Gastric & Peritoneal Pathology - Nelson Flashcards

1
Q

What are the normal damaging forces and defensive forces acting on the gastric mucosa?

A
  • Damaging forces:
    • Gastric acidity
    • Peptic enzymes
  • Defensive forces:
    • Surface mucus secretion
    • Bicarbonate secretion
    • Mucosal blood flow
    • Apical surface membrane transport
    • Epithelial regenerative capacity
    • Elaboration of prostaglandins
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2
Q

What are the main mechanisms of gastric mucosal injury?

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Aspirin
  • Cigarettes
  • Alcohol
  • Gastric hyperacidity
  • Duodenal-gastric reflux
  • H. pylori infection
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3
Q

What is the difference between a mucosal erosion and a mucosal ulcer?

A
  • mucosal erosion = loss and necrosis of surface epithelium, confined to the lamina propria, i.e. mucosa
  • acute ulceration = necrotizing process extends beyond the mucosa into the submucosa and even into and through the muscle wall
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4
Q

What are the main causes of acute gastric ulceration?

A
  • Acute infection with Helicobacter organisms
  • First time use of large doses of NSAIDs and aspirin (cyclooxygenase inhibition)
  • Ingestion of large quantities of alcohol (direct toxic effect)
  • Patients with shock, trauma, sepsis, uremia, severe burns, and intracranial disease can get acute stress ulcers (burns – Curling’s ulcers in duodenum; CNS injury – Cushing’s ulcers)
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5
Q

What is the most common pathologic finding in H. pylori gastritis?

A

active chronic gastritis

  • typically begins in the antrum and can progress to involve the fundus
  • morphologic findings of gastric atrophy can also be present
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6
Q

What are the complications of H. pylori infection?

A
  • high acid production
  • mucosal erosions
  • peptic ulcers
  • Complications also include MALT-lymphoma and gastric adenocarcinoma.
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7
Q

How does one typically acquire H. helmannii gastritis?

A

This organism has reservoirs in cats, dogs, pigs, and nonhuman primates.

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8
Q

Which H. pylori diagnostic tests indicate active infection?

A
  • Rapid urease testing
  • Urea Breath test
  • Direct antigen test (stool antigen test)
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9
Q

What is the pathogenesis of autoimmune gastritis?

A
  • Autoimmune CD4+ T-cell mediated destruction of parietal cells
  • Chief cells are also lost during destruction of the gastric glands (“bystander damage”).
  • Antibodies to parietal cells and intrinsic factor are also produced as part of the autoimmune response, but are not pathogenic (can be used as a diagnostic test).
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10
Q

What are the key clinical findings in autoimmune gastritis?

A
  • Clinical findings develop after many years and are related to vitamin B12 deficiency:
    • Megaloblastic anemia (macrocytic anemia)
    • Atrophic glossitis
    • Malabsorptive diarrhea
    • Peripheral neuropathy:
      • Secondary to subacute combined degeneration of the dorsal and lateral spinal columns.
      • Patients can present with paresthesias and ataxia associated with loss of vibration and position sense, and can progress to severe weakness, spasticity, clonus, paraplegia, and fecal and urinary incontinence.
  • CNS alterations can also occur, including mild personality changes, memory loss, and psychosis.
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11
Q

What are the common causes of chronic reactive gastropathy?

A
  • chemical mucosal injury
  • NSAIDs
  • aspirin
  • bile reflux
  • alcohol ingestion
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12
Q

What are the two common causes of peptic ulcer disease?

A
  • Most cases are due to either:
    • H. pylori chronic gastritis
    • chronic use of NSAIDs
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13
Q

What are the three complications of peptic ulcer disease?

A
  • Bleeding
    • clinical hemorrhage as well as iron deficiency anemia
  • Perforation
  • Obstruction
    • particularly when the ulcer is located in the pyloric channel
    • secondary to edema and fibrosis
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14
Q

What are the key pathologic and clinical features of eosinophilic gastritis?

A
  • Pathologic:
    • eosinophil rich inflammation, in the absence of a known cause for eosinophilia
      • e.g. reaction to drugs, parasitic infections, malignancy
    • most cases secondary to some type of allergic reaction to a food allergen
      • e.g. cow’s milk or soy protein in children
  • Clinical:
    • Lesions may present as a mass, large ulcer, or with pyloric obstruction
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15
Q

What are the key pathologic and clinical features of granulomatous gastritis?

A
  • Pathologic:
    • gastritis with granulomatous inflammation
  • Clinical:
    • Most cases are secondary to an underlying disorder, such as Crohn’s disease, sarcoidosis, mycobacterial or fungal infections.
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16
Q

What are the key pathologic and clinical features of lymphocytic gastritis?

A
  • Pathologic:
    • gastritis characterized by marked intraepithelial lymphocytic inflammation (CD8+ T lymphocytes).
  • Clinical:
    • Can be seen as an isolated finding, or in patient’s with either co-existing celiac disease or in patients with co-existing lymphocytic/collagenous colitis.
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17
Q

What is the pathogenic mechanism of Menetrier’s disease?

A
  • Very rare disorder caused by excessive secretion of transforming growth factor alpha (TGF-α).
    • This results in marked diffuse hyperplasia of the foveolar epithelium of the body and fundus of the stomach
  • Some cases of Menetrier’s disease are associated with an infection (e.g. CMV in children)
18
Q

What is the pathogenic mechanism of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A
  • Caused by gastrin secreting tumors
    • gastrinomas: a functioning type of neuroendocrine tumor
    • most commonly found in the pancreas and small bowel
  • Results in:
    • elevated gastrin
    • marked increase in the number of parietal cells, with increased gastric acid production
    • hyperplasia of mucus neck cells with mucin hyperproduction
    • proliferation of endocrine cells in the stomach which can result in gastric carcinoid tumors
19
Q

What are the key features of hyperplastic polyps?

A
  • Most occur in association with chronic gastritis
    • H. pylori gastritis, chronic reactive gastropathy, autoimmune gastritis
  • 75% of all gastric polyps
  • most occur in the gastric antrum, followed by the body
  • These polyps may represent an exaggerated mucosal response to tissue injury and inflammation.
  • Rarely, dysplasia and adenocarcinoma can develop in hyperplastic polyps.
20
Q

What are the key features of cystic fundic gland polyps?

A
  • AKA = Fundic Polyp
  • Most occur in association with the use of proton pump inhibitors,
    • secondary to increased gastrin secretion in response to decreased gastric acid.
  • These polyps can also be seen in individuals with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP).
21
Q

What are the key features of gastric adenomas?

A
  • Neoplastic polyp morphologically similar to other adenomas found in the GI tract (e.g. colon).
  • Incidence of gastric adenomas increases with age, with most occurring in patients age 50 years and older.
  • Gastric adenomas are also increased in incidence in patients with FAP.
22
Q

What are the key features of inflammatory fibroid polyps?

A
  • Mesenchymal polypoid proliferation composed of a mixture of stromal spindle cells, small blood vessels, and inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils.
  • Can occur anywhere in the GI tract but stomach and small intestine are the most common sites.
  • Usually occur in middle aged females, and are felt to represent a reactive “pseudotumor.”
23
Q

What is the clinical presentation and treatment of congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

A
  • Clinical presentation:
    • Occurring in 1 of 300 to 900 live births, it is 3-4 times more common in males.
    • Patients typically present in the second or third week of life with new-onset regurgitation and persistent, projectile, non-bilious vomiting.
    • Physical examination may reveal a firm abdominal ovoid mass.
  • Treatment:
    • Surgical myotomy is curative.
24
Q

What are the risk factors for gastric adenocarcinoma?

A
  • Chronic gastritis, such as H. pylori gastritis and autoimmune gastritis (intestinal metaplasia-dysplasia-carcinoma sequence).
  • Dietary carcinogens (nitrosamines, smoked foods).
  • Menetrier’s disease.
  • Diets lacking in fruits/vegetables (antioxidants).
  • Patients with familial adenomatosis polyposis (FAP).
25
Q

What are the two morphologic patterns of gastric adenocarcinoma?

A
  • Intestinal type:
    • can present as a polypoid invasive mass or invasive ulcer.
    • Microscopically, tumor shows glandular differentiation.
  • Diffuse type:
    • presents as diffuse involvement and thickening of the gastric wall (mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis propria).
    • Microscopically, see signet-ring cells.
    • Diffuse involvement of the gastric wall can produce rigidity and a leather bottle appearance (linitis plastica).
26
Q

What is the most common location for GIST (Gastrointestinal stromal tumors) tumor?

A

Can arise anywhere in the GI tract, but stomach is the most common site (60% stomach, 30% jejunum and ileum, 5% duodenum, <5% colorectum).

27
Q

What types of cells do GIST tumor cells differentiate into?

A

interstitial cells of Cajal

(specialized cells involved in gut peristalsis)

28
Q

What is the key genetic defect in GIST tumors?

A

Most GISTs (85%) have a oncogenic, gain-of-function mutations of the gene encoding receptor tyrosine kinase KIT.

29
Q

What is the rationale for the use of Gleevec in treatment of GIST tumors?

A
  • Gleevec = tyrosine kinase inhibitor imatinib mesylate
    • targets mutation directly
30
Q

What is the most common risk factor for gastric MALT lymphoma?

A
  • Chronic Inflammation
    • persistent infection with chronic antigenic stimulation results in activation of transcription factors that promote B-cell growth and survival
    • persistent H. pylori antigenic stimulation can activate transcription and induce a MALT lymphoma without genetic translocations
31
Q

What is the remarkably simple first line therapy used for primary treatment of gastric MALT lymphoma.

A

Antibiotics

32
Q

What are the key pathologic features and clinical presentation of “carcinoid syndrome”?

A
  • Clinical:
    • cutaneous flushing, sweating, bronchospasm, colicky abdominal pain, diarrhea, and right sided valvular fibrosis
  • Pathologic:
    • symptoms are produced by bioactive substances secreted by the tumor
      • such as seratonin, histamine, and bradykinin
    • as these substances are typically metabolized by the liver, the presence of carcinoid syndrome strongly suggests that metastatic disease may be present.
33
Q

What is a helpful diagnostic test that can assist in diagnosis of “carcinoid syndrome”?

A

the detection of 24 hour urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA), a metabolite of seratonin

34
Q

What is peritonitis?

A

inflammation of the thin, mesothelial covered layer of tissue that lines the abdominal cavity (peritoneum) and covers most of the abdominal organs (serosa)

35
Q

What are some of the causes of peritonitis?

A
  • Bacterial peritonitis: can be secondary to perforation of a viscus
    • e.g. acute appendicitis, peptic ulcer, acute cholecystitis, diverticulitis, ischemic bowel, trauma), acute salpingitis, and peritoneal dialysis.
    • Also can occur as spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
  • Bile peritonitis: leakage of bile causes chemical irritation
  • Acute hemorrhagic necrotizing pancreatitis
  • Foreign material, either exogenous (e.g. talc or sutures), or endogenous (ruptured dermoid cyst of ovary induces foreign body reaction).
  • Endometriosis: localized hemorrhage.
36
Q

What is ascites?

A

accumulation of excess fluid in the peritoneal cavity

37
Q

What are some of the causes of ascites?

A
  • Most common = portal hypertension associated with cirrhosis
  • decreased osmotic pressure
    • e.g. hypoalbuminemia
  • “exudative” processes such as peritoneal disease resulting in extravasation of exudative fluid
    • e.g. peritoneal malignancy
38
Q

By a wide margin, what is the most common cause of ascites?

A

portal hypertension associated with cirrhosis

39
Q

What is the most significant complication of ascites?

A

spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

40
Q

What is the rationale for the use of laboratory tests of ascitic fluid, including cell count, gram stain, culture, albumin, total protein, and cytologic examination?

A

Analysis of the ascitic fluid can help determine the cause of ascites as well as determine if the fluid is infected (a frequent clinical concern).

  • Cell count with differential white cell count (neutrophil count greater than 250/ml indicates possible infection).
  • Culture of the ascitic fluid, gram stain (gram stain positive in only 10% of cases of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis).
  • Albumin (for determining serum ascites- albumin gradient, which can be used to determine if the fluid is an exudate or transudate).
  • Total protein (exudate or transudate)
  • Fluid cytology (if malignancy suspected).
41
Q

Which two metastatic tumors are the most common cause of malignant ascites?

A

ovarian and pancreatic carcinomas

42
Q

What is idiopathic retroperitoneal fibrosis?

A

dense fibrosing process that can result in renal failure due to ureteral obstruction