

A

terminal ileum and colon!

ileum involvement in 80%

ileum + colon= 50%
ileum only 30%
colon only 20%
30% perianal

87
Q

investigations for crohns

A

bloods:
- inflammatory markers, CRP good correlation with disease progress

  • faecal calprotectin
  • ANAEMIA
  • DECREASED B12 AND FOLATE!

colonoscopy + biopsy for histology

88
Q

crohns histology + colonoscopy findings

A

skip lesions, deep perforation till serosa, ulcers

89
Q

what bowel loop complications are crohns patients at risk of and why

A

due to the lesions that are very deep (reach serosa layer) thiings like adhesions, strictures and fistulas

90
Q

additional specific and sensitive investgations to small bowel crohns and its findings

A

small bowel enema

strictures: kantors string sign
proximal bowel dilation
rose thorn ulcers
fistulae

91
Q

extra-enteral manifestations equally likely in uc and crohn’s that are DEPENDEDNT on disease activity

A

pauciarticular arthritis asymetrical
osteoporosis
erythema nodosum

92
Q

extra enteral manifestations of IBD unrelated to disease activity (equal in UC AND Crohns)

A

polyarticular arthritis -
clubbing
pyoderma gangrenosum

93
Q

extra enteral manifestations more likely in crohns

A

episcleritis

94
Q

extra-enteral manifestations more likely in UC

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis
uveitis

95
Q

crohns management to induce remission (acute management)

A

glucocorticoids - first line!

potential additions/ alternatives
enteral feeding additionally or as an alternative where steroids will cause bad side effects eg children

5 ASA drugs - used as ALTERNATIVE to glucocorticoids but not as effective

azathiorprine used IN ADDITION to glucocorticoid

96
Q

management of crohns to maintain remission

A

azathioprine or mercaptopurine is first line

methrotrexate is used second line

97
Q

WHAT Needs to be measured before starting azathioprine or mercaptopurine?

A

+TPMT activity- its the liver enzyme that breaks these drugs down so if its low there is risk of toxicity

98
Q

how common is surgery in crohns and what are some of its uses?

A

80% of patients with crohn’s will require some form of surgery

examples:
stricturing terminal ileal disease: ileocaecal resection

segmental small bowel resections
stricturoplasty

99
Q

crohns disease and GI cancers association

A

small bowel cancer (standard incidence ratio = 40)
colorectal cancer (standard incidence ratio = 2, i.e. less than the risk associated with ulcerative colitis)

100
Q

what is trousseau’s syndrome and which cancer is it most associated with

A

its a paraneoplastic phenomenin associated iwth pancreatic cancer causing migratory thrombophlebitis (eg red painful swellings on fingers)

101
Q

presentation of perianal abscess

A

pain around the anus, worse on sitting,
may have noticed hardening tissue around anus,
puss like discharge from anus
if its long standing there may be features of systemic infection eg fever ect

102
Q

epidemiology of perianal abscess

A

2:1 more men, and average age is 40

103
Q

what is a perianal abscess

A

meaning:
The infection usually starts deeper, in the glands near the anal sphincter

From there, the infection spreads through the tissue planes until it reaches the more superficial layers (under the skin), where it forms an abscess.

104
Q

management of perianal abscess

A

incision + drainage under local anaesthetic if its superficial and no involvement of sphincter or

general anaesthetic if sphincter is involved and more complicated

antibiotic only if systemic upset - hasnt been proven to hlep with healing of wound post- drainage

104
Q

common investigations to help diagnose perianal abscess

A
  • bloods:
    -infection markers
  • blood cultures
  • can isually be diagnosed by inspecting hte areaor a DRE
  • golden standard for anorectal abscesses is an MRI!!!!
    -(other useful: transperineal USS)
    -(but these are rarely used- more in complicated disease process such as underlying IBD or complications)
105
Q

conditions commonly associated with perianal abscess

A

Crohn’s
Diabetes mellitus due to poor wound healing
underlying malignancy

106
Q

what bacteria commonly cause perianal abscesses

A

e coli if from GI tract

s. aureus if skin is the source

107
Q

what is a Fistula

A

an abnormal connection between two epithelial surfaces

108
Q

what general body area are fistulas more common in in gen surg and commonest causes of it

A

abdomen
crohn’s and diverticular disease are common causes of it

109
Q

general principle about resolution of fistulas?

A

they generally resolve spontaneously unless there is something blocking them distally

110
Q

what are the four types of fistulae in abdomen

A

enterocutaneous
enterovesicular
enterovaginal
enteroenteric or enterocolic

111
Q

characteristic of enterocutaneous

A

they have excretions onto skin

duodenal and jejenal have HIGHer output excretions and more acidic that may excoriate the skin compared to

colo- enteric fistulae that have more faecal secretions

112
Q

problem with enteroenteric fistulas

A

overgrowth of bacteria may lead to malabsoprtion syndromes- particularly bad in IBD

113
Q

enterovesicular fistulas presentations

A

frequent UTI OR PASSING GASS FROM fwhen peeing

114
Q

management of fistula when no IBD or obstruiction

A

conservative as it will heal by itslef

115
Q

management when there is Where there is skin involvement

A

protect the overlying skin, often using a well-fitted stoma bag- skin damage is difficult to treat

116
Q

medicine to use in high output fistula

A

octreotide, this will tend to reduce the volume of pancreatic secretions.

117
Q

when are nutritional complcations more common and how to manage in fistulas

A

Nutritional complications are common especially with high fistula (e.g. high jejunal or duodenal) these may necessitate the use of TPN to provide nutritional support together with the concomitant use of octreotide to reduce volume and protect skin.

118
Q

what should surgeons avoid doing to fstulas as it worsens outcomes

A

probing it

119
Q

what is THE MOST EFFECTIVE treatment For simple perianal fistulae, such as partial intersphincteric types,

A

fistulotomy is generally the most effective treatment.

(Deeper fistulae may be better managed with a seton drain in order to preserve continence and reduce the risk of sphincter injury)_

120
Q

When perianal fistulae occur secondary to Crohn’s disease whatis the best management

A

often to drain acute sepsis and maintain that drainage through the judicious use of setons whilst medical management is implemented.

121
Q

what are some good tools to help delineate the fistula anatomy, for abscesses and fistulae that have an intraabdominal source?

A

barium and CT studies