Gastro Flashcards

1
Q

Acute porphyrias

A

disorders caused by defects in haem synthesis due to alterations in enzyme function or structure.

Acute porphyria types:
Acute intermittent porphyria
Variegate porphyria
ALA deficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Triggers of acute porphyria

A
Antibiotics - Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Nitrofurantoin
Anaesthetic agents - Ketamine, Etomidate
Sulfonamides
Barbiturates
Antifungal agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Diagnosis of porphyria

A

Diagnosis can be made on the basis of urinary porphobilinogen levels, which is a product in the pathway of haem metabolism. Urine samples need to be protected from light to prevent the breakdown of PBG.

Management
Treatment of attacks is largely supportive. Haem arginate can also be given intravenously to replenish haem levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Indications for inpatient withdrawal

A

Patients drinking >30 units per day
Scoring over 30 on the SADQ score
High risk of alcohol withdrawal seizures (previous alcohol withdrawal seizures or delirium tremens, or history of epilepsy)
Concurrent withdrawal from benzodiazepines
Significant medical or psychiatric comorbidity
Vulnerable patients
Patients under 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Management

of alcohol withdrawal

A

Assisted alcohol withdrawal is required in patients drinking over 15 units per day or in those scoring over 20 on the AUDIT questionnaire.

Chlordiazepoxide prescribed in a reducing regimen in accordance with the CIWA score and local protocol.
In alcohol-withdrawal seizure a patient should be prescribed a rapid-acting benzodiazepine (such as intravenous lorazepam).
Pabrinex (1 pair of ampoules once daily to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy).
If there are signs of Wernicke’s encephalopathy (confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia or nystagmus) patients should be prescribed 2 pairs of ampoules TDS.
In delirium tremens (this presents with confusion and visual hallucinations 48-72 hours after abstinence) offer oral lorazepam as first line treatment. If this is declines or symptoms persist offer parenteral lorazepam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency

presentation

A

Alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency is an inherited condition that affects the lungs, causing emphysema, and the liver, causing cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma.

Presentation
COPD presenting 30-40 years old
Neonatal jaundice at birth
Deranged LFTs in adults with no other identified cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency

D and M

A

investigations
The disease can be tested for with alpha 1 antitrypsin levels, genotyping or liver biopsy (evidence of Periodic acid Schiff positive globules).

Management
The condition has few management options and patients are advised to stop smoking. Intravenous A1AT pooled from human donors is expensive and not widely used. Liver transplant may be required in cases of decompensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Causes of a high SAAG in asisties

A
Cirrhosis
Heart failure
Budd Chiari syndrome
Constrictive pericarditis
Hepatic failure
A high SAAG (>11g/dL) suggests that the cause of the ascites is due to raised portal pressure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Causes of a low SAAG (<11g/dL)

A

Cancer of the peritoneum
Tuberculosis and other infections
Pancreatitis
Nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis
(young middle aged women)
Liver function test results

A

Liver function test results

Raised ALT and bilirubin with normal/mildly raised ALP. Patients may have an IgG predominant hypergammaglobulinemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

barrets oesphogous

A

ass/w GORD
-> leads to a change in the distal oesophagus from the usual squamous epithelium to metaplastic columnar epithelium.
== oesophageal adenocarcinoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cholera treatment

A

Management
Aggressive fluid replacement: effective therapy can decrease mortality from over 50% to less than 0.2%.
Antibiotics (Doxycycline or co-trimoxazole) decrease volume and duration of diarrhoea by 50% and are recommended for patients with moderate to severe dehydration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Chronic pancreatitis Clinical Features

A

Patients present with epigastric pain, classically worse after eating fatty food and relieved by sitting forward.

There may be features of exocrine dysfunction, such as malabsorption and steatorrhoea.

There may be features of endocrine dysfunction (i.e. Type 1 diabetes mellitus) with thirst and polyuria.

On physical examination there may be epigastric tenderness. It is important to check for signs of chronic liver disease (suggestive of alcohol as a cause).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Risk factors for developing CDI

A

Have been treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics
Common antibiotic risk factors include:
Clindamycin
Ciprofloxacin
Cephalosporins
Penicillins
Have had to stay in a healthcare setting, such as a hospital or care home, for a long time
Are over 65 years old
Have certain underlying conditions, including inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), cancer, or kidney disease
Have a week immune system, as a result of conditions such as diabetes or HIV infection or as side effect of a treatment such as chemotherapy or steroid medication
Are taking a proton pump inhibitor (PPI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Complications of coeliac

A

naemia
Hyposplenism (and therefore a susceptibility to encapsulated organisms)
Osteoporosis (a DEXA scan may be required)
Enteropathy-associated T cell lymphoma (EATL; a rare type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma).
The likelhood or aquiring this malignancy is directly proportional to the strength of overall adherence to a gluten free diet - i.e. the more a patient breaks adherence, the more likely they are to get EATL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Enzyme inducers

A

Reduce the concentration of drugs metabolised by the cytochrome P450 system

Carbamazepine
Rifampicin
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbitone
Alcohol (chronic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Enzyme inhibitors

A

Increase the concentration of drugs metabolised by the cytochrome P450 system

Valproate
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Fluclonazole
Erythromycin
Omeprazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Gastroenteritis causes

A

Bacterial causes
The bacteria most commonly implicated are:

Staphylococcus aureus: usually found in cooked meats and cream products.
Bacillus cereus: mainly found in reheated rice.
Clostridium perfringens: usually found in reheated meat dishes or cooked meats.
Campylobacter
E.coli including E.coli 0157 (which can cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome)
Salmonella
Shigella

Viral causes
Rotavirus: most common cause of infantile gastroenteritis
Norovirus: most common cause of viral infectious gastroenteritis in all ages in England and Wales
Adenoviruses: commonly cause infections of the respiratory system but can also cause gastroenteritis, particularly in children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Specific antibiotics for Gastroenteriti

A

Salmonella and shigella are treated with ciprofloxacin.

Campylobacter is treatment with a macrolide, such as erythromycin.

Cholera is treated with tetracycline, to reduce transmission.

Food poisoning is a notifiable disease in the UK.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

gastroparesis - d n m

A

Diagnosis
Diagnosis of gastroparesis can be made with a solid meal gastric scintigraphy (Radionuclide studies of gastric emptying)

Management
Dietary modification - low fibre, smaller/more frequent meals, pureed/mashed food
Domperidone - dopamine receptor antagonist
Metoclopramide or Erythromycin (motility agents)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Treatment of H. Pylori

A

Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and a PPI twice daily for seven days - so-called triple therapy.

After 4-8 weeks patients can be re-tested for H. Pylori to check it has been eradicated.

If still present, NICE recommend another course of triple therapy with metronidazole or clarithromycin - whichever was not used in the initial course - amoxicillin and a PPI. The importance of adherence should also be discussed with the patient.

If the patient has already had courses of clarithromycin and metronidazole, the recommended treatment is a seven day course of a PPI, amoxicillin and either tetracycline or a quinolone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

main types of hiatus hernias

A

Sliding hiatal hernia (80%): The gastro-oesophageal junction slides up into the chest. A less competent sphincter results in acid reflux. Treatment is similar as for GORD.

Rolling hiatal hernia (20%): The gastro-oesophageal junction remains in the abdomen but part of the stomach protrude into the chest alongside the oesophagus. This type needs more urgent treatment as volvulus can result in ischemia and necrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Clinical features of hiatus hernias

A

Symptoms include heartburn, dysphagia, regurgitation, odynophagia, shortness of breath, chronic cough and chest pain.

Hiatal hernias can be diagnosed using barium swallows (upper GI series), which is the most sensitive method, endoscopy and oesophageal manometry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

management of hiatus hernias

A

Conservative management includes crucial lifestyle changes. Lifestyle advice for patients with hiatal hernia includes
Lose weight
Elevate the head of the bed
Avoid large meals and eat 3-4 hours before bedtime
Avoiding alcohol and acidic foods
Avoid smoking as nicotine relaxes the lower oesophageal sphincter (as can chocolate, peppermint, caffeine, fatty foods, and medications such as calcium-channel blockers, nitrates, and beta-blockers)

Medical management involves PPI use for 4-8 weeks before assessing response.

Surgical management includes Nissen’s fundoplication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Indications for TIPSS

A

Secondary prophylaxis for oesophageal variceal bleeding
Treatment of refractory ascites
Treating portal hypertension in Budd-Chiari syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Manning criteria for diagnosis of IBS

A

Abdominal discomfort or pain that is relieved by defecation OR associated with altered bowel frequency or stool form
AND at least 2 of:
Altered stool passage (e.g. straining or urgency)
Abdominal bloating
Symptoms made worse by eating
Passage of mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Causes of Prehepatic jaundice

A

Prehepatic causes of jaundice result in unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia, which is not water soluble so cannot enter the urine. It is therefore known as acholuric jaundice.

Causes:

Conjugation disorders, such as Gilbert’s disease and Crigler-Naajjar
Haemolysis (such as malaria or haemolytic anaemia)
Drugs, such as contrast or rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Causes of hepatocelullar dysfunction (‘hepatic jaundice’)

A

Hepatocellular dysfunction results in a conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. Causes include:

Viruses (hepatitis, CMV, EBV)
Drugs, including paracetamol overdose, halothane, valproate, statins, tuberculosis antibiotics
Alcohol
Cirrhosis
Liver mass (abscess or malignancy)
Haemochromatosis
Autoimmune hepatitis
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
Budd-Chiari
Wilson's disease
Failure to excrete conjugated bilirubin (Rotor and Dubin-Johnson syndromes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Causes of post-hepatic jaundice

A

Impaired excretion of conjugated bilirubin results is cholestasis. Conjugated bilirubin is water soluble, making the urine dark. Less bilirubin reaches the gut, so pale stools also result. Pruritus also suggests an obstructive problem. These so-called post-hepatic causes include:

Primary biliary cirrhosis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Common bile duct gallstones or Mirrizi’s syndrome (CBD compression from a gallstone in the cystic duct)
Drugs, including coamoxiclav, flucloxacillin, nitrofurantoin, steroids, sulfonylureas
Malignancy, such as head of the pancreas adenocarcinoma, cholangiocarcinoma
Caroli’s disease
Biliary atresia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Imaging and invasive investigations for cirrhosis

A

If ascites is present, a peritoneal tap should be taken for microscopy and culture to look for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis.

A Doppler ultrasound would be of use in identifying Budd-Chiari syndrome.

Transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging can be used to diagnose non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.

Liver biopsy may be necessary to confirm the underlying diagnosis if still in doubt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Child-Pugh interpretation

A

The scores are added and the degree of cirrhosis is classified as Child-Pugh A (<7 points), B (7-9 points) or C (>9 points).

The score can be used as a predictor of mortality, and may also be used to predict the need for a liver transplant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Management of decompensated liver disease

A

Good nutrition is essential, with total alcohol abstinence.
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, sedatives and opiates should all be avoided.
An ultrasound scan and serum α-fetoprotein every 6 months may be indicated to detect development of hepatocellular carcinoma.
Colestyramine (bile acid sequestrant) can be used to manage pruritus.
Ascites can be managed with fluid restriction (under 1.5L per day) and a low-salt diet. Pharmacological management is with spironolactone; furosemide can be added if necessary. In severe cases, therapeutic paracentesis can be used alongside albumin infusions.
Recurrent episodes of encephalopathy can be reduced in frequency through the use of prophylactic lactulose and rifaximin.
Patients at high-risk of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (such as those who have had previous episodes, or those with low albumin, a high INR and low ascitic albumin) may be treated with prophylactic antibiotics.
Ultimate treatment is a liver transplant. For cases of chronic liver disease scores such as the Model for End-stage Liver Disease (MELD) and UK End-stage Liver Disease (UKELD) are used to help predict severity of disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Four stages of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Altered mood and behaviour, disturbance of sleep pattern and dyspraxia
Drowsiness, confusion, slurring of speech and personality change
Incoherency, restlessness, asterixis
Coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

King’s College Hospital Criteria for Liver Transplant (paracetamol induced)

A

The criteria for paracetamol induced liver failure are as follows:

Arterial pH <7.3 24h after ingestion OR
Pro-thrombin time >100s
AND creatinine >300µmol/L
AND grade III or IV encephalopathy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

King’s College Hospital Criteria for Liver Transplant (non-paracetamol liver failure)

A
Prothrombin time >100s OR
Any three of:
Drug-induced liver failure
Age under 10 or over 40 years
1 week from 1st jaundice to encephalopathy
Prothrombin time >50s
Bilirubin ≥300µmol/L.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Melanosis coli

A

Melanosis coli is a finding usually associated with chronic laxative abuse, where colonoscopy reveals the presence of dark brown pigmentation of the macrophages in the lamina propria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma

A
Clinical features
Abdominal pain
Nausea and vomiting
Symptoms of anaemia
Weight loss

Management
The initial treatment for local and disseminated disease is H. Pylori eradication therapy. This can treat the lymphoma in many cases.
If this fails to eradicate the disease, however, other treatment options are chemotherapy and radiotherapy. These may be considered if the disease is progressive or the patient has high risk features, such as being H. Pylori negative at presentation.
In disseminated disease, chemotherapy and rituximab is recommended if there is a threat to vital organ function. Otherwise, a watch and wait approach can be adopted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Candida

A

White patches in the mouth are most commonly caused by a fungal infection with Candida; leucoplakia is a generic way to describe white patches found in the mouth.

Old age
Diabetes mellitus
Immunosuppression
Long term corticosteroids
Malignancy
Antibiotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Hairy Leukoplakia

A

Hairy leucoplakia is a benign condition that does not in itself require any treatment, but may lead to medical and psychological issues for the patient given the likely underlying condition. It is caused by Epstein-Barr virus, and is suggestive of underlying HIV infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Oral ulcers

A

Common deficiencies causing oral ulcers include iron, vitamin B12 and folate, which all lead to anaemia. Crohn’s disease can also cause painful oral ulcers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

risk factors for duodenal ulcers include:

A
NSIADS
Chronic steroid use
SSRIs
Increase in gastric acid secretion
Smoking
Blood group O
Increased gastric emptying (more acid in the duodenum)
42
Q

Risk factors for gastric ulcers

A
NSAIDs
H. Pylori
Smoking
Delayed gastric emptying
Severe stress.
43
Q

management of petic ulcer disease

A

Management
H. Pylori-negative peptic ulcer disease is managed with 4-8 weeks of full dose PPI treatment and lifestyle advise, including:

Stop smoking
Cut down on alcohol
Have more regular, smaller meals and eat 4 hours before bed
Avoid acidic foods, coffee, fatty or spicy foods
Encourage weight loss if obese
Try to avoid stress
Avoid NSAIDs, steroids, bisphosphonates, potassium supplements, SSRIs and crack cocaine
Try over the counter antacids

44
Q

Follow-up of patients with peptic ulcers

A

Patients with a gastric ulcer should have a repeat endoscopy 6-8 weeks after the start of PPI treatment to ensure ulcer healing and rule out malignancy.

Patients with a duodenal ulcer should be asked about adherence and lifestyle factors should be enforced. If symptoms continue, other rarer causes of duodenal ulcers should be considered, such as malignancy, use of ulcer-promoting drugs, missed H. pylori infection, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, or Crohn’s disease.

If these are ruled out, a low-dose PPI can be prescribed.

45
Q

Causes of Vitamin B12 Deficiency

A

Gastric causes – pernicious anaemia, chronic severe atrophic gastritis
Pancreatic – any cause of pancreatic insufficiency
Small bowel bacterial overgrowth (since bacteria utilize vitamin B12), terminal ileal resection, severe terminal ileal disease (i.e. Crohn’s disease)
Tuberculosis
Metformin therapy
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

46
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis

Clinical features

A

Clinical features
Patients commonly present with the following symptoms:

Extreme fatigue
Itching
Dry skin
Dry eyes
Jaundice

Positive Anti-mitochondrial antibodies in >90% of individuals

47
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis

Management

A

Management
Treatment is largely supportive and includes the following:

Ursodeoxycholic acid
Cholestyramine
Vitamin supplements
Liver transplantation (NB: May recur after transplantation)

48
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Clinical features

A
Clinical features
Can be asymptomatic with abnormal LFTs of hepatomegaly
Jaundice
Right upper quadrant pain
Fatigue, weight loss, fevers and sweats.
49
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Diagnosis

A

Deranged LFTs - cholestatic picture
Positive anti-smooth muscle and antinuclear antibodies and myeloperoxidase antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA)
Multiple beaded biliary strictures are seen on magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) or endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP).

50
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Increased cancer risk

A

hepatobiliary cancer (cholangiocarcinoma), w

51
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Management

A

Management
Avoid alcohol
Pruritis can be managed with cholestyramine
Supplement fat soluble vitamines (A,D,E,K)
Strictures can be dilated via ERCP
Liver transplantation may be indicated in cases complicated by chronic liver disease and/or hepatobiliary malignancies.

52
Q

Vitamin B1 deficiency features

A

Patients with thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency typically present with:

Wernicke’s encephalopathy (confusion, ataxia, and ocular abnormalities)
Wet beriberi (high output cardiac failure)
Dry beriberi (peripheral neuropathy)
Risk factors include chronic alcohol use and malabsorption.

Treatment is with intravenous thiamine.

53
Q

Vitamin B3 deficiency (pellagra) features

A

This is more common in underdeveloped countries and countries in which the diet consistent predominantly of corn and maize.

Symptoms can be remembered according to the 3 Ds:

Diarrhoea
Dermatitis
Dementia
Treatment is with nicotinamide (vitamin B3).

54
Q

Treatment for UC - Mild-moderate disease

A

topical aminosalicylate as first-line treatment.
If remission is not achieved within 4 weeks, consider adding an oral aminosalicylate
consider steroids

55
Q

Treatment for UC

Acute severe disease

A

Step 1: IV corticosteroids (if contraindicated or not tolerated, use IV ciclosporin).
Step 2: If no improvement in 72 hours or worsening symptoms, add IV ciclosporin or consider surgery (if IV ciclosporin contraindicated or not tolerated, consider infliximab).
Indications for emergency surgery:
Surgery should be considered in patients with:
Acute fulminant ulcerative colitis
Toxic megacolon who have little improvement after 48-72 hours of intravenous steroids
Symptoms worsening despite intravenous steroids

56
Q

complications for UC

A

short-term/acute complications
Toxic megacolon: this describes a severe form of colitis, and is seen in around 15% of ulcerative colitis patients.
Massive lower gastrointestinal haemorrhage: this occurs in up to 3% of patients.

Long-term complications
Colorectal cancer: this occurs in 3-5% of patients. There is a higher risk with disease duration, severity and extent of colitis, and concomitant primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC).

ICE guidance suggests offering colonoscopy surveillance to high risk patients.

Cholangiocarcinoma: ulcerative colitis approximately doubles the risk of cholangiocarcinoma.
Strictures: these can cause large bowel obstruction.

57
Q

Whipple’s disease

A

Investigations
Whipple’s disease is more common in males. Diagnosis is with a small bowel biopsy, which shows the presence of acid-Schiff (PAS)-positive macrophages, which are seen to contain the causative bacteria on electron microscopy.

Management
Treatment is with a long term course of co-trimoxazole.

58
Q

Brucellosis

A

Brucellosis is caused by the gram-negative, aerobic and intracellular bacillus of Brucella spp.

59
Q

Brucellosis transmission

A

ransmission

In travelers, this is commonly via consumption of untreated milk/dairy (especially unpasteurized) products, as well as raw meat or liver.
Abbatoir workers, meat packers, vets, and hunters can also acquire it through the skin or mucous membrane contact (e.g.conjunctiva from eye splashes, or needlestick injury).
The most common mode of transmission in farmers is via inhalation.
It is very important to inquire about animal exposure and consumption of unpasteurized dairy products in any returning traveler with possible signs/symptoms consistent with brucellosis.

60
Q

Clinical Features of Brucellosis

A

often non-specific, with fever, weight loss, night sweats, lymphadenopathy and joint pain/myalgia or spinal tenderness.
Hepatosplenomegaly occurs in about 1/3 of patients, and patients often look pale and unwell on presentation.

fevers that are classically remittent (temperature remains normal throughout the day and fluctuates more than 1 degree over 24 hours).

61
Q

Brucellosis Complications

A

Complications

Endocarditis
Sacroiliitis or osteomyelitis
Epididymo-orchitis
ITP
CNS involvement: spinal syndromes, peripheral neuropathy, cerebellar ataxia.
Abscess formation, usually hepatic
62
Q

Brucellosis investigation and management

A

Investigations

Gold standard: blood cultures with the isolation of Brucella spp using Casteneda’s medium
Antibody testing if culture not possible (particularly towards O-polysaccharide).
Raised serum brucella agglutinins or Rose Bengal Test - need additional confirmatory testing in addition to this.
CSF culture or PCR
MRI scanning for brucellar spondylodiscitis
Liver or bone marrow biopsy in certain cases.
Management

Treat with Doxycyclin, Rifampicin and Gentamicin (or just Doxycyclin and Gentamicin)
Prevention depends on public health measures and control of infection in animals via vaccination and surveillance.

63
Q

Cellulitis

risk factors

A

Advancing age
Immunocompromised e.g. diabetic
Predisposing skin condition e.g. ulcers, pressure sores, trauma, lymphoedema

64
Q

Erysipelas refers to infection of the dermis and upper subcutaneous tissue

A

Erysipelas Clinical Features

Borders are sharply defined and affected skin is raised, swollen, firm, erythematous and pruritic.
Commonly affects the lower limbs. If face involved can have ‘butterfly’ distribution over the cheeks and the bridge of the nose.
Almost all are caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci (unlike cellulitis).
If face affected, this source of infection is usually the nasopharynx (possibly recent nasopharyngeal infection).

65
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis Definition

A

An antibiotic-associated colitis caused by C difficile.

66
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis risk factors

A
ntibiotics most commonly associated include quinolones (ciprofloxacin), macrolides (clarithromycin), clindamycin and cephalosporins.
Other risk factors:
Prolonged courses
Multiple antibiotics
Immunocompromise
Use of PPIs
Increasing age
Severe comorbidity
67
Q

Investigations for Pseudomembranous colitis

and management

A

Investigations for Pseudomembranous colitis

Plan abdominal Xray and CT can be useful in severe disease, for detecting perforation or toxic megacolon.
Avoid barium enemas.
Management of Pseudomembranous colitis

Rx: stop causative antibiotic. Supportive + oral metronidazole (oral vancomycin if not effective).
Consider surgical intervention if any complications occur

68
Q

Differentials for Cavitating Lung Lesions

A
Infective
Bacterial: S. aureus, TB, Klebsiella, S. pneumoniae
Fungal: histoplasmosis, coccidiomycosis, candida (not aspergillomas, as these grow in pre-formed cavities)
Malignancy
Primary
Secondary
Rheumatological
Vasculitis: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Rheumatoid nodules
Other:
Sarcoidosis
Pulmonary embolism
69
Q

Incubation Periods of Common Infections

A

<1 week: Meningococcus, Diphtheria, Influenza, Scarlet Fever

1-2 weeks: Malaria, Dengue Fever, Typhoid, Measles.

2-3 weeks: Mumps, Rubella, Chickenpox

> 3 weeks: Infectious mononucleosis, CMV, Viral Hepatitis, HIV

70
Q

Campylobacter jejuni type of bacteria

A

Most common cause of food poisoning in the UK.
Gram-negative rods with characteristic ‘seagull’ shape, which release enterotoxin in the gut and also invades the mucosa.
Incubation period of 16-48 hours, with chicken being a common source (classically during summer BBQs!).
Vomiting is rare
Can cause bloody diarrhoea

71
Q

Salmonella enteritidis/typhimurium

A

Second most common cause of food poisoning in the UK.
Gram-negative bacteria that multiply locally in the small and large intestines, invade the mucosa and cause inflammation.
Incubation period of 16-48 hours, with common sources being eggs and foods contaminated on kitchen preparation surfaces

72
Q

Bacillus cereus

A

Gram-positive rods that produce 2 toxins, an emetic pre-formed enterotoxin that is absorbed into the blood-stream from the stomach, and a diarrhoea-causing enterotoxin that acts on receptors in the small intestine and large bowel.
Symptoms start 30 minutes to 6 hours after eating contaminated food (due to the pre-formed toxin), and profuse vomiting is a common feature. Fever is usually absent.
Rice is a common source, as it provides the carbohydrate for the bacteria to produce the toxins.
These are heat stable, so when the rice is reheated they remain active

73
Q

Leprosy

A

Leprosy manifests in a number of different ways due to a range of factors, most important being host immunology and bacterial virulence/initial infectious load.
At one end of the spectrum is disseminated lepromatous/ multibacillary leprosy;
Where the host immune system cannot contain the bacteria and it becomes widely disseminated
Causes peripheral nerve inflammation and damage, as well as dermatological lesions including nodules, hypoesthetic patches and the development of ‘leonine’-like facial appearance.
Nerve thickening may be felt on palpation, with the most commonly affected nerves being the ulnar, median, radial cutaneous, greater auricular, common peroneal and posterior tibial nerves.
At the other end of the spectrum is tuberculoid/paucibacillary leprosy;
Where the immune system is able to control the infection and a milder form of nerve damage and dermatological manifestations occur.
The nerve damage in all forms can lead to contractures, ulceration and deformity in the long term.

74
Q

Leprosy Treatment

A

Treatment of multibacillary leprosy involves the use of dapsone, rifampicin and clofazimine (an immunosuppressive agent, not needed in paucibacillary disease) for 12-24 months.
Thalidomide is another treatment option for non-pregnant individuals.
Patients commenced on medications need to be monitored closely throughout the course of treatment for immunological complications known as type I and II (erythema nodosum lepromum) reactions, which require hospital in-patient treatment.
Side-effects of dapsone include methaemoglobinaemia, agranulocytosis, Stevens-Johnson Syndrome and the DRESS syndrome, and it can also trigger a haemolytic crisis is G6PD deficiency.
Clofozamine can cause abnormal skin pigmentation.

75
Q

Mumps

A

Paramyxovirus.

1) Parotitis:
The parotid glands are almost always affected, usually bilaterally (though can be unilateral). Swelling can be severe enough to prevent the mouth from being opened and usually lasts 3-4 days. Prior to parotitis, there may be flu-like symptoms such as headache, malaise and myalgia.

2) Orchitis: Epididymo-orchitis is the second most common extra-salivary symptom of Mumps, which presents as severely painful swelling of one or both testicles and/or backache. It usually develops 4-5 days after onset of parotitis. 7% of post-pubertal females get oophoritis, with rare cases of infertility and premature menopause as a result.

3) Aseptic meningitis:
A relatively common complication in 4-25% of cases. Usually mild and self-limiting

4) Encephalitis:
Rare complication presenting as headache, vomiting, seizures, unconsciousness.

5) Deafness:
A rare cause of acute or insidious sensorineural hearing loss (usually unilateral) in children.

6) Other: Pancreatitis, nephritis, arthritis, thyroiditis, pericarditis.

76
Q

Pseudomonas

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative rod that is an important cause of infections in immunocompromised or severely ill patients.

77
Q

Antibiotics which are effective against Pseudomonas:

A
Ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin (but not moxifloxacin) - note, this is the only oral anti-pseudomonal
Tazocin
Ceftazidime
Meropenem
Gentamicin
78
Q

Pyrexia of Unknown Origin

Causes

A

Causes

Abscesses - particularly liver, lung and kidney
Bacterial infections - Infective endocarditis, brucellosis, typhus, Lyme disease
Parasitic and fungal infections - malaria, schistosomiasis
Malignancy - particularly Hodgkin’s lymphoma, renal hydronephromas and some other solid organ tumours
Drug reactions - often accompanied with eosinophilia
Connective tissue disorders - SLE, vasculitides, Kawasaki’s etc
Thromboembolic disease
Autoimmune inflammatory syndromes - such as FMF, TRAPs and hyper Ig-D syndrome
Cause not identified (20%)

79
Q

Schistosomiasis features

A

‘Swimmer’s itch’ after cercariae penetration of the dermis.

‘Katayama fever’: d

80
Q

Schistosomiasis diagnosis and management

A

Diagnosis

Identification of eggs on microscopic examination of urine or stool.
Serology if within 2 months of exposure, as eggs may not be detected this early
Histopathological analysis of affected tissue, not often used.
Management

Praziquantel is the drug of choice.
Kills adults but not the eggs or migrating schistosomula
Hence needs to be given again 2-3 months after exposure to allow for the development of the worms.
Steroids are needed in acute Katayama Fever to suppress hypersensitivity reaction.

81
Q

Problem gram +ve organisms:

MRSA: resistant to flucloxacillin
Coagulase -ve Staph: commonly cause infection of hospital lines and prostheses. Most are resistant to flucloxacillin.
VRE: Vancomycin resistent enterococci (most also resistant to amoxicillin), including E. faecalis and E. faecium. Normal flora of the gut, but often colonize diabetic ulcers and sacral sores, as well as causing infections in immunocompromised patients (particularly meningitis, septicemia, wound infections and endocarditis).

A

Treatment options for problem gram +ves:

1st line - Glycopeptides: vancomycin (but not for VRE or VRSA) or Teicoplanin. Narrow spectrum agents, only available IV and cannot penetrate blood-brain barrier as they are large molecules. Vancomycin is nephrotoxic so levels need to be measured.

For VRE - treat with oxazolidinone e.g. linezolid. Narrow spectrum gram-positive agent with excellent penetration into skin and brain. However, can cause bone marrow suppression, peripheral neuropathy and optic neuritis.

Other options: Tazocin, daptomycin, tigecycline.

82
Q

antibiotic - Exacerbations of chronic bronchitis

A

Amoxicillin or tetracycline or clarithromycin

83
Q

antibiotic. - Uncomplicated community-acquired pneumonia

A

Amoxicillin (Doxycycline or clarithromycin in penicillin allergic, add flucloxacillin if staphylococci suspected e.g. In influenza)

84
Q

antibiotic - Pneumonia possibly caused by atypical pathogens

A

Clarithromycin

85
Q

antibiotic- Hospital-acquired pneumonia

A

Within 5 days of admission: co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime
More than 5 days after admission: piperacillin with tazobactam OR a broad-spectrum cephalosporin (e.g. ceftazidime) OR a quinolone (e.g. ciprofloxacin)

86
Q

antibiotic-Lower urinary tract infection

A

Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin. Alternative: amoxicillin or cephalosporin

87
Q

antibiotic - Acute pyelonephritis

A

Broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone

88
Q

antibiotic Clostridium difficile

A

First episode: metronidazole

Second or subsequent episode of infection: vancomycin

89
Q

antibiotic for Campylobacter enteritis, salmoella and shigellosis

A

Campylobacter enteritis Clarithromycin
Salmonella (non-typhoid) Ciprofloxacin
Shigellosis Ciprofloxacin

90
Q

antibiotic for Gonorrhoeaq

A

Intramuscular ceftriaxone

91
Q

antibiotic for Chlamydia

A

Doxycycline or azithromycin

92
Q

antibiotic for Pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Oral ofloxacin + oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone + oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole

93
Q

antibiotic for Syphilis

A

Benzathine benzylpenicillin or doxycycline or erythromycin

94
Q

antibiotic for Bacterial vaginosis

A

Oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin

95
Q

antibiotic for Throat infections

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin (erythromycin alone if penicillin-allergic)

96
Q

antibiotic for Sinusitis

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

97
Q

antibiotic for Otitis media

A

Otitis media Amoxicillin (erythromycin if penicillin-allergic)

98
Q

antibiotic for Otitis externa**

A

Otitis externa** Flucloxacillin (erythromycin if penicillin-allergic)

99
Q

antibiotic for Periapical or periodontal abscess

A

Periapical or periodontal abscess Amoxicillin

100
Q

antibiotic for Gingivitis: acute necrotising ulcerative

A

Gingivitis: acute necrotising ulcerative Metronidazole