Gaps in IPP Flashcards

1
Q

Can the SRA order you to pay compensation if an undertaking is breached?

A

No. There is never an obligation to give an undertaking. You should record undertakings given and discharged.

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2
Q

Can you act for both a mortgage lender and borrower if the contract is on standard terms

A

Not always. You must always consider whether there is a conflict but can act if there is a substantially common interest. They key is acting in the best interests of the clients.

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3
Q

Who do you need to check the identity of when carrying out due diligence on companies?

A

All directors and shareholders who control MORE THAN 25% of the shares.

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4
Q

Can you act for both sides of a contentious matter if they are represented by different solicitors in the same firm?

A

No. You must refuse to act even if the two solicitors are supervised by different people. They cannot consent to this.

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5
Q

What remedies can the ombudsman impose?

A

Cannot impose fine, only compensation (+interest, pay costs and limit fees) apology and put right/specific action order.
Rule 5.38 The ombudsman’s determination may contain one or more of the following directions to the authorised person in favour of the complainant:
a) to apologise;
b) to pay compensation of a specified amount for loss suffered;
c) to pay interest on that compensation from a specified time;
d) to pay compensation of a specified amount for inconvenience/distress caused;
e) to ensure (and pay for) putting right any specified error, omission or other deficiency;
f) to take (and pay for) any specified action in the interests of Legal Ombudsman Scheme Rules 21 the complainant;
g) to pay a specified amount for costs the complainant incurred in pursuing the complaint;
h) to limit fees to a specified amount.

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6
Q

Lack of training defense to failure to report money laundering

A

A solicitor who was never trained to recognise that certain behaviour indicates money laundering may be able to use a lack of training as a defence to any charge that he failed to report suspicions of money laundering under s.330 Proceeds of Crime Act 2002.

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7
Q

What does it mean for you to account properly to a client for profits made?

A

This doesn’t necessarily mean paying money to the client, you could offset it against your charges

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8
Q

Do you always need to set out in writing the costs at the start of each matter?

A

Normally yes, but not if it is a regular client who is already aware of the firm’s charges.

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9
Q

|What happens to jointly owned property on death -intestate/ will

A

Passes through survivorship for will and intestate

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10
Q

When does the first IHT installment need t be paid?

A

six months after the end of the month of death, and payment can wait until that time even if the grant is obtained earlier (exception to usual requirement for IHT to be paid before grant obtained)

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11
Q

Can IHT continue to be paid in installments if the property is sold

A

No. On the sale all outstanding tax and interest becomes payable

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12
Q

What interest is payable on IHT installments?

A

You will not pay any interest on the first instalment unless you pay late. On each later instalment you must pay interest on both of the following:
• the full outstanding tax balance
• the instalment itself, from the date it’s due to the date of payment (if it’s paid late)

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13
Q

What kind of property is eligible for IHT installments?

A

What you can pay in instalments :
• Houses - You can pay 10% and the interest each year if you decide to keep the house to live in.
• Net value of a business run for profit but not it’s assets
• Quoted Shares and securities giving control
• Agricultural land and property
• land of any description.
• Gifts of buildings, shares of securities or part or all of a business. If the gift was an unlisted share or security it must still have been unlisted at the time of death.
• Unquoted shares of securities if they’re worth more than £20,000 and either of these apply:
o they represent 10% of the total value of the shares in the company, at the price they were first sold at (known as the ‘nominal’ value or ‘face value’)
o they represent 10% of the total value of ordinary shares held in the company, at the price they were first sold at
You can also pay in instalments if either of these apply:
• at least 20% of the total Inheritance Tax the estate owes is on assets that qualify for payment by instalments
• paying Inheritance Tax on them in one lump sum will cause financial difficulties

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14
Q

What is a substitutional gift under S33 Wills Act

A

where a will contains a gift to a child or remoter descendant of T and B dies before T leaving issue then the Issue of B will recieve the gift unless a contrary intention appears by the will.

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15
Q

Types of grants

A
A Grant of Probate 
Letters of Administration
A grant of letters of administration with will annexed 
A grant ad colligenda bona 
A grant of administration de bonis non 
A grant pendant lite (pending suit)
A grant under Section 113 and 116 Senior Courts Act 1981 
A grant of double probate
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16
Q

A grant of probate

A

When there is a will

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17
Q

Letters of administration

A

when no will exists

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18
Q

A grant of letters of administration with will annexed

A

when a will is being proved but not by the executor named or if no executor has been named. For example, the grant could be taken out by a named beneficiary.

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19
Q

A grant ad colligenda bona

A

a limited grant obtained to deal with a particular asset if the full estate cannot be ascertained but urgent action is required. For example, a property sale but the estate cannot be distributed.

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20
Q

A grant of administration de bonis non

A

a grant obtained when there has been a previous grant issued but the last surviving personal representative has died without completing the administration of the estate, leaving no chain of representation.

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21
Q

A grant pendant lite (pending suit)

A

a grant issued where the estate is subject to legal proceedings/a claim where the persons who would normally obtain a grant have not been able to apply for a full grant beforehand. This is usually issued to an independent administrator to preserve the estate until the court proceedings are settled.

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22
Q

A grant under Section 113 and 116 Senior Courts Act 1981

A

a limited grant the court can issue to deal with any part of the deceased’s estate (s113) or to someone who would not normally be entitled to take out a grant (s116).

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23
Q

A grant of double probate

A

when a grant has been issued with power reserved to another executor and that executor then wishes to act.

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24
Q

What to do when the only PR passes away before T and before obtaining the grant of probate

A

if there are other PRs then they can continue to administer the estate.
If there are no PRs left then The Non-Contentious Probate Rules 1987 (NCPR) determine who is entitled to obtain a ‘grant of letters of administration with will annexed’. In order of priority:
1. a trustee of the ‘residuary estate’
2. a residuary beneficiary
3. a personal representative of any residuary beneficiary
4. a ‘legatee’ (a person who receives a legacy) or a creditor of the deceased
5. a personal representative of a legatee or creditor of the deceased
If one or more persons are entitled to the same degree any can apply for the grant without notice to the others.
Only up to 4 PRs. Family decide who applies

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25
Q

What to do when the only PR passes away before T but after obtaining the grant of probate but before the administration of the estate is complete

A

If the Will names any additional executors, then they would be responsible for stepping in.
If not, then the PRs of the dead PR step in - chain of representation. They must apply for grant to be revoked and get a new one in their own name.
If the dead PR didn’t leave a will then the following people in order of priority can apply for a grant de bonis:
1. a trustee of the ‘residuary estate’
2. a residuary beneficiary
3. a personal representative of any residuary beneficiary
4. a ‘legatee’ (a person who receives a legacy) or a creditor of the deceased
5. a personal representative of a legatee or creditor of the deceased

26
Q

Who administers the estate when the deceased is intestate?

A

In order of priority the following are entitled to a grant of administration

(a) the surviving husband or wife;
(b) the children of the deceased and the issue of any deceased child who died before the deceased;
(c) the father and mother of the deceased;
(d) brothers and sisters of the whole blood and the issue of any deceased brother or sister of the whole blood who died before the deceased;
(e) brothers and sisters of the half blood and the issue of any deceased brother or sister of the half blood who died before the deceased;
(f) grandparents;
(g) uncles and aunts of the whole blood and the issue of any deceased uncle or aunt of the whole blood who died before the deceased;
(h) uncles and aunts of the half blood and the issue of any deceased uncle or aunt of the half blood who died before the deceased.

27
Q

matters which the client must be informed of at the start of the transaction

A
  • regulation of services/protection available to them
  • rights to challenge or complain about the bill and when they may have to pay interest
  • at the start and throughout, likely overall cost of matter
28
Q

matters which the client must be informed of at the start of the transaction IN WRITING

A

right to complain and how to do this
right to complain to
Legal ombudsman and how to do this

29
Q

Can the legal ombudsman refer cases to the SRA

A

Yes, can refer cases of misconduct

30
Q

What are costs assessed against at court

A

they must be reasonably incurred and reasonable in amount

31
Q

Relevant ethical principles when your opponent is vulnerable

A

not to take unfair advantage of anyone. You should advise them to take independent advice.
Duty to act in best interests of client would conflict with duty to act with integrity here but integrity prevails as it best serves public interest
you do not need to advise them about their options/strategy

32
Q

What costs can be recovered before proceedings start

A

costs incurred before proceedings are started are not legally recoverable so should not be demanded.

33
Q

What things would make the SRA think someone is unsuitable to be a solicitor

A

Dishonesty
will refuse an application where there is evidence they cannot manage their finances properly and carefully unless there are exceptional circumstance /can rebut the presumption
the SRA looks at any behavior not compatible with that expected of a prospective solicitor

34
Q

What costs must a fee-paying client pay their solicitor

A

A fair and reasonable sum for work done on his/ her instructions. So, the solicitor can recover the full amount of his/ her costs from the client for all work that has been reasonably done and which are reasonable in amount. Doubt as to reasonableness where costs are being awarded on an indemnity basis are resolved in favour of the recipient (the solicitor).

35
Q

What costs does an unsuccessful litigant pay

A

An order for costs on the standard basis - reimburse successful litigant for costs reasonably incurred, i.e. reasonably necessary to bring the case.

questions of reasonableness resolved in favor of paying party

36
Q

what should a privately funded client be made aware of regarding the payment of costs?

A

If they are not publicly funded the clients should be informed that:
• They will be personally responsible for the full amount of costs, regardless of any order for costs made against their opponent;
• If they lose, they will probably also have to pay their opponent’s costs (IB(1.13));
• Even if they win, their opponent may not be ordered to pay the full amount of their costs and may not be capable of paying what he/she is ordered to pay; and
• If their opponent is publicly funded, they may not recover their costs even if they are successful.

37
Q

What to do when you suspect a client of money laundering

A

Verify their identify again
Report to NMLO and wait 7 WORKING days for permission to act.
The firm must stop acting to avoid the arranging offence
do not tell anyone incl outside the firm to avoid the tipping off offence

38
Q

What are the three most common types of oaths?

A

Oaths for executors
Oaths for administrators with will annexed
Oath for administrators

39
Q

Common purposes of oaths for administrators/executors

A

To give details of the deceased
To set out the basis of the applicant’s claim to take the grant
To require to applicant to swear that he will administer the estate correctly
In the case of oaths for executors and oaths for administrators with the will annexed, to identify and exhibit the will and any codicil
To swear to the value of the estate passing under the grant

40
Q

Why does an administrator / executor need to swear an oath?

A

A grant of representation will not be issued without an oath completed and sent to the probate registry

41
Q

Who should an oath be sworn in front of

A

Must be sworn before a commissioner for oaths or a solicitor holding a current practicing certificate.

42
Q

What information must an oath include?

A

the gross value of the property passing under the grant
the net value (after deduction of debts). The value of property not passing under the grant (e.g. by survivorship) is not included. If the estate does not exceed the IHT nil rate band they must swear this. They must round the net value to the nearest thousand and estate on the oath it does not exceed that figure.

43
Q

Oath for executors

A

Executors are appointed by valid wills. They may obtain a grant of probate and act alone. Even where the will appoints several executors they can either act together or alone.

44
Q

Oath for administrators with will annexed

A

used where there is a valid will but no executors willing and able to apply for a grant of probate. The appropriate grant is letters of administration with will annexed. Can only be 4 administrators maximum. Where there is a life interest or property passes to a minor the court normally requires a minimum of two administrators

45
Q

Oaths for administrators

A

this oath is required if the deceased has died totally intestate. There is an order of priority of people who can apply to administer an intestate estate but they must have a beneficial interest in the estate to apply. You must clear off anyone who has a higher priority then you before you can apply for a grant (this means you explain why they cannot apply for a grant)

46
Q

What is a form IHT 400

A

PRs fill this out to show how much IHT is paid. HMRC will return the accompanying HT421 to show IHT is paid.

47
Q

What steps should be taken before the distribution of the will to protect the PRs?

A

S27 notice
insurance
apply to court for directions

48
Q

What is a S27 notice (wills)

A

protects PRs from liability. Put notice in the gazette and local /national papers notifying details of estate and request that anyone who thinks they have a claim to come forward. Wait two months and then proceed to distribute estate.

49
Q

Rate of IHT to PETs

A

nil rate band @ 0% and 40% thereafter (allow for any cumulation). Tapering relief may be available if any tax is payable but tapering relief is only available for any amount above the nil rate band.

50
Q

Rate of IHT on LCTs (at time and then after death)

A

nil rate band @ 0% and 20% thereafter. If transferor dies within 7 years after transfer – re-calculate with nil rate band @ 0% and 40% thereafter (allow for any cumulation).

51
Q

When does tapering relief not apply to PET and LCTs

A

When the whole transfer is within the nil rate band

52
Q

When does a charitable donation in a will alter the IHT rate?

A

40% is replaced with 36% if the value gifted to charity amounts to at least 10% of the net estate at the date of death. Net estate = value left over after deducting any exemptions (incl nil rate resident band) and any other avaliable reliefs.

53
Q

What is the net estate?

A

value left over after deducting any exemptions (incl nil rate resident band) and any other avaliable reliefs.

54
Q

Does the annual exemption apply to transfers in a will

A

No. The annual exemption only applies to lifetime transfers, not transfers on death.

55
Q

Difference between PET and PCT

A

PET – a gift from one individual to another. Most lifetimes transfers are PETs
LCT- anything that isn’t a PET, most commonly payments to trusts and gifts to companies

56
Q

How to recalculate PET after death

A

Look back 7 years from the date of the last transfer(any PETs and LCTs within the 7 years before the last transfer). Apply annual exemptions to the transfers within the last 7 years of the date of the last transfer. Consider tapering relief. Deduct these from nil rate band. Taxable at 40%.

57
Q

how to calculate LCT before death/at time of transfer

A

apply annual exemptions. Deduct from nil rate band - The nil rate band available on a CLT will be reduced by any CLTs which the donor has made in the preceding seven years. Taxable at 20%.

58
Q

how to recalculate LCT after death

A

Taxed at 40%. Consider tapering relief. Reduce the nil rate band by any lifetime transfers made in the last 7 years before the LCT and any PETs. Consideration is given to any amount of IHT previously charged.

59
Q

Is income recieved on an estate before it is distributed liable for tax

A

Yes but not IHT.
income tax applies to the income that the estate receives (unless less than £100 from savings income) Personal allowance, personal saving allowance and dividend allowance are not available. Income tax is payable on rental income from property, company share income and dividend income.
CGT applies to gains on assets disposed of except assets transferred to the beneficiaries at a rate of 20%.
PR must give B a form R185 to show tax paid and B may have to pay more or could reclaim some depending on their financial position.

60
Q

rates of tax on income arising after death

A

Savings income: 20%
Dividends: 7.5%
Rents from property: 20%
No higher tax rates are applied, no matter how much income is received.

61
Q

How many PRs are needed

A

it is possible to have only one executor of a will but two is helpful where there is a will trust in your will because then they can be the trustees of the will trust

62
Q

minimum number of trustees required for a trust

A

2