GASTRO Flashcards

1
Q

Which causes caustic ingestion more often? Alkali or acid substance

A

Alkali

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2
Q

Glucocorticoids si recommended in the treatment of corrosive esophagitis: true or false

A

false

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3
Q

Most common location for pill to lodge?

A

mid-esophagus, nearing the crossing of the aorta or carina

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4
Q

Typical symptom of Pill-induced esophagitis

A

sudden onset of chest pain and odynophagia developing over hours or awaken patient from sleep

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5
Q

Manifestation of scleroderma esophagus

A

hypotensive LES adn absent esophageal peristalsis

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6
Q

The pre-epithelial barrier of the mucosal defense of the stomach is composed of (2):

A

Mucous gel

Bicarbonate

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7
Q

Bicarbonate is secreted into the mucous gel of the stomach by the epithelial cells to maintain a pH gradient of

A

pH 6-7

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8
Q

Migration of the gastric epithelial cells to restore a damaged region following breach of the preepithelial barrier

A

restitution

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9
Q

Play a central role in gastric epithelial defense/repair by regulating release of mucosal HCO3 and mucus, inhibit parietal cell secretion, and maintains mucosal blood flow and epithelial cell restitution

A

Prostaglandin

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10
Q

2 prinicipal gastric secretory products capable of inducing mucosal injury

A

HCl

Pepsinogen

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11
Q

Which occurs later in life? gastric ulcer or duodenal ulcer?

A

Gastric ulcer

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12
Q

95% of duodenal ulcers are located in the:

A

1st portion of duodenum,

90% is located within 3 cm from the pylorus

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13
Q

Type of gastric ulcer that is located in the gastric body, tend to be associated with low gastric acid production

A

Type I

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14
Q

Type of gastric ulcer that occr in the antrum; gastric acid can vary from low to normal

A

Type II

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15
Q

Type of gastric ulcer that occur within 3 cm from the pylorus, commonly accompanied by DUs, normal or inc gastric acid production

A

Type III

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16
Q

Type of gastric ulcer that is found in the cardia, with low gastric acid production

A

Type IV

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17
Q

Description of H. pylori

A

Gram negative, microaerophilic rod

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18
Q

At what part of the stomach does the H. pylori typically resides?

A

Antrum

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19
Q

Dormant form of H. pylori that facilitates survival in adverse conditions

A

Coccoid form

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20
Q

Factors that are essential deteminants of H-pylori-mediated pathogenesis and colonization (3):

A
  1. outer membrane protein (Hop protein)
  2. urease
  3. vacuolating cytotoxin (Vac A)
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21
Q

First step in infection by H. pylori is dependent on (2):

A
  1. bacteria’s mobility

2. ability to produce urease

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22
Q

In the developing countries, how many percent of the population may be infected with H. pylori by age 20? How about in industrialized countries?

A

developing countries - 80%

industrialized countries - 20-50%

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23
Q

2 factors that predispose to higher colonization rates of H. pylori.

A
  1. poor socioeconomic status

2. less education

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24
Q

Risk factors for H. pylori infection (5):

A
  1. Birth or residence in a developin country
  2. Domestic crowding
  3. Unsanitary living conditions
  4. Unclean food or water
  5. exposure to gastric contents of an infected individual
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25
Q

Lipopolysaccharide of this organism has low immunologic activity compared to that of in other organisms

A

H. pylori

may promote a smoldering chronic inflammation

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26
Q

Antral-predominant gastritis is seen in: DU vs GU

A

DUs

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27
Q

Corpus-dominant gastritis is seen in: GU vs DU

A

GU

also in gastric atrophy and gastric carcinoma

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28
Q

How many percent of serious NSAID-related PUD complication is not preceeded with dyspepsia?

A

> 80%

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29
Q

Pathophysiology of NSAID-inducecd ulcer?

A

Interruption of prostaglandin synthesis impairing mucosal defense and repai

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30
Q

Blood groip that has increased susceptibility to H. pylori infection?

A

Blood group O

H. pylori preferentiaally binds to group O anyigen

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31
Q

Abdominal pain occurs 90 min to 3 hours after meal. DU vs GU

A

DU

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32
Q

Frequently relieved by food or antacids: DU vs GU

A

DU

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33
Q

Most discriminating symptom of DU

A

Pain that wakes up patient from sleep

seen in 2/3 of DU, and 1/3 in NUD

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34
Q

Pain is precipitated by food. GU vs DU

A

GU

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35
Q

Nausea and weight loss is most common. GU vs DU

A

GU

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36
Q

When do you suspect that ulcer penetrated the pancreas?

A

dyspepsia becomes constant, NOT relieved by food or antacids, and radiates to the back

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37
Q

Ulcer complication characterized by sudden onset of severe generalized abdominal pain

A

Perforation

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38
Q

Ulcer complication characterized by worsening of pain with meals, nasuea, and vomiting of undigested food

A

Gastric outlet obstruction

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39
Q

Most frequent PE finding in PUD but with low predictive value

A

epigastric tenderness

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40
Q

PE finding of severely tender, board-like abdomen in PUD patients indicates

A

perforation

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41
Q

PE finding of succussion splash in PUD patients indicate

A

Gastric outlet obstruction

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42
Q

Most common complication of PUD

A

Bleeding

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43
Q

30-day mortality rate of GI bleeding

A

2.5-10%

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44
Q

80% of the mortality in PUD-related bleeding is due to nonbleeding causes, most commonly (3):

A
multiorgan failure (24%)
Pulonary complication (24%)
Malignancy (34%)
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45
Q

2nd most common complication of PUD

A

perforation

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46
Q

30-day mortality rate of PUD perforation

A

> 20%

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47
Q

Form of perforation in which the ulcer bed tunnels into an adjacent organ

A

penetration

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48
Q

Duodenal ulcer penetrates most commonly in:

A

pancreas, causing pancreatitis

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49
Q

Gastric ulcer penetrates most commonly in:

A

left hepatic lobes

may also cause gastrocolic fistulas

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50
Q

Least common PUD complication

A

gastric outlet obstruction

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51
Q

2 subcategories of functional dyspepsia:

A

Postprandial distress syndrome

Epigastric pain syndrome

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52
Q

In what subset of patients with PUD will you test for H. pylori and give antibiotic therapy before any diagnostic evaluation?

A

in otherwise healthy patients and < 45 y.o

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53
Q

Most sensitive and specific examination of the upper GIT

A

Endoscopy

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54
Q

Biopsy urease test has a sensitivity and specificity of:

A

> 90-95%

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55
Q

Mainstay of treatment of PUD (2):

A

Eradication of H. pylori

Therapy/prevention of NSAID-induced disease

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56
Q

Give 3 examples of antacids:

A

AlMg
Calcium carbonate
Sodium bicarbonate

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57
Q

Antacid that has a side effect of milk-alkali syndrome

A

calcium carbonate

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58
Q

Give the 4 H2-receptor antagonists:

A

Cimetidine
Ranitidine
Famotidine
Nizatidine

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59
Q

Inhibit the basal and stimulated acid secretion

A

H2-receptor antagonists

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60
Q

Gynecomastia and impotence are adverse effects of this drug used for treatment of PUD:

A

Cimetidine

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61
Q

Mode of action of PPI

A

Irreversibly inhibit the H,K-ATPase thus inhibiting all phases of gastric acid secretion

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62
Q

Most potent acid inhibitory agents

A

PPI

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63
Q

Repeated daily dosing of PPI leads to _____, with basal and secretagogue-stimulated acid production being inhibted by ______ after _______ of therapy

A

progressive acid inhibition
>95%
1 week of therapy

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64
Q

Anemia that is a side effecr of PPI

A

Vitamin B12-deficiency anemia (due to inhibition of IF production (uncommon)

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65
Q

Adverse effect of PPI that will interfere the absorption of certain drugs

A

Hypochlorydia

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66
Q

PPI that inhibit hepatic CYP450 (2):

A

Omeprazole
Lanzoprazole

Not with newer PPIs

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67
Q

Drug that is converted to a viscous paste within stomach and duodenum and bound to active ulcers

A

Sucralfate

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68
Q

Most common side effect of sucralfate

A

constipation

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69
Q

adverse effects of short-term use of bismuth=-containing preperations (3):

A

black stools
constipation
darkening of tongue

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70
Q

Adverse effect of long-term use of bismuth-containing preparations

A

neurotoxicity

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71
Q

Prostaglandin analogue that is used as cytoprotective agents as treatment of PUD

A

Misoprostol

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72
Q

Most common adverse effect of prostaglandin analogue

A

diarrhea

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73
Q

Greatest influence of H. pylori therapy in the management of PUD

A

prevent recurrence of PUD

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74
Q

According to teh American College of Gastoenterology clinical guidelines, the indications for testing and treating H. pyllori are (4):

A
  1. Inidviduals aged < 60 with uninvestigated dyspepsia
  2. with prior history of PUD ad will be given an NSAID
  3. Undergone resection of early gastric cancer
  4. Unexplained IDA and ITP
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75
Q

In H. pylori treatment, aim an initial eradication rate of :

A

85-90%

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76
Q

First effective triple regimen fo H. pylori

A

Bismuth + metronidazole + tetracycline

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77
Q

Salvage therapies for treatment of patients with failure of H. pylori eradication with triple thearpy (4)

A
  1. Quadruple therapy (PPI, Bismuth, tetracycline, metronidazole or clarithromycin) for 14 days
  2. PPI + amoxicillin + rifabutin for 10 days
  3. Levofloxacin + amoxicillin + PPI for 10 days
  4. Furazolidone + amoxicillin + PPI for 14 days
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78
Q

Usually used triple therapy for H. pylori eradication:

A

PPI BID
Clarithromyci 500 mg BID
Amoxicillin 1g BID or Metronidazole 500 mg TID

for 14 days

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79
Q

If there is still failure of eradication of H. pylori even with salvage therapy, what is your next step?

A

Do culture and sensitivity

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80
Q

For patients with dyspepsia, if teh non-invasive H. pylori testing revealed negative, how will you treat the patient?

A

empiric treatment with H2 blocker or refer to gastroenterologist

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81
Q

How will you confirm eradication of H. pylori?

A

Urea breath test

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82
Q

If gastric ulcer biopsy is negative, what diagnostic procedure will you do next? Include rationale

A

repeat endoscopy at 8-12 weeks after to document healing. if still with ulcer, do repeat biopsy

70% of GUs are eventually found malignant

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83
Q

Refractory ulcer is GU that fails to heal after _____ and a DU that does not heal after _____ of therapy

A

12 weeks

8 weeks

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84
Q

Tests you should do to exclude ZES (2):

A

fasting gastrin

secretin stimulation test

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85
Q

90% of refractory ulcer heal after this treatment (include duration)

A

high dose PPI for 8 weeks

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86
Q

Necessary component for surgical operations for duodenal ulcer

A

vagotomy

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87
Q

Truncal or selective vagotomy preserve these branches

A

celiac and hepatic branches

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88
Q

Type of vagotomy that has higher ulcer recurrence but with lowest overall complication rates

A

Highly selective vagotomy

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89
Q

Type of procedure that has lowest rates of ulcer recurrence but has the highest complication rate

A

vagotomy + antrectomy

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90
Q

Gastroduidenostomy is a reanoastomoses post-antrecctomy that is also known as

A

Billroth I

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91
Q

Gastrojejunostomy is a reanoastomoses post-antrecctomy that is also known as

A

Billroth II

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92
Q

Surgical procedure for antral ulcer

A

antrectomy (including the ulcer) with a Billroth I anastomosis

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93
Q

Surgical procedure for ulcer located at the esophagogastric junction

A

subtotal gastrectomy with Roux-en-Y esophagogastrojejunostomy (Csende’s procedure

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94
Q

Ulcers developing at the site of anastomosis after partial gastric resection

A

stomal or marginal ulcer

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95
Q

Most frequent presenting complaint of recurent ulcer

A

epigastric abdominal pain, with severity and duration more progressive than observed with pre-surgical DUs

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96
Q

Medical therapy for postoperative ulceration

A

H2-receptor antagonists (effective in 70-90% of patients)

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97
Q

Afferrent Loop Syndrome is associated with what type of anastomosis?

A

Billroth II

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98
Q

2 types of afferent loop syndrome

A
  1. bacterial overgrowth in the afferent limb secondary to stasis (most common)
  2. severe abdopminal pain and loating
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99
Q

What type of post-op complication causes post=prandial abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea with malabsorption of fats and vitamin B12

A

afferent loop syndrome

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100
Q

What post op complication causes severe abdominal pain and bloating 20-60 min after meals, often followed by nausea and vomiting of bile-containing material, with improvemnt of symptoms after emesis?

A

afferent loop syndrome

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101
Q

Causes series of vasomotor and GI signs and symptoms and occurs in patients who have undergone vagotomy and drainage?

A

Dumping syndrome

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102
Q

Early dumping opccurs how many minutes after meals?

A

15-30 mins

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103
Q

Late dumping syndrome occurs how many minutes after meals?

A

90 min to 3h

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104
Q

Post-op complication manifested as crampy abdominal discomfort, nausea, diarrhea, belching, tachycardia, palpitations, diaphoresis, light headedness, and rarely syncope?

A

Early dumping syndrome

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105
Q

Post-op compl;ication that is causd by rapid emptying of hyperosmolar gastric contents into the smalal intestine causing fluid shift into the gut lumen with plasma volume contraction and acute intestinal; distention and release of vasoactive GI hormones

A

Early dumping syndrome

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106
Q

Post-op complication that is predominated by vasomotor symoptoms such as ;light-headedness, diaphoresis, palpitations, tachycardia, syncope.

A

Late dumping syndrome

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107
Q

What is the mechanism of the late dumping syndrome?

A

hypoglycemia from excessive insulin release

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108
Q

What precipitates dumping syndrome? (3)

A
  1. meals ricjh in simple carbohydrates
  2. high osmolarity
  3. large fluids
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109
Q

Cornerstone therapy for dumping syndrome

A

dietary modification

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110
Q

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that may be beneficial in late phase of dumping

A

Acarbose

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111
Q

Dietary modification for dumping syndrome

A

small, multiple (6) meals free of simple carbohydrates + NO liquid during meals

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112
Q

Post-vagotomy diarrhea most commonly follows what type of procedure?

A

truncal vagotomy

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113
Q

Post-op complication causing intermittent diarrhea occuring 1-2 h after meals

A

Post-vagotomy diarrhea

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114
Q

Treatment of post-vagotomy dirrhea (3)

A

Diphenoxylate or loperamide for symptom control
cholestyramine for severe cases
surgical reversal of a 10-cm segment of jejunum

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115
Q

Complication post-partial astrectomy with abdominal pain, early satiety, nausea, vomiting with only mucosal erythema of the gastric remnant

A

Bile reflux gasrtopathy

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116
Q

treatment of bile reflux gastropatrhy (3)

A

prokinetic agents
cholestyramine
sucralfate

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117
Q

This type of cancer increases in incidence in gastric stump 15 years after rsection, 4-5x increase risk 20-25 years post-resecryion

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma

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118
Q

Gastric acid hypersecretion due to unregulated gastrin release from a non-beta cell well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumor that is curable by surgical resection in ~40% of patients

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

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119
Q

ZES is associated with what type of neuroendocrine tumor?

A

Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I

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120
Q

Hypergastrinemia with gastrin-stimulated acid hypersecretion and histamine release

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

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121
Q

Gastrinoma triangel is composed of:

A
  1. confluence of systic and common bile duct
  2. junction of 2nd and 3rd portions of the duodenum
  3. junction of the neck and body of the pancreas
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122
Q

Most common non-pancreatic lesion in ZES

A

duodenal tumors (50-75% of gastrinomas)

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123
Q

Most common clinical manifestation of ZES

A

PUD

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124
Q

2nd most common clinical manifestation of ZES

A

Diarrhea

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125
Q

3 involved organs in MEN I syndrome

A
  1. parathyroid
  2. pancreas
  3. pituitary
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126
Q

First diagnostic step for evaluation of ZES

A

obtain a fasting gastrin level

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127
Q

Prior to serum gastrin levels, when should you stop PPI, H2-receptor antagonist and antacids prior to testing?

A

PPI - 7 days prior
H2-receptor antagonist - 24 hrs prior
Antacids - 12 hours prior

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128
Q

During endoscopy pH measurement, what pH suggests gastrinoma?

A

pH < 3

for pH > 3, need a formal gastric acid analysis

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129
Q

In the presence of hypergastrinemia, what level of BAO is considered pathognomonic for ZES?

A

> 15 mEq/h

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130
Q

BAO/MAO ratio that is highly suggestive of ZES

A

> 0.6

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131
Q

Test that is used to differentuate between the causes of hypergastribnemia and useful in patients with indeterminate acid secretory studies

A

Gastrin provocative tests

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132
Q

Most sensitive and specific provocative tests for diagnosis of gastrinoma

A

Secretin stimulation test

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133
Q

Secretin stimulation test result that is suggestive of ZES

A

Gastrin of >/= 120 pg within 15 min of secretin injection

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134
Q

When should you stop PPI prior to a secretin stimulation test?

A

1 week before

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135
Q

2 gstrin provicative tests

A
  1. secretin stimulation test

2. calcium infusion study

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136
Q

Functional imaging study of choice for ZES tumor localization

A

PET-CT with Ga-DOTATATE (if available)

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137
Q

Goals for treatment of ZES (3):

A
  1. ameliorate signs and symptoms related to hormone overproduction
  2. curative resection of the neoplasm
  3. control tumor growth in metastatic disease
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138
Q

Treatment of choice for ZES

A

High dose PPI

Omeprazole or lanzoprazole 60 mg in divided doses in 24-h

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139
Q

Treatment of ZES that inhibits effects of gastrin release from receptor-bearing tumors and inhibits gastric acidsecretion to some extent

A

Octreotide

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140
Q

Adjunct to PPI in the treatment of ZES

A

Octreotide

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141
Q

Definitive cure for ZES

A

Surgery

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142
Q

When do yopu treat patients wioth metastatic gastrinoma?

A

therapy may be delayed until with evidence of tumor progression or refractory symptoms with PPI

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143
Q

Favorable prognostic indicators for ZES (4):

A
  1. Primary duodenal wall tumors
  2. Isolated lymph node tumor
  3. Undetectable tumor upon surgical exploration
  4. Presence of MEN 1
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144
Q

Poor outcome indicators for ZES (6):

A
  1. shorter disease duration
  2. higher gastrin levels (>10,000 pg/mL)
  3. large pancreatic primary tumor (>3 cm)
  4. metastatic fisease (to lymph node, liver, bone)
  5. Cushing’s syndrome
  6. rapid growth of hepatic metastases
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145
Q

Acute erosive gastric mucosal changes or frank ulceration with bleeding in patients suffering from shock, sepsis, massive burns, severe trauma, head injury

A

Stress-imduced gastritis or ulcers

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146
Q

Usual location of stress-induced gastritis or ulcers

A

fundus and body - acid-producing portions of the stomach

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147
Q

UGIB occur at what hour after acute injury or insult in stress-induced gastritis or ulcer?

A

48-72 hours

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148
Q

Ulcer that occur after head trauma

A

Cushing’s ulcer

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149
Q

Ulcer that occur after severe burns

A

Curling’s ulcer

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150
Q

Mortality rate of UGIB due to stress ulcer if with clinically important GI bleeding

A

> 40%

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151
Q

Preventive measure for stress ulcer is only given for patients who are high-risk such as with (4)

A
  1. mechanical ventilation
  2. coagulopathy
  3. multiorgan failure
  4. severe burns
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152
Q

Prophylaxis of choice for stress ulcer

A

PPIs

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153
Q

Most common cause of acute gastritis

A

infection

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154
Q

Rare, potentially life-threatening disorder caused by bacterial infection of the stomach

A

phlegmonous gastritis

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155
Q

High risk groups for phlegmonous gastritis (3)

A
  1. elderly
  2. alcoholics
  3. AIDS
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156
Q

Type of chronic gastritis with inflammatory changes limited to lamina propria of the surface mucosa

A

Superficial gastritis

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157
Q

Type of chronic gastritis where inflammatory infiltrate extends deeper into the mucosa, progressive distortion and destruction of the glands

A

Atrophic gastritis

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158
Q

Final stage of chronic gastritis with loss of glandular structures, paucity of inflammation, thinned-out mcuosa

A

Gastric atrophy

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159
Q

Morphologic transformation of gastric glands in gastric atrophy

A

intestinal metaplasia

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160
Q

type of chronic gastritis that is an important predisposing factor for gastric cancer

A

gastric atrophy

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161
Q

type of chronic gastritis that is predominantly involve the fundus and body with antral sparing

A

Type A gastritis

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162
Q

Autoimmune gastritis is what type

A

Type A gastritsi

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163
Q

Type of gastritis that is traditionally associated with pernicious anemia in the presence of circulating antibodies against parietal cells and IF

A

Type A gastritis or autoimmune gastritis

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164
Q

2 types of antibodies presnt in autoimmune gastritis and what is more specific?

A

anti-IF antibodies - more specific

Parietal cell antibodies

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165
Q

Associated diseases in type A gastritis (2):

A

Addison’s

Vitiligo

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166
Q

More common form of chronic gastritis (based on involvement)

A

Type B gastritis

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167
Q

Type of chronic gastritis that commonly involve the antrum

A

tyep B gastritis

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168
Q

Type of chronic gastritis that is caused by H. pylori infection

A

Type B gastritis

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169
Q

Type of chronic gastritis that convert to pan-gastritis

A

Type B gastritis

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170
Q

H. pylori infection can lead to cancer. Give 2 example

A

gastric cancer

MALT lymphoma

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171
Q

If chronic gastritis has signs of intestinal metaplasia, how often will you do surveillance endosccopy?

A

every 3 years

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172
Q

Treatment for eosinophilic gastritis

A

glucocorticoids

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173
Q

Gastritis that is associated with several systemic disease and Crohn’s diseae

A

Granulomatous gastritis

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174
Q

Rare disease characterized by large tortous gastric mucosal folds with male predominance

A

Menetrier’s disease

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175
Q

Menetrier’s disease commonly involves mucosal folds of:

A

body and fundus, with antral sparing

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176
Q

Pathology of this disease is massive foveolar hyperplasia replcing most of the chief and parietal cells, and is not considered as gastritis

A

Menetrier’s disease

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177
Q

Etiology of Menetrier’s disease

A

unknown in adults, CMV in children

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178
Q

First-line therapy for Menetrier’s disease

A

Cetuximab or anti-EGFR

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179
Q

Surgical procedure for menetrier’s disease

A

total gastrectomy

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180
Q

Age of onset oof UC and CD

A

2nd to 4th decade and 7th to 9th decade

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181
Q

UC vs CD: smoking prevents disease

A

UC

Causes disease in CD

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182
Q

UC vs CD: Oral contraceptive increase risk of disease

A

Crohn’s disease

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183
Q

UC vs CD: Appendectomy is protective

A

UC

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184
Q

UC vs CD: Vitamin D supplementation hasprotective effect

A

CD

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185
Q

If a apatient has IBD the lifetime risk that a first-degree relative will be affected is ___

A

~10%

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186
Q

Most common CD phenotype in East Asia

A

Ileocolonic CD

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187
Q

X-linked recessive disorder that is associated with colitis, immunodeficiency, severely dysfunctional platelets, and thrombocytopenia

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

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188
Q

Severe, refractory IBD that is caused by deficient IL-10 and IL-10 receptor function

A

Early-onset IBD

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189
Q

A state of commensal microbiota inpatients with both UC and CD

A

Dysbiosis - presence of microorganism that drive disease to which the immune response is directed and/or loss of microorganisms that hinder inflammation

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190
Q

UC vs CD: Usually involves the rectum

A

UC

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191
Q

In UC, ____ of patients have disease limited to the rectum and rectosigmoid, ____have disease extending beyond thesigmoid but not involving the whole colon, and ____ have total colitis

A

40-50%
30-40%
20%

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192
Q

UCvs CD: mucosa is erythematous and has a fine annualr surface that resembles sandpaper

A

mild UC

in severe diseae, hemorrhagic, edematous, adn ulcerated

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193
Q

UC vs CD: complications are tpoxic colitis or megacolon, and perforation

A

UC

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194
Q

UC vs CD: The process is limited to the mucosa and superficial submucosa, with deeper layers unaffected except in fulminant disease

A

UC

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195
Q

UC vs CD: the neutrophils invade the epithelium, usually in the crypts, giving rise to cryptitis and, ultimately, to crypt abscesses

A

UC

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196
Q

In CD, ____ of patients have small bowel disease alone, ____ have disease involving both the small and large intestines, and ___ have colitis alone

A

30-40%
40-55%
15-25%

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197
Q

IN the 75% of patients with small intestinal CD, 90& involve the

A

terminal ileum

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198
Q

UC vs CD: rectum is usually spared

A

CD

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199
Q

UC vs CD: segmental with skip areas

A

CD

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200
Q

UC vs CD: rarely involve the liver and pancreas

A

CD

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201
Q

UC vs CD: transmural process

A

CD

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202
Q

UC vs CD: endoscopically, apthous or small superficial ulcerations characterize mild disease

A

CD

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203
Q

UC vs CD: in more active disease, stellate ulcerations fuse longitudinally and transversely to demarcate islands of mucosa that frequently are hstologically normal resulting to cobblestone appearance

A

CD

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204
Q

UC vs CD: focal inflammation and formation of fistula tracts occur

A

CD

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205
Q

UC vs CD; Granulomas are characteristic feature

A

CD

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206
Q

Major symptoms of UC (5):

A
diarrhea
rectal bleeding
tenesmus
passage of mucus
crampy abdominal pain
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207
Q

Diarrhea in UC is often

A

nocturnal and postprandial

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208
Q

Specific marker for dtecting iintestinal inflammation

A

fecal lactoferrin

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209
Q

Marker that dtects relpse of IBD and detect pouchitis

A

Fecal calprotectin

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210
Q

Differentiate mild, moderate adn severe UC in terms of: Bowel movement

A

Mild: < 4/day
Moderate: 4-6/day
Severe: > 6 per day

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211
Q

Differentiate mild, moderate adn severe UC in terms of: blood in stool

A

Mild: small
Moderate: moderate
Svere: severe

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212
Q

Differentiate mild, moderate adn severe UC in terms of: fever

A

mild: none
moderate: <37.5
severe: >37.5

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213
Q

Differentiate mild, moderate adn severe UC in terms of: tachycardia

A

mild: none
moderate: <90
severe: >90

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214
Q

Differentiate mild, moderate adn severe UC in terms of: anemia

A

mild: mild
Moderate: > 75% of normal Hgb
Severe: <75% of normal Hgb

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215
Q

Differentiate mild, moderate adn severe UC in terms of: ESR

A

Mild: <30 mm
Severe: > 30mm

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216
Q

Differentiate mild, moderate adn severe UC in terms of: endoscopic appeaance

A

Mild: erythema, decreased vascular pattern fine granularity
Moderate: marked erythema, coarse granularity, absent vascular markings, contact bleeding, no ulcerations
Severe: spontaneous bleeding, ulcerations

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217
Q

In massive hemorrhage due to UC, when is colectomy indicated?

A

when a patient required 6-8 u of blood within 24-48 hrs

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218
Q

Defined as a transverese or right colon with a diameter of > 6 cm

A

Toxic megacolon

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219
Q

Toxic megaccolon involves what segment of colon in UC? diameter?

A

transverse and righ colon

> 6 cm

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220
Q

Most dangerous complication of UC

A

Perforation

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221
Q

In the presence of intestinal stricture, when is surgery indicated?

A

when the stricture prevents passage of the colonoscope

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222
Q

2 patterns of CD

A

fibrostenotic obstructing pattern

penetrating fistulous pattern

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223
Q

this factor influences the clinical manifestion of D

A

site of disease

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224
Q

Most common site of inflammation in the ileocolitis CD

A

terminal ileum

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225
Q

usual presentation of ileocolic CD

A

chronic history of recurrent episodes of right lower quadrant pain and diarrhea, pain is usually colicky and preceds and relived by defecation

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226
Q

Seen as “string sign” on barium studies due to severely narrowed loop of bowel, which makes the lumen resemble a frayed cotton string

A

ileocolic CD

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227
Q

Characteristic features of jejunoileitis CD

A

malabsorption and steatorrhea, with nutritional deficiencies

diarrhea

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228
Q

Clinical manifestations of CD colitis (5):

A
low-grade fever
malaise
diarrhea
crampy abdominal pain
hematochezia (sometimes)
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229
Q

Signs and symptoms of gastroduodenal disease in CD

A

nauea
vomiting
]epigastric pain
H. pylori - negative

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230
Q

Most commonly involved site in gastroduodenal CD

A

2nd portion of the duodenum

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231
Q

markers that are used to distinguish IBD from IBS (2)

A

fecall lactoferrin and calprotectin levels

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232
Q

The earliest macroscopic findings of colonic CD

A

apthous ulcers

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233
Q

Perforation in CD usually involves what site?

A

ileum

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234
Q

UC vs CD: intraabdominal and pelvic abscess occur in 10-30% of patients

A

CD

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235
Q

UC vs CD: increased titers of anti-saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies

A

CD

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236
Q

UC vs CD: increased p-ANCAs levels

A

UC

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237
Q

Term for IBD wherein UC and CD are initiialy impossible to differentiate

A

indeterminate colitis

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238
Q

Infectious disease that mimic the endoscopic appearance of severe UC and can cause a relapse of established UC

A

campylobacter colitis

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239
Q

UC vs CD: blood and mucus in stool is more common

A

UC

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240
Q

UC vs CD: systemic symptosms are more common

A

CD

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241
Q

UC vs CD: pain is more common

A

CD

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242
Q

UC vs CD: abdominal mass is more common

A

CD

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243
Q

UC vs CD: significant perineal disease

A

CD

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244
Q

UC vs CD: small intestinal and colonic obstruction are more common

A

CD

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245
Q

UC vs CD: responds to antibiotics

A

CD

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246
Q

UCvs CD: recurrence after surgery is common

A

CD

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247
Q

UC vs CD: continuous disease

A

UC

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248
Q

UC vs CD: stricture is more frequent

A

CD

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249
Q

Similar to CDbut the mucosal abnormalities are limited to the sigmoid and descending colon

A

Diverticular-associated colitis

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250
Q

A differential diagnosis of IBDcharacterized by sudden onset of left lower quadrat pain, urdency to defecate, and the passage of bright red blod per rectum

A

ischemic colitis

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251
Q

Differential diagnosis of IBD that is caused by impaired evacuation and failure of relaxation of the puborectalis muscle

A

Solitary rectal ulcer syndrome

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252
Q

2 common drugs used in a hospital setting that mimic IBD

A

ipilimumab
mycophenolate mofetil
etanercept (case reports only)

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253
Q

2 atypical colitides

A

Collagenous colitis
lymphocytic colitis

completely normal endoscopic appearance

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254
Q

Inflammatory process that arises in segments of the large intestine that are excluded from the fecal stream, and usually occurs in patients with ileostomy or colostomy

A

diversion colitis

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255
Q

Difference of diversioon colitis from UC

A

crypt architecture is normal

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256
Q

Percentage of IBD patients that have at least one extraintetsinal disease manifestation

A

1/3

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257
Q

Extraintestinal manifestation of IBD that is characterized by hot, red, tender nodules measuring 1-5 cm in diameter and are found on the anterior surface of the lower legs, ankles, calves, thighs, and arms

A

eyrthema nodosum

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258
Q

Extraintestinal manifestation of IBD characterized by lesions that begin as pustules and spreads concentrically to rapidly undermine healty skin in the on the dorsal surface of the feet and legs, but may occur on the arms, chest, stoma, and even face.

A

Pyoderma gangrenosum

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259
Q

UC vs CD: -perianal skin tags in 75-80% of patients

A

CD

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260
Q

UC vs CD: pral mucosal lesions are more common

A

CD

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261
Q

UC vs CD: peripheral arthritsi is more common

A

CD

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262
Q

Characteristics of peripheral arthritis in IBD

A

asymmetric, polyarticular, and migratory, most often affecting the large joints, and worsens with exacerbations of bowel activity

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263
Q

UC vs CD: Aknylosing spondylitis is more common

A

CD

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264
Q

IBD with ankylosing spondylitis is associated with this antigen

A

HLA-B27 antigen

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265
Q

UC vs CD: uveitis is more common

A

equal

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266
Q

UC vs CD: episcleritis is more common

A

CD

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267
Q

An extraintestinal manifestation of IBD that is characterized by both intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile duct inflammation and fibrosism frequently leading to biliary cirrhosis and hepatic failure

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

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268
Q

UC vs C: primary sclerosing cholangitis is more common

A

UC

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269
Q

Antibodies present in both IBD and PSC

A

pANCA

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270
Q

Gold standard diagnostic for PSC

A

ERCP - gold standard

MRCP - sensitive, specific and safer

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271
Q

Priamry scclerosing cholangitis increase risk of what cancer? IBD and PSC will increase risk of what cancer?

A

cholangiocarcinoma

colon cancer

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272
Q

Variant of PSC with normal cholangiography, and sometimes referred to as pericolangitis, and with better prognosis than classic PSC

A

small-duct PSC

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273
Q

Nephrolithiasis seen in CD is composed of what stone?

A

calcium oxalate

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274
Q

UC vs CD: nephrolithisis is more common

A

CD

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275
Q

UC vs CD: nephrolithisis is more common

A

CD

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276
Q

Medcal therapy for IBD (8)

A
5-ASA
Glucocorticoid
Antibiotics (for CD)
Azathioprine and 6-MP
Methotexate
Cyclosporine
Tacrolimus
Biologic therapies
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277
Q

Active ingredient of sulfasalazine

A

5-ASA and mesalamine

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278
Q

Supplements that should be given along with sulfasalazine

A

folic acid

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279
Q

A once-a-day formulation of mesalamine that is designed to release mesalamine in the colon

A

Lialda

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280
Q

A once-a-day formulation containing encapsulated mesalamine granules that delivers mesalamine to the terminal ileum and colon via proprietary extended release mechanism

A

Apriso

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281
Q

Mesalamine formulation that uses an ethylcellulose coating to allow water absorption into small beads containing the mesalamine

A

pentasa

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282
Q

Most common side effects of 5-ASA (4)

A

headaches
nauseas
hair loss
abdominal pain

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283
Q

Dose of glucocorticoid for moderate to severe UC that is unresposve to 5-ASA

A

Prednisone 40-60mg/day
hydrocortisone 300mg/d
methylprednisolone 40-60 mg/d

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284
Q

A new glucocorticoid for IBDthat is released entirely in the colon and has minimal to no glucocorticoid side effects. include dose

A

Budesonide 9 mg/d for 8 weeks with no tapering for UC

ileal-release budesonide 9mg/d for 2-3 months and then tapered

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285
Q

Pouchitis in UC, which occurs in about 30-50% of UC patients after colectoy and IPAA usually responds to these 2 antibiotics (with dosage)

A

metronidazole 15-20 mg/kg per day in 3 divided doses

ciprofloxacin 500mg BID

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286
Q

active end product of azathioprine and 6-MP

A

thioinosinicc acid

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287
Q

adverse effect of azathioprine and 6-MP that occurs on 3-4% of patient, typically presenting within the 1st few weeks of therapy, and is completely reversible when the drug is stopped

A

pancreatitis

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288
Q

Methotrexate inhibits what enzyme

A

dihydrofolate reductase

it also decrease production of IL-1

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289
Q

lipophilic peptide with inhibitory effects on both the cellular and humoral immunity, blocks production of IL-2, and inhibits calcineurin

A

cyclosporine

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290
Q

Common side effects of cyclosporine (7):

A
hypertension
gingival hyperplasia
hypertrichosis
paresthesias
tremors
headaches
electrolyte abnormalities
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291
Q

A macrolide antibiotic with immunomodulatory properties similar to cyclosporine, nut is 100 times more potent than CSA and not dependent on bile or mucosal integrity for absorption

A

Tacrolimus

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292
Q

the first biologic therapy approved for oderate to severely active IBD

A

infliximab

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293
Q

chimeric IgG1 antibody against TNF-a

A

infliximab

294
Q

Recombinant human monoclonal IgG1 antibody containing only human peptide sequences and is injected subcutaneously

A

Adalimumab

295
Q

A pegylated form an anti-TNF Fab portion of an antibody administered SC once a month

A

Certolizumab

296
Q

ACCENT I and ACCENT II

A

A crohn’s disessae clinical trial evaluating infliximab in a new long-term treatment regimen

40% of patients who experience initial response will maintain remission for at least 1 year with repeated infusions of infliximab every 8 weeks

297
Q

SONIC trial

A

study of biologic and immunomodulator-naive patients with crohn’s disease

infliximab plus azathioprine > infliximab > azathoprine

298
Q

CHARM trial

A

Crohn’s trial of the Fully Human Adalimumab for Remssion Maintenance

299
Q

PRECISE II trial

A

pegylated antibody fragment evaluation in Crohn’s disease

300
Q

A recobinant humanized IgG4 antibody against a4-integrin that has been shown to be effective in induction and maintenance of patients with CD

A

natalizumab

301
Q

adverse efect of natalizumab which is the reason why it is no longer widely used

A

progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)

302
Q

most important risk factor for development of PML in natalizumab user

A

exposure to JC polyomavirus

other risk factors:
longer duration of treatment
prior treatment with an immunosuppressant medication

303
Q

a monoclonal antibody directed against a4b7 integrin that has the ability to convey gut-selective immunosuppression

A

vedolizumab

304
Q

biological product that is highly similar to the reference product not withstanding minor differences in clinically inactive components

A

biosimilars

305
Q

nutritional therapies for IBD

A

bowel rest and TPN

306
Q

operation of choice for UC

A

ileal pouch/anal anastomosis (IPAA)

307
Q

major complication of surgical therapy for UC

A

bowel obstruction

308
Q

most frequent complication of IPAA

A

pouchitis

309
Q

the need for surgery in CD is related to (2)

A

duration of the disease

site of involvement

310
Q

most frequently performed operation for CD

A

surgical resection of the disease segment

311
Q

when will you do the colonoscopy after surgical procedrue for CD

A

after 6 months

312
Q

T or F: fertility rates of patients with quiescent IBD is normal

A

True

313
Q

part of the female reproductive system that can be scarreed by the inflammatory process of CD

A

right fallopian tube (due to proximity to the terminal ileum)

314
Q

preferred route of delivery for patients with IBD

A

cesarean delivery

315
Q

female patients with IBDmust be in remisiion ____ before conception

A

6 monhs

316
Q

safest antibiotics that can be used for CD in pregnancy

A

Ampicillin adn cephalosporins
metronidazole - may be used in the 2nd and 3rd trimester

ciprofloxacin - contraindicated

317
Q

extensive colitris is defined as involvement of

A

> 1/3 of the colon

318
Q

risk factors for cancer in UC (7)

A
long duration diseae
extensive disease
family history of colon cancer
PSC
colon stricture
post-inflammatory pseudopolyp (UC)
bypassed colon segments (CD
319
Q

Patients with CDhave increased risk of these malignancies (4)

A

NHL
leukemia
myelodysplastic syndrome
cancer in the lower rectum and anal canal (squamous cell carcinoma) - for those with severe perianal disease

320
Q

Saclihe herniation of the entire bowel wall

A

True diverticulum

321
Q

Protrusion of the mucosa through the muscularis propria of the colon

A

False or pseudodiverticulum

322
Q

most common type of diverticulum affecting the colon

A

False or pseudodiverticulum

323
Q

Where is the sitre of protrusion in False or pseudodiverticulum?

A

site of penetration of nutrient artery or vasa recti through muscularis propria

324
Q

Common location of diverticular disease globally? among asians?

A

left and sigmoid colon and rectal sparing

in asian, 70% in the right colon and cecum

325
Q

inflammation due to retention of particulate material within diverticular sac and formation of a fecalith

A

diverticulitis

326
Q

complication of diverticular disease (2)

A

perforation

bleeding

327
Q

most common cause of hematochezua i patients > 60 years

A

colonic diverticular henorrhage

328
Q

Percentage of patients with diverticulosis who will have GI bleeding

A

20%

329
Q

risk factors for bleeding in diverticular disease (3(

A

hypertension
atheroscleosis
Aspirin and NSAIDs use

330
Q

best diagnostic test for localization of massive bleeding of diverticular disease in otherwise stable patients

A

angiography

may also used as therapeutic by occluding the bleeding using coil

331
Q

for bleeding diverticular disease patients who are on anticoagulant, what is the treatment in order to eliminate risk of further bleeding

A
segmental resection
subtotal colectomy (if bleeding sites are not localized)
332
Q

inidcation for emergent surgery for bleeding diverticular disease

A

unstable patients

6 unit bleed within 24-hr

333
Q

clinical manifestation of acute uncomplicated diverticulitis or SUDD (symptomatic uncomplicated diverticular disease) (4)

A

fever
anorexia
LLQ pain
obstipation

334
Q

clinical manifestation of diverticular perforation

A

generalized peritonitis

335
Q

clinical presnentation of pericolonic abscess of diverticular disease (2)

A

localized peritonitis

abdominal distension

336
Q

Complication of diverticular disease (4)

A

abscess - 16%
perforation - 10%
stricture - 5%
fistula - 2%

337
Q

best diagnostic test for diverticulitis

A

CT scan

338
Q

CT scan criteria for diverticulitis (4)

A

sigmoid diverticula
thickened colonic wall > 4 mm
inflammation within the pericolic fat
+/- collection of contrast media or fluid

339
Q

When will you do colonoscopy after an attack of diverticular diseae?

A

after 6 weeks to rule out sigmoid malignancy

340
Q

perforated diverticular disease staging

A

HInchey classification system

341
Q

Purpose of the Hinchey claddification system

A

predict outcome following surgical management of complicated diverticular disaease

342
Q

best management for asymptomatic diverticular disease

A

lifestyle modifications
fiber-rich diet
avoid smoking

343
Q

initial management of symptomatic uncomplicated diverticular disease

A

bowel rest

antibiotics

344
Q

inications for hospitalization of divertocular disease patients (4)

A

unable to take oral therapy
several comorbids
fails to improve in the ourpatient therapy
complicated diverticultis

345
Q

Recommended antibiotics for acute diverticulitis

A

3rd gen cephalosporin or ciprofloxacin + metronidazole

add ampicillin for non-responders for enterococci coverage

346
Q

mainstay management for ppost acute diverticulitis episode

A

symptom prevention

347
Q

risk factors for recurrence of diverticulitis (3)

A

younger age
diverticular abscess
frequent attacks (>2 per year)

348
Q

poorly absorbed broad-spectrum antibiotic associated with 30% less frequent recurrent symptoms of diverticulitis

A

rifaximin

349
Q

Hinchey stage Ia

A

pericolic phlegmon

350
Q

Hinchey stage Ib

A

pericolic abscess

351
Q

Indications for CT-guided percutaneous drainage of Hinchey Ib adn II diverticular disease

A

> 3 cm + well-defined wall

abscess < 5 cm - resolve with antibiotic therapy

352
Q

Contraindications for CT-guided percutaneous draignage of diverticular abscess (3)

A

no percutaneous access route
pneumoperitoneum
fecal peritonitis

353
Q

most common cause of fecal incontinence

A

obstetric injury of the pelvic floor

354
Q

fecal incontinence in aduts is most common in this population

A

women >65 y, especially parous

355
Q

in the management of fecal incontinence, this helps strengthen external sphincter muscle while training patient to relax with defecation to avoid unnecessary straining and further injury to the sphincter muscles

A

biofeedback

356
Q

3 main hemorrhoidal complexes

A

left lateral
right anterior
right posterior

357
Q

diagnostic technique to identify position of hemorrhoidal disease

A

anoscopy

358
Q

description of stage I hemorrhoid

A

enlargement with bleeding

359
Q

description of stage II hemorrhoid

A

protrusion with spontaneous reduction

360
Q

description for Stage III hemorrhoids

A

protrusion requiring manual reduction

361
Q

description of stage IV hemorrhoid

A

irreducible protrusion

362
Q

managemnet for acutely thrombosed hemorrhoid

A

excision within 1st 72 hours

363
Q

results from an infection involving the glands surrounding the anal canal

A

anorectal abscess

364
Q

most common location opf anorectal abscess

A

perianal (40-50%)

other locations:
ischiorectal - 20-25%
intersphincteric - 2-5%
supralevator - 2.5%

365
Q

hallmarks of anorectal abscess (2)

A

pain and fever

366
Q

T or F: all patients with anorectal abscess must be treated with antibiotics

A

false

only those who are immunocompromised, have prosthetic hearrt valves, artificial joints or IBD

367
Q

origin of the majority of fistula in ano

A

cryptoglandular

368
Q

communication of an abscess cavity with an identifiable internal opening within the anal canal

A

fistula in ano

369
Q

fistula in ano most commonly opens in

A

dentate line (where anal glands enter anal canal

370
Q

most commpon fistula in ano based on the relation to the anal sphincter muscles

A

intersphincteric - 70%
transphincteric - 23%
suprasphincteric - 5%
extrasphincteric - 2%

371
Q

presents as constant drainage from perianal region associated with a firm mass and increasing with defecation

A

fistula in ano

372
Q

A posterior external fistula will enter the anal canal in the posterior midline, whereas an anterior fistula will enter the nearest crypt. this is called the

A

Goodsall’s rule

exception to this rule: if exiting > 3 cm from anal verge

373
Q

best option of treatment for new cases of fistula in ano

A

placement of seton (vessel loop or silk tie placed through the fistula tract)

374
Q

Surgical tretament for intersphincteric and low transphincteric fistula in ano:

A

siimple fistulotomy

375
Q

surgical treatment for high transsphincteric fistula in ano

A

anorectal advancement flap in combination with drainage catheter or fibrin glue

376
Q

Anal fissure commonly involves which part of the anal canal?

A

posterior anal cancal

but also involves the anterior

377
Q

Suspected causes for anal fissure not located at the posterior or anterior anal fissure (4)

A

TB
syphilis
Crohn’s
CA

378
Q

pathognomonic findings of anal fissure on anal manometry

A

increased anal resting pressure + sawtooth deformity with paradoxical contractions of the sphincter muscles

379
Q

duration of chronic anal fissures

A

> 6 weeks

380
Q

occurs when splanchnic perfusion fails to meet the metabolic demands of the intestines

A

intestinal ischemia secondary to ischemic tissue injury

381
Q

Intestinal ischemia is classified based on etiology, which dictates management. These are (3):

A

(1) arterioocclusive mesenteric ischemia
(2) non-occlusive mesenteric ischemia
(3) mesenteric venous thrombosis

382
Q

Risk factors for arterioocclusive mesenteric ischemia (4):

A

Atrial fibrillation
Recent myocardial infarction
Valvular heart disease
Recent cardiac or vascular catheterization

All of which are acute in onset and result in embolic clots reaching the mesenteric circulation

383
Q

A class of intestinal ischemia also known as “intestinal angina,” that is generally more insidious and often seen in the aging population affected by atherosclerotic disease

A

Nonocclusive mesenteric ischemia

384
Q

Causes of nonocclusive mesenteric ischemia (4)

A

Atherosclerotic disease
High-dose vasopressor infusions
Patients presenting with cardiogenic or septic shock,
Cocaine overdose

385
Q

It is the most prevalent gastrointestinal disease complicating cardiovascular surgery.

A

Nonocclusive mesenteric ischemia

386
Q

The incidence of ischemic colitis following elective aortic repair is

A

5–9%, and the incidence triples in patients following emergent repair

387
Q

Risk factor for mesenteric venous thrombosis

A

hypercoagulable state

388
Q

Collateral vessels within the small bowel are numerous and meet within the duodenum and the bed of the pancreas. This area is known as:

A

Griffiths’ point

389
Q

Collateral vessels within the colon meet at the splenic flexure and descending/sigmoid colon. This area is known as:

A

Sudeck’s point

390
Q

2 areas that are inherently at risk for decreased blood flow that may cause intestinal ischemia

A

Griffiths’ point and Sudeck’s point

391
Q

the most common locations for colonic ischemia (2)

A

Griffiths’ point and Sudeck’s point

392
Q

The splanchnic circulation can receive up to ___ of the cardiac output.

A

30%

393
Q

Protective responses to prevent intestinal ischemia include (3)

A

Abundant collateralization
Autoregulation of blood flow
Ability to increase oxygen extraction from the blood

394
Q

Most frequent origin of emboli that cause intestinal ischemia

A

Heart (in 75% of cases)

395
Q

In intestinal ischemia, where does the emboli preferentially lodge?

A

superior mesenteric artery (SMA) just distal to the origin of the middle colic artery

396
Q

T or F: Progressive thrombosis of at least 3 of the major vessels supplying the intestine is required for the development of chronic intestinal angina

A

false. 2

397
Q

A disproportionate mesenteric vasoconstriction (arteriolar vasospasm) in response to a severe physiologic stress such as shock

A

Nonocclusive ischemia

398
Q

Mortality rate of intestinal ischemia

A

> 50%

399
Q

The most significant indicator of survival in intestinal ischemia

A

timeliness of diagnosis and treatment

400
Q

Presents with severe acute, nonremitting abdominal pain strikingly out of proportion to the physical findings, associated with nausea and vomiting, transient diarrhea, anorexia, and bloody stools

A

Acute mesenteric ischemia

401
Q

PE finding of early acute mesenteric ischemia (2)

A

minimal abdominal distention and hypoactive bowel sounds

The rest is normal

402
Q

Later findings in acute mesenteric ischemia (2)

A

peritonitis and cardiovascular collapse

403
Q

T or F: Diagnostic modalities are useful in diagnosis of intestinal ischemia but should not delay surgical therapy

A

True

404
Q

Earlier features of this disease seen on abdominal radiographs include bowel-wall edema, known as “thumbprinting.”

A

intestinal ischemia

405
Q

Progression of this disease will have the radiographic findings of air seen within the bowel wall (pneumatosis intestinalis) and within the portal venous system.

A

intestinal ischemia

406
Q

A highly sensitive test for intestinal ischemia

A

CT angiography with three-dimensional reconstruction

407
Q

In acute embolic disease causing intestinal ischemia, this test is best performed intraoperatively

A

mesenteric angiography

408
Q

T or F: A negative duplex scan does not exclude the diagnosis of mesenteric ischemia

A

False, virtually precludes the diagnosis

409
Q

One of the biggest limitations of duplex scanning is

A

Patients’ body habitus

The duplex imaging yields poor results in obese patients

410
Q

When suspecting mesenteric ischemia involving the colon, performing this test is high yield. This is often an excellent diagnostic tool in patients with chronic renal insufficiency who cannot tolerate IV contrast.

A

endoscopy

411
Q

The “gold standard” for the diagnosis of acute arterial occlusive disease is

A

Angiography

412
Q

The “gold standard” for the management of acute arterial occlusive disease is

A

laparotomy

413
Q

The goal of operative exploration in intestinal ischemia is to

A

resect compromised bowel and restore blood supply

414
Q

Site of occlusion when the proximal jejunum is often spared while the remainder of the small bowel up to the transverse colon will be ischemic.

A

SMA

415
Q

The surgical management of acute mesenteric ischemia of the small bowel is

A

embolectomy via arteriotomy

416
Q

The presence of these laboratory results are useful in support of the diagnosis of advanced intestinal ischemia (4)

A

Leukocytosis
Metabolic acidosis
Elevated amylase or creatinine phosphokinase levels
Lactic acidosis

these markers may not be indicative of either reversible ischemia or frank necrosis

417
Q

Investigational markers for intestinal ischemia include (4)

A

d-dimer
glutathione S-transferase
platelet- activating factor (PAF)
mucosal pH monitoring

418
Q

Why do we need aggressive fluid resuscitation in intestinal ischemia?

A

Early manifestations of intestinal ischemia include fluid sequestration within the bowel wall leading to a loss of interstitial volume.

419
Q

Intervention of choice to maintain hemodynamics in intestinal ischemia

A

fluid resuscitation

420
Q

Ischemia of the colonic mucosa is graded as mild, moderate and severe. Describe each.

A

Mild - minimal mucosal erythema
Moderate - pale mucosal ulcerations and evidence of extension to the muscular layer of the bowel wall
Severe - severe ulcerations resulting in black or green discoloration of the mucosa, consistent with full-thickness bowel-wall necrosis

421
Q

Degree of reversibility of mild, moderate, and severe ischemia of colonic mucosa

A

mild - nearly 100%
moderate - ~50%
frank necrosis - dead bowel

422
Q

T or F: Primary anastomosis may be performed in patients with acute intestinal ischemia

A

False

423
Q

The diagnosis of mesenteric thrombosis is frequently made on

A

abdominal spiral CT with oral and IV contrast

424
Q

The goal of management of mesenteric venous thrombosis are (4)

A

optimize hemodynamics
correct electrolyte abnormalities with massive fluid resuscitation
Intravenous antibiotics
anticoagulation

425
Q

Of all acute intestinal disorders, this is associated with the best prognosis.

A

Mesenteric venous insufficiency

426
Q

Presents with intestinal angina, post-prandial abdominal pain, weight loss and chronic diarrhea

A

Chronic intestinal ischemia

associated with increased need of blood flow to the intestine following meals - hence the post prandial pain

427
Q

T or F: Abdominal pain without weight loss is not chronic mesenteric angina

A

True

428
Q

The treatment of chronic mesenteric ischemia is associated with an 80% long-term success rate

A

Angioplasty with endovascular stenting

429
Q

Main stimulator of secretion of water and electrolytes from the pancreatic ductal cells

A

Secretin (lesser extent, CCK)

430
Q

Evokes an enzyme-rich secretion from pancreatic acinar cells

A

CCK

431
Q

5 causes of acute pancreatitis

A

Gallstone, alcohol, ERCP, hypertriglyceridemia, drugs

432
Q

Type of pancreatitis where pancreas blood supply is maintained

A

Interstitial pancreatitis

433
Q

Type of pancreatitis where pancreas blood supply is interrupted

A

Necrotizing pancreatitis

434
Q

Accepted pathogenic theory of acute pancreatitis where proteolytic enzymes are activated in the pancreas acinar cell rather than in the intestinal lumen due to premature activation of trypsin

A

Autodigestion

435
Q

Major symptom of acute pancreatitis

A

Abdominal pain

436
Q

Characteristic of abdominal pain in acute pancreatitis

A

Steady and boring in the epigastrium or periumbilical region, and may radiate to the back, chest, flanks, and lower abdomen

437
Q

3 causes of shock in acute pancreatitis

A

o Hypovolemia
o Increased kinin peptides – causing vasodilation
o Systemic effects of proteolytic and lipolytic enzymes

438
Q

Part of pancreas that is edematous when there is occurrence of jaundice

A

Head of the pancreas

439
Q

Location of pleural effusion in acute pancreatitis

A

Left-sided

440
Q

Faint blue discoloration around the umbilicus

A

Cullen’s sign

441
Q

Cause of cullen’s sign

A

Hemoperitoneum

442
Q

Blue-red-purple or green-brown discoloration of the flanks

A

Turner’s sign

443
Q

Cause of Turner’s sign

A

Due to tissue catabolism of hemoglobin from severe necrotizing pancreatitis with hemorrhage

444
Q

Serum amylase in acute pancreatitis returns to normal in how many days:

A

3-7 days

445
Q

Serum lipase in acute pancreatitis returns to normal in how many days

A

7-14 days

446
Q

Preferred test for acute pancreatitis

A

Lipase

447
Q

More specific test for acute pancreatitis

A

Lipase

448
Q

Harbinger of more severe disease (i.e. pancreatic necrosis) in acute pancreatitis

A

Hemoconcentration (Hct > 44%)

449
Q

Cause of prerenal azotemia in acute pancreatitis

A

Due to loss of plasma intro the retroperitoneal space and peritoneal cavity

450
Q

3 causes of hyperglycemia in acute pancreatitis:

A

o Decreased insulin release
o Increased glucagon release
o Increased output of adrenal glucocorticoids and catecholamines

451
Q

Elevated ALP, AST and bilirubins in acute pancreatitis indicates involvement of:

A

Gallbladder and pancreatic head

452
Q

Initial diagnostic imaging modality in acute pancreatitis

A

Abdominal ultrasound

453
Q

Criteria that categorized morphologic features of acute pancreatitis via CT scan:

A

Revised atlanta criteria

454
Q

3 criteria for acute pancreatitis diagnosis (2 out 3)

A

o Typical abdominal pain in the epigastrium that may radiate to the back
o 3-fold or greater elevation in serum lipase and/or amylase
o Confirmatory findings of acute pancreatitis on cross-sectional abdominal imaging

455
Q

4 markers of severity of acute pancreatitis

A

o Hemoconcentration (Hct > 44%)
o Admission azotemia (BUN > 22 mg/dL)
o SIRS
o Signs of organ failure

456
Q

2 Differences between the biliary colic and acute pancreatitis abdominal pain

A

o Pain of biliary tract origin is more-right sided or epigastric than umbilical or left upper quadrant
o Ileus is usually absent

457
Q

Criteria that defines phases of acute pancreatitis, outlines severity of acute pancreatitis, and clarifies imaging definition

A

Revised Atlanta criteria

458
Q

2 phases of acute pancreatitis

A

o Early < 2 weeks

o Late > 2 weeks

459
Q

Phase of acute pancreatitis where Severity is defined by clinical parameters rather than morphologic findings

A

Early phase

460
Q

Most important clinical finding in regard to severity of the acute pancreatitis episode

A

Persistent organ failure – > 48 h

461
Q

You must do CT imaging in the 1st 48 h of admission of acute pancreatitis: true or false

A

False

462
Q

Radiographic feature of greatest importance to recognize in the late phase of acute pancreatitis

A

Necrotizing pancreatitis of CT

463
Q

Difference between moderately severe and severe acute pancreatitis

A

o Moderately severe – transient organ failure (<48h)

o Severe – persistent organ failure (>48h)

464
Q

Diffuse pancreatic enlargement and homogenous contrast enhancement on CT scan

A

Interstitial pancreatitis

465
Q

Lack of pancreatic parenchymal enhancement by IV contrast on CT scan

A

Necrotizing pancreatitis

466
Q

Most important treatment intervention for acute pancreatitis

A

Safe, aggressive IV fluid resuscitation

467
Q

Better crystalloid for hydration in acute pancreatitis

A

Lactated Ringer’s

468
Q

What is safe, aggressive IV fluid resuscitation in acute pancreatitis

A

15-20 ml/kg (1050-1400) mL as initial bolus followed by 2-3 ml/kg/hr (200-250 mL/h) to maintain UO > 0.5 ml/kg/hr

469
Q

Why is Lactated Ringer’s solution a better crystalloid than NSS?

A

Decrease systemic inflammation

470
Q

Strategy wherein there is measurement of hematocrit and BUN every 8-12 hrs to ensure adequacy of fluid resuscitation

A

Targeted resuscitation strategy

471
Q

5 clinical and laboratory parameters in BISAP

A
o	BUN > 25 mg/dL
o	Impaired mental status (GCS < 15)
o	SIRS
o	Age > 60 years
o	Pleural effusion
472
Q

BISAP score that indicates increased risk for in-hospital mortality

A

≥ 3

473
Q

Diet for mild acute pancreatitis (once abdominal pain resolved)

A

Low-fat solid diet

474
Q

Preferred nutrition for more severe cases after 2-3 days of admission

A

Enteral nutrition (preferred than TPN)

475
Q

Prophylactic antibiotics is recommended for necrotizing pancreatitis: True or false

A

False; broad spectrum antibiotic may be given if patient appears septic, then discontinued once with negative cultures

476
Q

Definitive management of infected pancreatic necrosis

A

Pancreatic debridement (necrosectomy)

477
Q

Persistent pancreatic fluid collections after 6 weeks

A

Pseudocyst

478
Q

Diagnosis of pancreatic duct disruption is confirmed by what diagnostic?

A

MRCP or ERCP

479
Q

> 90% effective at resolving the leak in pancreatic duct disruption

A

Bridging pancreatic stent (nonbridging are less effective)

480
Q

3 perivascular complications of acute pancreatitis:

A

o Splenic vein thrombosis
o Gastric varices
o Pseudoaneurysm

481
Q

Incidence of recurrent pancreatitis

A

25% of patients

482
Q

2 most common etiologic factors of recurrent pancreatitis

A

o Alcohol

o Cholelithiasis

483
Q

4 Cardinal manifestations of chronic pancreatitis

A

o Abdominal pain
o Steatorrhea
o Weight loss
o Diabetes mellitus

484
Q

Primary cause of chronic pancreatitis

A

Alcohol

485
Q

Independent, dose-dependent risk factor for chronic pancreatitis and recurrent acute pancreatitis

A

Smoking

486
Q

Most frequent cause of chronic pancreatitis in children

A

Cystic fibrosis

487
Q

Pancreatitis that has the following histopathologic findings: Lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate, storiform fibrosis, abundant IgG4 cells

A

Autoimmune pancreatitis

488
Q

Marker for autoimmune pancreatitis

A

IgG4 – elevated in 2/3 of patients

489
Q

Criteria used in diagnosing autoimmune pancreatitis

A

Mayo Clinic HISORt criteria

490
Q

Parameters in Mayo Clinic HISORt criteria for AIP

A
o	At least 1 or more of the following:
	Histology
	Imaging
	Serology
	Other organ involvement
	Response to glucocorticoid therapy
491
Q

Treatment of AIP that has dramatic response within 2- to 4-week course

A

Glucocorticoids

492
Q

Dose of prednisone in AIP

A

o Initial dose: 40 mg/day for 4 weeks

o Tapered by 5 mg/week

493
Q

Very effective at inducing and maintaining remission in AIP

A

Rituximab

494
Q

In chronic pancreatitis, patients seek medical attention predominantly because of 2 symptoms. What are these?

A

o Abdominal pain or maldigestion

o Weight loss

495
Q

2 tests used in evaluation of suspected pancreatic steatorrhea

A

o Fecal-elastase-1 – abnormal (low)

o Small bowel biopsy – normal

496
Q

Initial modality of choice in chronic pancreatitis

A

Abdominal CT imaging

497
Q

Test that has best sensitivity and specificity in chronic pancreatitis

A

Hormone stimulation test using secretin

498
Q

Radiographic findings that is pathognomonic for chronic pancreatitis

A

Diffuse calcifications on plain films

499
Q

Arterial bleeding into the pancreatic duct

A

Hemosuccus pancreaticus

500
Q

The cumulative risk of pancreatic carcinoma in chronic pancretitis

A

4% after 20 years

501
Q

Cornerstone of therapy in pancreatic steatorrhea

A

Pancreatic enzyme replacement

502
Q

Pancreatic enzyme replacement formulation must deliver sufficient amount of what substance into the duodenum to correct maldigestion and decrease steatorrhea?

A

Lipase

503
Q

Hereditary pancreatitis is mutation on gene on what chromosome? What codons?

A

Chromosome 7, codons 29 and 122

504
Q

Incidence of pancreatic carcinoma in hereditary pancreatitis at age 70

A

40%

505
Q

Ventral pancreatic anlage fails to migrate correctly to make contact with the dorsal anlage

A

Annular pancreas

506
Q

Ring of pancreatic tissue encircling the duodenum

A

Annular pancreas

507
Q

Surgical procedure of choice for annular pancreas

A

Retrocolic duodenojejunostomy

508
Q

Most common congenital anatomic variant of human pancreas

A

Pancreas divisum

509
Q

Pancreas divisum does not predispose patients to pancreatitis: True or false

A

True

510
Q

Appear as a small-caliber ventral duct with an arborizing pattern on ERCP/MRCP

A

Pancreas divisum

511
Q

Treatment of pancreatitis with pancreas divisum

A

o Conservative

o Endoscopic or surgical intervention only if with recurrence

512
Q

Diagnostic test for macroamylasemia

A

Serum chromatography

513
Q

Amylase circulate in the blood in a polymer form too large to be easily excreted by the kidney

A

Macroamylasemia

514
Q

Most common cause of UGIB

A

Peptic ulcers

515
Q

3 high risk findings of ulcer on endoscopy

A
  • Active bleeding
  • Nonbleeding visible vessel
  • Adherent clot
516
Q

High-dose, constant infusion of IV PPI sustain intragastric pH of:

A

> 6

517
Q

Rebleeding percentage of peptic ulcers within the next year if no preventive strategies done

A

10-50%

518
Q

3 main factors in ulcer pathogenesis:

A
  • Helicobacter pylori
  • NSAIDs
  • Acid
519
Q

Eradication of H. pylori decrease PUD rebleeding to:

A

< 5%

520
Q

If necessary, what NSAID would you give in patient with GIB?

A

COX-2 selective plus a PPI

521
Q

For GIB patients with CVD who takes low-dose aspirin for secondary prevention, when will you resume aspirin?

A

Restart aspirin ASAP after their bleeding episode (1-7 days)

522
Q

For GIB patients who take aspirin for primary prevention, when will you resume aspirin?

A

No need to resume

523
Q

If GIB is unrelated to H. pylori or NSAIDS, until when should you give PPI to patients?

A

Should remain on PPI therapy indefinitely because of rebleeding rates of 42% at 7 years

524
Q

Most common bleeding site of Mallory-Weiss tear

A

Gastric side of the GEJ

525
Q

Mallory-Weiss tear stops spontaneously in how many percent of cases?

A

80-90%

526
Q

Recurrence rate of Mallory-Weiss Tear

A

0-10%

527
Q

Poorer outcomes than other sources of UGIB

A

Esophageal varices

528
Q

4 treatment for Esophageal varices

A
  • Endoscopic ligation
  • IV vasoactive medications
  • Non-selective beta blockers
  • TIPS
529
Q

2 indications of TIPS in patient with BEV:

A
  • For patients with persistent or recurrent bleeding despite endoscopic and medical therapy
  • 1st 1-2 days of hospitalization for acute BEV in patients with advanced liver disease (Child-Pugh class C with score 10-13)
530
Q

Endoscopically visualized breaks that are confined to the mucosa

A

Erosive disease

531
Q

Cause of erosive esophagitis

A

GERD

532
Q

Most important cause of gastric and duodenal erosions

A

NSAID use

533
Q

Watermelon stomach

A

Gastric antral vascular ectasia

534
Q

Aberrant vessel in mucosa bleeds from a pinpoint mucosal defect

A

Dieulafoy’s lesion

535
Q

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasias

A

Osler-Weber-Rendu

536
Q

Prolapse of proximal stomach into esophagus with retching

A

Prolapse gastropathy

537
Q

Bleeding from the bile duct

A

Hemobilia

538
Q

Bleeding from pancreatic duct

A

Hemosucus pancreaticus

539
Q

Percentage of obscure GIB that originate in the small intestine

A

~75%

540
Q

3 most common causes of small-intestinal GIB in >40 years old:

A
  • Vascular ectasias
  • Neoplasm
  • NSAID-induced erosions and ulcers
541
Q

Most common cause of significant small intestinal GIB in children

A

Meckel diverticulum

542
Q

Most common cause of LGIB

A

Hemorrhoids

543
Q

Aside from hemorrhoids and anal fissures, what is the most common cause of LGIB?

A

Diverticulosis

544
Q

Usual location of diverticulosis

A

Right colon

545
Q

Bleeding stop spontaneously in how many percent of diverticulosis?

A

~80-90%

546
Q

Rebleeding rate in diverticulosis

A

~15-40%

547
Q

Without source of GIB identified on UGIE and colonoscopy

A

Obscure GIB

548
Q

Bleeding vascular ectasias and aortic stenosis

A

Heyde’s syndrome

549
Q

2 most common causes of significant colonic GIB in children and adolescents

A
  • Inflammatory bowel disease

* Juvenile polyps

550
Q

Measurement of these 2 is the best way to initially assess a patient with GIB

A

Heart rate and BP

551
Q

It may take up to how many hours for Hgb to fall in acute GIB

A

72 hrs

552
Q

Hemoglobin does not fall immediately in acute GIB. Why?

A

Proportionate reductions in plasma and red cell volumes

553
Q

Transfusion is recommended once Hgb is _____. And what do you call this strategy?

A
  • ≤ 7 g/dL

* Restrictive transfusion strategy

554
Q

In melena, blood has been present in the GIT for how many hours?

A

≥ 14 h or as long as 3-5 days

555
Q

Aside from melena, what are 2 other clues of UGIB in differentiating with LGIB?

A
  • Hyperactive bowel sounds

* Elevated BUN

556
Q

3 baseline characteristics predictive of rebleeding and death in UGIB:

A
  • Hemodynamic compromise
  • Increasing age
  • Comorbidities
557
Q

Promotility agent to improve visualization? Dose?

A

Erythromycin 250 mg IV ~ 30 min before endoscopy

558
Q

In what subset of UGIB patients will you give antibiotics? And what antibiotics?

A
  • Cirrhotic

* Quinolone or ceftraixone

559
Q

May improve control of bleeding in cirrhotics with UGIB in the 1st 12 h after presentation

A

IV vasoactive medications

560
Q

When should you perform upper endoscopy? In high-risk patients?

A
  • Within 24 hrs

* Within 12 hrs

561
Q

BUN scoring in Glasgow- Blatchford score

A
  • 18.2 to <22.4 = 2
  • 22.4 to <28.0 = 3
  • 28.0 to <70.0 = 4
  • ≥ 70 = 6
562
Q

Hemoglobin scoring in Glasgow- Blatchford score (men and women)

A
  • 12 to <13 (men) = 1
  • 10 to <12 (women) = 1
  • 10 to <12 (men = 3
  • <10 = 6
563
Q

SBP scoring in Glasgow- Blatchford score

A
  • 100-109 = 1
  • 90-99 = 2
  • <90 = 3
564
Q

Heart rate scoring in Glasgow- Blatchford score

A

≥ 100 = 1

565
Q

Scoring of other markers in Glasgow- Blatchford score

A
  • Melena = 1
  • Syncope = 2
  • Hepatic disease = 2
  • Cardiac failure = 2
566
Q

In patients with hematochezia + hemodynamic instability, what procedure should you do first?

A

UGIE to rule out UGIB

567
Q

Procedure of choice for LGIB, unless bleeding is too massive

A

Colonoscopy

568
Q

Procedure for massive LGIB

A

Angiography

569
Q

Procedure for LGIB in patients < 40 years old with minor bleeding

A

Sigmoidoscopy

570
Q

Initial test in patients with massive bleeding from the small intestine

A

Angiography

571
Q

Next step in patients with GIB with negative UGIE or colonoscopy

A
  • Second-look procedure – repeat upper and lower endoscopy

* May also do push enteroscopy

572
Q

Inspect the entire duodenum and proximal jejunum with a pediatric colonoscope

A

Push enteroscopy

573
Q

If second-look procedure in GIB patient is negative, what is the next step?

A

Video capsule endoscopy (may also do push enteroscopy)

574
Q

May be used initially instead of video capsule in patients with possible small bowel narrowing

A

CT enterography

575
Q

If capsule endoscopy is negative, what is the next step?

A

Observe or do further testing with deep enteroscopy

576
Q

Next step if you have a positive FOBT:

A

Do colonoscopy

577
Q

Responsible for nearly 50% of the mortality from all cirrhosis

A

Chronic and excessive alcohol ingestion

578
Q

Pathology of ALD consists of three major lesions:

A

Fatty liver
Alcoholic hepatitis
Cirrhosis

579
Q

Mortality of patients with alcoholic hepatitis concurrent with cirrhosis:

A

nearly 60% at 4 years

580
Q

World’s third largest risk factor for disease burden

A

Alcohol

581
Q

Cause of most of the mortality attributed to alcohol

A

Cirrhosis

Mortality is directly related to alcohol consumption

582
Q

The most important risk factors involved in the development of ALD (2)

A

Quantity and duration of alcohol intake

583
Q

T or F. Men are more susceptible to ALD

A

False. Women are more susceptible.

  • Develop advanced liver disease with substantially less alcohol intake
  • Due to effects of estrogen, proportion of body fat, and gastric metabolism of alcohol
584
Q

~12g of alcohol is equivalent to (in terms of beer, wine and spirits)?

A
  • 1 beer
  • 4 oz of wine
  • 1 oz of 80% spirits
585
Q

Threshold in developing ALD (women and men)

A
  • > 14 drinks per week in men

* > 7 drinks per week in women

586
Q

Beverage that has protective effect in ALD

A

Coffee

587
Q

The initial and most common histologic response to hepatotoxic stimuli

A

Fatty liver

588
Q

The major enzyme responsible for alcohol metabolism

A

alcohol dehydrogenase

589
Q

Hepatocyte injury characterized by: ballooning degeneration, spotty necrosis, polymorphonuclear infiltrate, and fibrosis in the perivenular and perisinusoidal space of Disse

A

Alcoholic hepatitis

590
Q

Critically ill patients with alcoholic hepatitis short-term (30-day) mortality rates of >50% is seen in patients with (6)

A
  • Coagulopathy – prothrombin time increased >5 s
  • Anemia
  • Serum albumin <25 g/L (2.5 mg/dL)
  • Serum bilirubin >137 μmol/L (8 mg/dL)
  • Renal failure
  • Ascites
591
Q

In liver disease, discriminant function score that indicates poor prognosis is

A

> 32

592
Q

Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD) score that indicates significant mortality in alcoholic hepatitis

A

≥21

593
Q

Based on MELD scoring, dismal prognosis of cirrhosis is seen in patients with (4)

A
  • Ascites
  • Variceal hemorrhage
  • Deep encephalopathy
  • Hepatorenal syndrome
594
Q

the cornerstone in the treatment of alcoholic liver disease

A

Complete abstinence from alcohol

595
Q

Glucocorticoids may be given in ALD if the DF is ___ and MELD scores is ____

A

For DF >32 or MELD >20

Prednisone 40 mg/day or Prednisolone 32 mg/day for 4 weeks

596
Q

T or F. Women with encephalopathy from severe alcoholic hepatitis are good candidates for glucocorticoids

A

True

597
Q

Nonspecific TNF inhibitor that may be used for severe alcoholic hepatitis

A

Pentoxifylline

598
Q

T or F. Transplant candidacy for ALD should be reevaluated after a defined period of sobriety

A

Patients presenting with alcoholic hepatitis – not a transplant candidate

599
Q

In men, ______ of ethanol produces fatty liver; ______ for 10–20 years causes hepatitis or cirrhosis. Only ____ of alcoholics develop alcoholic liver disease.

A

40–80 g/d
160 g/d
15%

600
Q

T or F. When the underlying insult that has caused the cirrhosis has been removed, there can be reversal of fibrosis

A

True

601
Q

Reversal of fibrosis is most apparent in treatment of what cause of cirrhosis?

A

chronic hepatitis C

602
Q

Reversal of fibrosis may be observed after treatment of what underlying causes of cirrhosis? (3)

A
  • Chronic hepatitis C
  • Hemochromatosis
  • Alcoholic liver disease
603
Q

In terms of nodules, alcoholic cirrhosis is classified as

A

Micronodular cirrhosis

Nodules are usually < 3 mm in diameter

604
Q

In terms of nodules, alcoholic cirrhosis after cessation of alcohol use is classified as

A

mixed macro- and micronodular cirrhosis

larger nodules may form after cessation

605
Q

Ethanol is mainly absorbed by the

A

small intestine and through stomach (lesser degree)

606
Q

Unique form of hemolytic anemia in severe alcoholic hepatitis with spur cells and acanthocytes

A

Zieve’s syndrome

607
Q

Reflective of portal hypertension with hypersplenism in cirrhosis

A

Thrombocytopenia

608
Q

AST:ALT ration in alcoholic cirrhosis

A

2:1

609
Q

Liver biopsy is withheld until abstinence has been maintained for at least

A

6 months to determine residual, nonreversible disease

610
Q

5-year survival rate for patients with complications of cirrhosis and continue to drink

A

<50%

611
Q

Cornerstone of therapy of alcoholic cirrhosis

A

Abstinence

612
Q

Percentage of hepatitis C virus that develop into chronic hepatitis C

A

80%

613
Q

Percentage of chronic hepatitis C will develop cirrhosis over 20-30 years

A

20-30%

614
Q

T or F. Liver damage in cirrhosis secondary to chronic hepatitis C is due to cytopathic effect of the virus

A

False. It is a noncytopathic virus – liver damage is probably immune-related

615
Q

In terms of nodules, cirrhosis secondary to chronic hepatitis C is classified as

A

mixed macro- and micronodular cirrhosis

616
Q

Percentage of hepatitis B virus that develop into chronic hepatitis B

A

5%

617
Q

Percentage of chronic hepatitis B will develop cirrhosis

A

20%

618
Q

Highly successful therapy for cirrhosis with hepatitis C

A

Direct-acting antiviral protocols

  • Well-tolerated
  • Short duration (8-12 weeks)
  • Costly
619
Q

T or F. Treatment of autoimmune hepatitis includes immunosuppressive therapy such as glucocorticoids or azathioprine

A

False. Will not benefit from immunosuppressive therapy with glucocorticoids or azathioprine  because the AIH is “burned out”.

620
Q

Positive autoimmune markers in autoimmune hepatitis (2)

A
  • ANA

* Anti-smooth-muscle antibody (ASMA)

621
Q

T or F. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis can progress to increased fibrosis and cirrhosis

A

True

622
Q

Type of biliary cirrhosis that will have no improvement with surgical or endoscopic interventions

A

Intrahepatic

623
Q

Type of biliary cirrhosis that will benefit from surgical or endoscopic biliary tract decompression

A

Extrahepatic

624
Q

All chronic cholestatic syndromes share the histopathologic features of chronic cholestasis, such as (4)

A
  • Cholate stasis
  • Copper deposition
  • Xanthomatous transformation of hepatocytes
  • Irregular biliary fibrosis
625
Q

Major causes of chronic cholestatic syndromes (4)

A
  • Primary biliary cholangitis
  • Autoimmune cholangitis
  • Primary sclerosing cholangitis
  • Idiopathic adulthood ductopenia
626
Q

T or F. Primary biliary cholangitis has strong male preponderance.

A

False. Female

Mostly seen in middle-aged women

627
Q

Portal inflammation and necrosis of cholangiocytes in small- and medium-sized bile ducts

A

Primary biliary cholangitis

628
Q

Antibodies present in 90% of cases of primary biliary cholangitis

A

Antimitochondrial antibodies (AMA)

  • Not pathogenic
  • Useful markers for making a diagnosis of PBC
629
Q

Treatment of primary biliary cholangitis (3)

A
  1. Liver transplantation
  2. Ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA)
  3. Obeticholic acid
630
Q

Treatment of choice for primary biliary cholangitis patients with decompensated cirrhosis

A

Liver transplantation

631
Q

The only approved treatment that has some degree of efficacy by slowing the rate of progression of the primary biliary cholangitis

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA)

13-15 mg/kg/day
Slow the rate of progression of PBC, but it does not reverse or cure the disease

632
Q

Approved for use in primary biliary cholangitis patients with inadequate response to UDCA

A

Obeticholic acid

633
Q

Earliest lesion of primary biliary cholangitis

A

Chronic nonsuppurative destructive cholangitis

  • Necrotizing inflammatory process of the portal tracts
  • Medium and small bile ducts are infiltrated with lymphocytes and undergo duct destruction
634
Q

In terms of nodules, cirrhosis secondary to primary biliary cholangitis is classified as

A

Micro- or macronodular

635
Q

Most notable clinical feature of primary biliary cholangitis

A

Significant degree of fatigue out of proportion to what be expected for either severity of the liver disease or the age of the patient

636
Q

The presence of this symptom prior to the development of jaundice indicates severe disease and poor prognosis

A

Pruritus

Present in 50% of cases and can be debilitating

637
Q

Features that are unique to primary biliary cholangitis (3)

A
  1. Hyperpigmentation (trunk and arms; seen in areas of exfoliation and lichenification associated with progressive scratching)
  2. Xanthelasma
  3. Xanthomata
638
Q

This tests are most important in the setting of AMA-negative PBC (2)

A
  1. Liver biopsy

2. Cholangiography

639
Q

Cholangiography must be done in patients with AMA-negative with cholestatic liver enzymes to rule out

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

640
Q

Treatment for intractable pruritus in PBC

A

Plasmapheresis

641
Q

Chronic cholestatic syndrome characterized by diffuse inflammation and fibrosis involving the entire biliary tree

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

642
Q

Final, end-stage manifestation of PSC

A

Biliary cirrhosis

643
Q

Biopsy finding in PSC

A

periductal fibrosis

Helpful in making diagnosis

644
Q

Antibodies that is positive in 65% of PSC

A

pANCA

645
Q

GI condition that is present in > 50% of patients with PSC

A

Ulcerative colitis

646
Q

Colonoscopy must be performed once PSC is established to rule out

A

Ulcerative colitis

647
Q

Definitive diagnostic test for PSC

A

Cholangiography

648
Q

Imaging technique of choice for initial evaluation of PSC

A

MRCP

649
Q

ERCP is performed in PSC to determine presence of

A

dominant stricture

650
Q

Cholangiographic findings of multifocal stricturing and beading involving both the intra- and extrahepatic biliary tree (classic beaded appearance)

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Stricture is short and with intervening segments of normal or slightly dilated bile ducts that are distributed diffusely

651
Q

PSC appearance on cholangiography associated with overall poor prognosis

A

High-grade, diffuse structuring of the intrahepatic bile ducts

652
Q

Definitive treatment of PSC

A

Liver transplantation

653
Q

Dreaded complication of PSC

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

Relative contraindication for liver transplantation

654
Q

Cardiac cirrhosis is secondary to

A

long-standing right-sided CHF

655
Q

Description of fibrosis in cardiac cirrhosis

A

Pericentral

656
Q

Inherited disorder of iron metabolism with progressive increase in hepatic iron deposition

A

Hemochromatosis

657
Q

Treatment of hemochromatosis

A

regular therapeutic phlebotomy

658
Q

Inherited disorder of copper homeostasis causing failure in excretion of excess amounts of copper resulting to accumulation of copper in the liver

A

Wilson’s disease

659
Q

Kayser-Fleischer corneal rings is seen in

A

Wilson’s disease

660
Q

Low ceruloplasmin and elevated 24-h urine copper levels are seen in

A

Wilson’s disease

661
Q

Treatment of Wilson’s disease

A

copper-chelating medications

662
Q

inherited disorder that causes abnormal folding of the α1AT protein

A

α1AT deficiency

663
Q

α1AT deficiency phenotype with greatest risk for development of chronic liver disease

A

ZZ phenotype

Only 10-20% develops chronic liver disease

664
Q

Liver biopsy result of periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-positive and diastase-resistant globules

A

α1AT deficiency

665
Q

Only effective treatment in α1AT deficiency

A

Liver transplantation

666
Q

Portal hypertension is elevation of the hepatic venous pressure gradient (HVPG) to

A

> 5 mmHg

667
Q

Portal hypertension is caused by 2 simultaneously occurring hemodynamic processes:

A
  1. Increased intrahepatic resistance to the passage of blood flow through the liver due to cirrhosis and regenerative nodules
  2. Increased splanchnic blood flow secondary to vasodilation within the splanchnic vascular bed
668
Q

Portal hypertension is directly responsible for 2 major complications of cirrhosis

A
  1. Variceal hemorrhage

2. Ascites

669
Q

Mortality rate of BEV with each episode of bleeding

A

20-30%

670
Q

Prehepatic causes of portal hypertension (3)

A
  1. Portal vein thrombosis
  2. Splenic vein thrombosis
  3. Massive splenomegaly (Banti’s syndrome)
671
Q

Which is the most common cause of portal hypertension: pre, intra, or posthepatic?

A

Intrahepatic (95%)

presinusoidal, sinusoidal, or postsinusoidal

672
Q

Cirrhosis is presinusoidal, sinusoidal, or postsinusoidal cause of portal hypertension?

A

Sinusoidal

673
Q

Presinusoidal cause of portal hypertension (2)

A
  1. Congenital hepatic fibrosis

2. Schistosomiasis

674
Q

Percentage of cirrhotic patients that has portal HPN

A

> 60%

675
Q

Postsinusoidal cause of portal hypertension

A

Venoocclusive disease

676
Q

Posthepatic causes of portal hypertension (3)

A
  1. Budd-Chiari Syndrome
  2. Venoocclusive disease
  3. Chronic right-sided cardiac congestion

Affecting the hepatic veins and venous drainage to the heart

677
Q

3 primary complications of portal hypertension

A
  1. Gastroesophageal varices with hemorrhage
  2. Ascites
  3. Hypersplenism
678
Q

Hepatic venous pressure gradient (HVPG) that is at risk for variceal hemorrhage

A

> 12 mmHg

679
Q

Sinusoidal cause of portal hypertension (2)

A
  1. Cirrhosis

2. Alcoholic hepatitis

680
Q

____ of patients with cirrhosis have varices. And ____ of patients with varices will develop bleeding

A

1/3

1/3

681
Q

_____ of cirrhotics per year develop varices

A

5-15%

682
Q

Certain endoscopic stigmata for esophageal varices (6)

A
  1. Red wale sign
  2. Hematocystic spots
  3. Diffuse erythema
  4. Bluish color
  5. Cherry red spots
  6. White-nipple spots
683
Q

2 main categories of treatment of esophageal varices

A
  1. Primary prophylaxis

2. Prevention of rebleeding

684
Q

Primary prophylaxis of esophageal varices (3)

A
  1. Endoscopy for routine screening
  2. Nonselective beta blockade (Nadolol and propranolol)
  3. Endoscopic variceal band ligation
685
Q

Medications that decrease mortality related to variceal hemorrhage

A

Nonselective beta blockade (Nadolol and propranolol)

686
Q

Prevention of rebleeding in esophageal varices is achieved by

A

Repeated variceal band ligation until varices are obliterated

687
Q

Vasoconstricting agents used in BEV (3)

A

Somatostatin
Octreotide
Vasopressin

688
Q

A direct splanchnic vasoconstrictor given in BEV

A

Octreotide 50-100 μg/h by continuous infusion

689
Q

Treatment of acute BEV for patients who cannot get endoscopic therapy immediately or who need stabilization prior to endoscopic therapy

A

Balloon tamponade
• Sengstaken-Blakemore tube
• Minnesota tube

690
Q

First-line treatment to control bleeding acutely in BEV

A

Endoscopic intervention

Sclerotherapy
EVBL

691
Q

If with bleeding from gastric varices that cannot be controlled by EVL, what is the next step?

A

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)

Creates a portosystemic shunt by a percutaneous approach using an expandable metal stent, which is advanced under angiographic guidance to the hepatic veins and then through the substance of the liver to create a direct portocaval shunt

692
Q

Alternative to surgery for acute decompression of portal hypertension

A

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)

693
Q

Complication of TIPS (in 20% of patients)

A

Encephalopathy

694
Q

Reserved for BEV patients who fail endoscopic or medical management or who are poor surgical risks

A

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)

695
Q

Management of recurrent variceal hemorrhage (4)

A
  1. Repeated variceal band ligation
  2. Beta blockade
  3. Portosystemic shunt surgery
  4. TIPS
696
Q

Usually the 1st indication of portal hypertension

A

Hypersplenism with thrombocytopenia

697
Q

Most common cause of ascites

A

Portal hypertension related to cirrhosis

698
Q

In ascitic patients, at least ____ of fluid in the abdomen before they are aware that there is an increase

A

1-2 L

699
Q

Hepatic hydrothorax is more common on what side

A

Right

Rent in the diaphragm with free flow of ascitic fluid into the thoracic cavity

700
Q

Serum ascites-to-albumin gradient (SAAG) that is indicative of portal hypertension

A

> 1.1 g/dL

701
Q

Serum ascites-to-albumin gradient (SAAG) that is indicative of infectious or malignant causes

A

<1.1 g/dL

702
Q

Absolute PMN level of ascitic fluid that is indicative of infection

A

> 250/μL

703
Q

Treatment of ascites secondary to cirrhosis (2)

A
  1. Dietary sodium restriction

2. Diuretic therapy

704
Q

Dietary sodium restriction in ascites

A

< 2 g of Na per day

705
Q

Dose of spironolactone and furosemide in ascites secondary to cirrhosis

A

Spironolactone 100-200 mg/day as a single dose; can be increased to 400-600 mg/d

Furosemide 40-80 mg/day; can be increased to 120-160 g/d

706
Q

Treatment of refractory ascites secondary to cirrhosis (3)

A
  1. Repeated large-volume paracentesis with albumin
  2. TIPS procedure
  3. Liver transplantation
707
Q

____ of patients survive 2 years after the onset of ascites in cirrhosis

A

<50%

Poor prognosis

708
Q

Spontaneous infection of the ascitic fluid without an intraabdominal source

A

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

709
Q

Presumed mechanism for development of SBP

A

Bacterial translocation

710
Q

Most common organism causing SBP

A

Escherichia coli

Other gut bacteria

Gram-positive bacteria: S. viridans, S. aureus, and Enterococcus sp.

711
Q

Secondary bacterial peritonitis is suspected if ____ organisms are identified in the culture of ascitic fluid

A

> 2

712
Q

Most common cause of secondary bacterial peritonitis

A

Perforated viscus

713
Q

Clinical presentation of SBP (5)

A
  1. Ascites
  2. Fever
  3. Altered mental status
  4. Elevated WBC
  5. Abdominal pain or discomfort
714
Q

T or F. In patients with BEV, prophylaxis for SBP must be given

A

True

715
Q

Treatment of SBP

A

3rd generation cephalosporin

716
Q

T or F. Hepatorenal syndrome is a combination of liver and renal pathology.

A

False. HRS is a form of functional renal failure without renal pathology

717
Q

Clinical feature of hepatorenal syndrome

A

large amount of ascites in patients who have a stepwise progressive increase in creatinine

718
Q

HRS type with progressive impairment in renal function and a significant reduction in creatinine clearance within 1-2 weeks of presentation

A

Type 1 HRS

Type 2 HRS – fairly stable

719
Q

Which HRS type has worse outcome?

A

Type 1 HRS

720
Q

Management of HRS (5)

A
  1. Dopamine or prostaglandin analogues
  2. Midodrine – α agonist
  3. Octreotide
  4. IV albumin
  5. Liver transplantation – best therapy
721
Q

Best therapy for HRS

A

Liver transplantation

722
Q

Alteration in mental status and cognitive function in the presence of liver failure

A

Hepatic encephalopathy

723
Q

T or F. Development of encephalopathy is a requirement to arrive at a diagnosis of fulminant hepatic failure

A

True

724
Q

T or F. Brain edema occurs in hepatic encephalopathy

A

True

725
Q

Sudden forward movement of the wrist when patients extend their arms and bend their wrists back

A

Asterixis

“liver flap”

726
Q

Dietary protein used in management of hepatic encephalopathy

A

vegetable-based protein

727
Q

Mainstay of treatment of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Lactulose

728
Q

Non-absorbable disaccharide that causes colonic acidification and catharsis in patients with hepatic encephalopathy

A

Lactulose

729
Q

Dose of rifaximin in hepatic encephalopathy

A

550 mg BID

730
Q

Vitamin K Dependent clotting factors

A

II, VII, IX, X

731
Q

Common abnormality in RBC morphology of cirrhotic patients

A

Macrocytosis