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PMP I FINAL > Gait > Flashcards

Gait Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 2 phases of gait?

A

stance phase and swing phase

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2
Q

how much percentage is stance phase of a full gait cycle?

A

62%

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3
Q

how much percentage is swing phase of a full gait cycle?

A

38%

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4
Q

what are the three periods in a stance phase?

A

contact period
mid stance period
propulsive period

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5
Q

how much percentage is contact period of a full gait cycle?

A

17%

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6
Q

how much percentage is contact period of a stance phase?

A

27%

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7
Q

how much percentage is mid stance period of a full gait cycle?

A

25%

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8
Q

how much percentage is mid stance period of a stance phase?

A

40%

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9
Q

how much percentage is propulsive period of a full gait cycle?

A

20%

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10
Q

how much percentage is propulsive period of stance phase?

A

33%

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11
Q

lordosis

A

abnormal spine; peaks at the end of stance phase on the affected side

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12
Q

T/F increased arm swing is proportional to the same side pelvic rotation

A

FALSE. increased arm swing is proportional to the opposite side pelvic rotation

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13
Q

how can you tell if the pt has abnormal heel?

A

if > 5 degrees eversion is visible

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14
Q

contact period

A

begins when heel strikes; when FF loads, it ends

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15
Q

midstance period

A

begins with FF loading and ends with heel off

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16
Q

propulsive period

A

begins with heel off and ends with toe off

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17
Q

what are 2 indications of LLD (limb length discrepancy)?

A

head tilt and shoulder drop

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18
Q

T/F during stance phase, knee should 5 degrees internally rotate from heel contact position of the knee

A

TRUE

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19
Q

patellar position:

internal torsion of femur –> _____ patellar position

A

internal

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20
Q

patellar position: external torsion of femur –> _____ patellar position

A

external

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21
Q

abductory twist

A

STJ needs to be max pronated –> yields heel adduction at heel lift

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22
Q

antalgic gait

A

walking with pain; quick soft steps

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23
Q

spastic gait

A

unbalanced muscle, some sort of deformity, equines (cannot bring ankle 10 degrees past 90 degrees with knee flexed/extended)

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24
Q

ataxic gait

A

has 2 types (spinal and cerebellar); has a wide base of gait

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25
Q

Parkinsonian gait

A

trunk is bent forward (so the pt has forward momentum); short, shuffling steps

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26
Q

paralytic gait

A

have muscle paralysis/weakness due to nerve/muscle/osseus pathology

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27
Q

when we discuss gait, mature gait is considered over ______ years of age

A

4

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28
Q

what are the phases of walking in order?

A

development > rhythmic > decay

29
Q

describe what marks the beginning and end of the stance phase:

A

heel contact > toe off

30
Q

what subdivision of the stance phase is the shortest

A

contact phase > 10% of gait, 18% of stance

31
Q

explain the significance of “rockers”

A

fulcrum to encourage motion

32
Q

110 steps per minute describes?

A

cadence

33
Q

what is the average cadence?

A

101-122/min

34
Q

when cadence increases, double support _____ (inc/dec)

A

decreases

35
Q

the distance of one heel strike to the next heel strike is on average _____’’

A

3.5’’

36
Q

when tracking the center of gravity, the motion created is best described as a _____

A

spiral

37
Q

the action of muscles on bones and joints is best described by which Newton’s law?

A

1st- an object at rest will stay at rest unless another force acts upon it

38
Q

describe the mechanisms by which we conserve energy

A

1) pelvic rotation
2) pelvic tilt
3) knee flexion in stance
4) knee flexion with foot DF and PF
5) lateral displacement of pelvis

39
Q

energy use by muscles is greatest at which of the lower extremity joint(s)?

A

ankle and hip

40
Q

the pelvis internally rotates during which phases of gait?

A

contact phase and swing phase

41
Q

during the contact phase of gait, what motion occurs at the STJ?

A

pronation

42
Q

arch collapse during contact phase primarily unctions to:

A

provide shock absorption

43
Q

during the contact phase of gait, ankle joint PF is countered by which muscles?

A

AT, EDL, EHL

44
Q

during mid stance, the lumbricales and interossei function to..

A

stabilize the proximal and middle phalanges for propulsion

45
Q

the posterior tibial and peroneus longs muscles work on the 2 mid tarsal joints during mid stance. which joint does the tibialis posterior work on and what is the motion it causes?

A

oblique MTJ > supination

46
Q

the posterior tibial and peroneus longs muscles work on the 2 mid tarsal joints during mid stance. which joint does the P. longus work on and what is the motion it causes?

A

longitudinal MTJ > pronation

47
Q

as the STJ supinates, what happens to the MTJ, creating what effect?

A

MTJ locking > rigid leverl

48
Q

during the propulsive phase, which rocker is operating?

A

FF rocker @ the MTPJ

49
Q

during active propulsion, supination occurs at which 2 joints?

A

STJ, OMTJ

50
Q

describe the windlass mechanism

A

engaging of the plantar fascia by extending the hallux resulting in higher arch, STJ supination and LMTJ pronation (PF of 1st ray = FF valgus)

51
Q

during active propulsion, which intrinsic muscle resists transverse splay of the FF?

A

adductor hallucis

52
Q

during mid stance and into active propulsion, which extrinsic muscle functions to create 1 unit between the calcaneus, cuboid and 5th metatarsal?

A

peroneus brevis

53
Q

by the end of passive lift off, the GRF reaches which value?

A

near 0

54
Q

the STJ supinates through passive lift off. what action causes the motion to convert to pronation?

A

EDH/EHL take over during swing to allow for toe clearance

55
Q

the oblique MTJ supinates during passive lift off. explain how this happens starting with the external rotation of the tibia

A

tibia externally rotates > abduction of the talus > PF and adduction of the FF = OMTJ supination

56
Q

which muscle causes the longitudinal MTJ to resupiante during swing?

A

tibialis anterior

57
Q

during which 2 phases are the gastric and soleal complex not working?

A

passive lift off and swing

58
Q

[HIGH YIELD] when does “double float” phase occur?

A

during running

59
Q

explain the first phase of walking, development

A

initiation of movement from rest to acceleration

60
Q

explain the second phase of walking, rhythmic

A

steady rate (after acceleration has stopped)

61
Q

explain the third phase of walking, decay

A

deceleration

62
Q

[HIGH YIELD] what are the “rockers”

A

fulcrum to encourage motion

63
Q

[HIGH YIELD] in which phase is the heel rocker?

A

contact phase

64
Q

[HIGH YIELD] in which phase is the ankle rocker?

A

midstance phase

65
Q

[HIGH YIELD] in which phase is FF rocker?

A

active propulsion and passive lift off

66
Q

[HIGH YIELD] cadence

A
  • step rate (# of steps/min)
  • avg 101-122/min
  • cadence slows with age
  • greater in women than in men
  • as cadence increases, stance and swing time decreases and so does double support
67
Q

[HIGH YIELD] stride

A
  • distance between 2 consecutive contacts of the same foot

- men= 14% greater than women

68
Q

[HIGH YIELD] step

A

-distance between heel contact of one to heel contact of another

69
Q

[HIGH YIELD] COG (center of gravity) rises by how much in mid stance?

A

25mm

PMP I FINAL (5 decks)

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