G500_600 Study Guide Flashcards
1
Q
Where can you find definitions for landing urgency
A
AFM 00-20-60
2
Q
What is the meaning of land as soon as possible
A
Land without delay where safe approach in Landing is assured
3
Q
How are CAS messages arranged
A
Chronologically within color groupings, with most recent at the top.
Ref: Gulfstream Symmetry 2B-07-20
4
Q
What are the five types of CAS messages
A
Single system, umbrella, consequential alert, collector, and directive
5
Q
What is a consequential alert CAS message
A
It shares a common cause with an umbrella
6
Q
What is the difference between meaning of red and amber CAS messages
A
Red requires immediate flight crew awareness and immediate flight crew response; Amber requires immediate flight crew awareness and subsequent flight crew response
7
Q
What does a gray switch indicate on 0HPTS
A
Unavailable selection
8
Q
What is the meaning of OHPTS switch with cyan font
A
Indicates operating state that triggers a cyan CAS message
9
Q
What is the meaning of OHPTS switch with Amber font
A
Generally indicates operating state that triggers an amber CAS message or reflects abnormal in-flight condition
10
Q
What controls automatic functions on aircraft
A
Data concentration Network (DCN) and secondary power distribution system (SPDS)
11
Q
How are cabin systems designed
A
With redundancy so single point failure doesn’t result in loss of cabin functionality
12
Q
What dampens main entry door during opening
A
Hydraulic damper with self contained recirculating supply of hydraulic oil
13
Q
What happens when outside door switch is selected to close
A
Circuit energizes to close provided external battery switches first selected on, aux pump operates, and door closes. Once the door is closed and electrically latched, circuit is deenergized, aux pump shuts off, and external battery may be selected to off
14
Q
What is the purpose of the door safety switch
A
When depressed, door safety switch prevents the door from closing
15
Q
What is the limitation associated with main entry acoustic door
A
Must be fully open during taxi, takeoff and landing
16
Q
When does acoustic door open automatically
A
With flaps selected to 10° or landing gear extension
17
Q
How could you investigate baggage compartment from main cabin without opening baggage compartment door
A
A peephole is provided to inspect baggage compartment in the event of onboard fire in baggage area
18
Q
Describe the seal on external baggage door
A
It features a passive seal to maintain pressurization
19
Q
What is AHTMS
A
Aircraft health and trend monitoring system: captures data from crew alerting system CAS, Central maintenance computer CMC, and flight data recorder FDR and transmits data to ground stations at predetermined intervals
20
Q
Describe primary escape routes on GVII
A
Includes main entry door and four emergency exit windows
21
Q
Describe what happens with selection of FDR/CMC event switch on 0HPTS
A
Places event stamp on FDR recording, initiates CMC time series recording, and switch legend illuminates blue
22
Q
What information is stored on cockpit voice recorder CVR
A
All audio signals transmitted and received by aircraft crewmembers, including all conversation in cockpit and CPDLC data
23
Q
What are requirements for erasing CVR
A
Must be on ground with main cabin door open
24
Q
What happens when ELT switch is selected to On
A
ELT transmits, LED indicator blinks red, and blue CAS message displays
25
Describe modular avionics units MAUs
They are the main computers and processors that control most avionics related applications on aircraft
26
Which display units D use are referred to as multi function displays MFDs
DU #2 and #3
27
What part display is cursor restricted from entering
ADI; otherwise, it can move anywhere in a display window on its associated DUs
28
What happens if both cursors are selected to the same DU
Last active cursor has exclusive control in making selections within the display in which both cursors reside
29
What is the purpose of the guidance panel
It provides most of controls for operation of automatic flight control system AFCS
30
What does an Amber MAG2 indicate on both PFD’s
It alerts the crew that both pilots are using same source for heading information: in this case, IRS #2
31
What does an amber RA2 indicate on both PFD’s
It alerts the crew that both pilots’ flight instruments are receiving radio altimeter data from same source
32
What is the purpose of 121. 5 EMER guarded physical switch located on sidewall above oxygen mask
Enables selection of emergency frequency for total TSC failure
33
What happens with selection of call inhibit
Prevents GCMS related messages from displaying on CAS display
34
What is the normal location of primary engine instruments
DU2 Upper
35
What is the normal location of CAS display
DU3 upper
36
What is the restriction on selection of full windows on DU2 and DU3
Cannot be selected on both DU2 and DU3 at the same time
37
What functions are available with phase of flight POF presets
They can be selected, stored, and reset
38
What is the source of HUD symbols
HUD computer
39
What is the source of the EVS image
EVS camera, unlike the HUD, uses infrared technology and is optimized to detect runway lighting
40
How should cloth cover be removed from combiner
Rockwell Collins recommends removing cloth cover after moving combiner to operation position. In like fashion, they recommend reattaching cloth cover before moving combiner to stow position
41
How would you know you have not place combiner in correct operating position
ALIGN HUD message appears on combiner display. If this occurs, carefully reposition combiner glass and allow it to snap into detents. Do not use HUD if ALIGN HUD message continues to be displayed
42
Why does combiner have a breakaway position
It’s a safety feature that allows combiner glass to rotate toward windscreen with head impact and lock in place during sudden aircraft deceleration this minimizes head injury
43
What do top “T” and bottom inverted “T” Represent on combiner during HUD press and hold test
Upper and lower limit of data displayed on HUD
44
What is the primary symbol used to control aircraft with the HUD
Flight path vector FPV
45
What does the Aircraft reference simple (or boresight symbol) represent on HUD
Projected centerline of aircraft(boresight)
46
What is the difference between HUD uncaged and caged modes
In uncaged mode, FPV is free to roam horizontally and vertically. In caged mode, FPV is free to move vertically; however, it is locked in horizontal center. In caged mode, FPV indicates planes heading and ghost FPV represents track. In uncaged mode, boresight represents heading and FPV represents track
47
HUD symbols are described as being either conformal or non-conformal. What is the difference
Conformal symbol has real world counterpart (e.g., The Horisont line represents the Horisont degree for degree). Altitude dial is considered non-conformal since it doesn’t represent anything in the real world
48
Why does horizon line flash on HUD at nose high and nose low attitudes
To indicate non-conformity
49
How do you know when EVS image is available for display
FLIR flashes in upper left portion of combiner after cool down and then goes steady. Cool down normally takes 10–15 minutes but can take longer if aircraft is hot soaked
50
What is NUC
NUC stands for non-uniformity correction. It is a calibration process that results in cleaner picture and occurs during camera power-up, flaps selected from 0° to 10°, or manual NUC selected
51
Describe the three(3) different levels of EVS camera gain
AUTO, H for high, and L for low. Select AUTO If you want camera to automatically adjust gain, H for low visibility, and L for night VMC or day with smog. indications of your selection appear on upper left portion of combiner: EVS A for AUTO, EVS H for high, or EVS L for low
52
How is heat depicted on EVS image
Hotter items from IR camera are depicted as lighter while items with less heat are depicted as darker
53
Describe some factors that affect EVS performance
Thick clouds, thermal crossover, Blooming, and misalignment
54
How can you increase chances of seeing approach and runway lights with EVS in low visibility
Make sure the lights are set to full bright prior to commencing the approach and select high gain
55
What are the requirements for descending below DA with EVS
You need EFVS lights to descend below DA and you need visual cues without the aid of EFVS at 100 feet above TDZE in order to continue and land unless qualified under FAR 91.176(a) to continue and land with EFVS in Lou of natural vision
56
Flight Director or autopilot with vertical guidance, either eyeless or FMS vertical path, is required for all IMCEVS approaches. How do you determine if obstacle free path is present
Runway is served by an approach to decision altitude DA
57
At what altitude does airport symbol normally appear on HUD
2000’ above airport
58
When does runway symbol replace the airport symbol
At 350’ RA, runway symbol joins airport symbol and at 325’ RA, airport symbol disappears. Runway symbol is removed from display at 60’ RA
59
When does flare cue appear
100’; it moves upward as aircraft approaches the ground and provides flare guidance
60
What is provided on HUD unusual attitude display to prevent you from over stressing the aircraft during recovery
G-load digital readout
61
What is RNP
Required NAV performance: accuracy in NM required for navigation in the area the aircraft is flying and affects CDI sensitivity. Lower RNP equates to greater CDI sensitivity
62
What is EPU
Estimated position uncertainty: calculated estimate of accuracy of navigation equipment aboard aircraft. If EPU > RNP, Numbers are highlighted by cautionary Amber overlay and CDI needle turns Amber
63
What does magenta dashed line extending from nose of aircraft to compass arc represent on map display
IRS track vector
64
How do you know if a chart is Geo-referenced
A white or green icon appears in right corner of charts title bar which enables aircraft actual position (displayed as green airplane symbol) to be displayed
65
What color messages can be scrolled off the CAS display
Amber, blue and white: red can only be scrolled out of view to show other red messages
66
What happens when a red or amber CAS message becomes active
Message displays in inverse video, oral alert sounds (i.e., three chimes for red or two for Amber), and respective annunciator on master warning panel illuminates. When annunciator/button is pushed on master warning panel, annunciator extinguishers, tone silences, and message displays normally. If there are read messages already on CAS display when new red messages becomes Active, new message displays at top of red message stack. If there are amber messages already on CAS display when new amber message becomes active, new message displays at top of Amber message Stack
67
What happens when a blue CAS message becomes active
Message flashes for five seconds and then displays normally, a blue message oral alert is sounded (1 chime). No pilot action is required to acknowledge blue messages: you get one(1) chime only. If there are blue messages already on CAS display when new blue message becomes active, new message displays at top of blue message Stack
68
What happens when a white status message becomes active
Message displays similar to blue CAS message but there is no chime
69
What are the two (2) Types of automatic CAS message filters
Takeoff and landing, and power up
70
When would Pilot’s PFD automatically be placed onto DU #2
Failure of DU #1
71
When would copilot’s PFD automatically be placed onto DU #3
Failure of DU #4
72
What would a big red X indicate on a DU
Loss of data (i.e., failure of associated AGM)
73
What would be indicated if DU had a black display
Failed or unpowered
74
What is the purpose of DU switches
Allows dispatch with single AGM failed
75
With airplane on ground, if AGM 1, 2 or 4 fails, selecting the corresponding display system control switch to ALT position causes what to occur
There is a rearrangement of AGM to DU architecture, DU associated with failed AGM receives graphics, and red X is placed on DU 3
76
Which displays are considered most important
PFD‘s are considered most important followed by primary engine display and CAS
77
If DU1 fails and is subsequently regained by performing display unit failure procedure, PFD comes back on DU1 and also remains displayed on DU2. How can you unlatch the display and regain your map synoptic
In-flight, you’ll need to press DU unlatch (OHPTS>DU Ctrl/Test)
78
What occurs when AUTO is selected on flight guidance panel
Both AP and AT engage: one channel of autopilot connect to autopilot system servos that move side stick, and one channel of autothrottle connects to autothrottle system servers that move power levers.
79
What tone is associated with autopilot disengagement
LO/HI/LO triple tone
80
With AP engaged, what happens when PFD SRC switch is pressed on flight guidance panel
Lateral and vertical modes to change to ROL & FPA; autopilot remains engaged.
81
During ILS approach below 1200 feet RA, both green triangles illuminate above PFD SRC switch. What does this indicate
Both navigation receivers‘ data is being averaged
82
Describe methodology behind flight mode annunciations on the PFD
In all cases, a green mode annunciation(right side of mode window) indicates a particular mode is engaged, while a white mode annunciation (left side of mode window) indicates a particular mode is armed only. Whenever mode transitions form or armed to engaged, Mode is surrounded by green box for five(5) Seconds to alert crew that a mood is engaged
83
What must the source of navigation be when selecting VNAV
Since all VNAV vertical modes are based on FMS altitude and/or constraints, FMS must be the selected NAV source
84
What is FLCH mode
In all cases FLCH modes are speed hold modes (IAS or Mach), meaning the aircraft changes pitch to maintain speed displayed in FGPs speed window
85
How does clime or decent rate vary with FLCH
It is based on the magnitude of altitude change commanded
86
What is the recommended technique when given a heading 
Sync the heading knob, select heading mode, and then spin heading knob
87
When VGP is engaged vertical mode, what is the effect of any altitude sent in FGP’s altitude preselect window
It will be ignored by AFCS similar to an ILS approach
88
How is GP altitude preselect window depicted on VSD
As green dashed line across the display and digital readout in upper left corner of the display
89
What happens when the ALTITUDE HOLD button is pressed
If ALT not active, article mode is immediately changed to ALT, green cue light illuminates and altitude that existed at the instant the button was pressed is held. If ALT is active, ALT hold is the selected and aircraft goes into FPA mode
90
When is retard mode activated
RA < 50’ with gear down
91
What is the indication of normal AT disengagement
AT1 or AT2 flashes Amber for five(5) seconds along with an oral tone(LO/LO/LO triple tone)
92
True/false: GPS is capable of SVAS signals which enables GVIIII to execute localizer performance with a vertical guidance LPV approaches
True
93
What are long range position sensors on GVII
Two(2) GPSs and three (3) IRUs. Hybrid IRSs are primary source of navigation input to FMS: they receive GPS input which greatly improve accuracy and reduces drift rate. If both GPSs fail or entire GPS network goes down, FMS uses performance based sensor selection scheme to select the best performing sensor
94
What are the primary short range position sensors on GVII
VOR/DME and DME/DME
95
Where is the navigation mode displayed on TSC
Pos sensors page of FMS
96
What kind of information do IRUs provide
Position, velocity, heading and altitude data
97
What would an amber HDG or ATT comparator warning indicate on your PFD
Heading or altitude different from other pilot’s
98
What would red HDG FAIL and a red ATT FAIL annunciations indicate on PFD
IRS failure
99
What is the default heading and attitude reference for each SFD
Attitude/Heading reference System(AHRS) unit and magnetometer: attitude from AHRS and heading from magnetometer
100
What is the source of air data to SFDs
ADS 4 is direct wired to SFDs; however, other air data systems are selectable
101
Describe purpose of air data system ADS
It measures pressure and temperature of outside air and supplies data to using systems. Processed air data provided by ADCs include things like pressure altitude, calibrated airspeed, vertical speed, true airspeed, mach number, AOA, and side slip
102
Why are TAT probes aspirated by bleed air on ground
To improve accuracy of temperature readings
103
Describe some features of the GVII‘s weather radar
It controls antenna scan, collects weather and terrain info, and stores it in 3-D memory. Some operational modes include ground mapping, turbulence detection and predictive windshear feature
104
What is primary and secondary weather and how is it depicted
Primary weather is whether along flight path or flight plan altitude: depicted in solid colors. Secondary weather is weather outside of flight path or flight plan altitude: depicted with cross hatching
105
What is the best policy regarding thunderstorms
Avoiding thunderstorms is the best policy. Avoid by at least 20 miles any thunderstorm identified as severe or giving an intense radar echo
106
What color is turbulence displayed on weather radar
Magenta
107
What happens when ground override is selected
This mode overrides forced standby and allows operation of radar on ground: it’s deselected airborne
108
True/false: if WX is selected and there is a terrain threat, EGPWS displays threats on map and on PFD, regardless of previous display selection
True
109
How is predicted windshear displayed
By a series of red and black bands in area of windshear event followed by searchlights (Amber lines outside of black lines) extending from far edge of windshear event on each side and to the edge of WX data buffer
110
What does the EGPWS use to predict potential conflicts between aircraft flight path and terrain
Internal worldwide terrine database along with geographic position information
111
Where can terrain be displayed
On PFD and/or map (Including VSD)
112
What are the two VSD terrain display modes
Terrain under flight plan and terrain under track. When VSD mode is terrain under track, green TRACK is displayed below horizontal axis of display. When mode is Terrain under Flight Plan, green FPLN is displayed
113
What is the relative elevation of terrain depicted in red or yellow
At or above aircraft’s altitude
114
Caution look ahead distance is computed from aircraft ground speed and turn rate to provide advanced warning and adequate time for crew response. Depending on situation, this distance roughly corresponds to how many seconds of advanced warning
40 to 60
115
What is the difference between amber and red WINDSHEAR warnings
Amber WINDSHEAR is for proverse (increasing performance) windshear. Red WINDSHEAR is for adverse (decreasing performance) windshear condition
116
What is the difference between amber GND PROX and red PULL UP icons displayed on PFD
Amber GND PROX displays when aircraft is approaching terrain in unusual manner or at excessive rate whereas red PULL UP displays when GPWS senses closure on rising terrain ahead
117
What is Windshear / CFIT vertical escape maneuver
1. AP/AT: Disconnect
2. Pitch: Smoothly increase using up to full aft stick (30° pitch max)
3. Power Levers: Full forward
4. Once safe climb out is assured: retract gear/flaps
118
Selecting GPWS inhibit inhibits all GPWS aural warnings except for watt
Windshear
119
What kind of situation would you select GPWS inhibit
While flying day VFR approach in areas of high terrain
120
What callouts are inhibited with selection of the Rad ALT inhibit
GPWS Mode 6 advisory callouts of altitudes during approach and landing except for “minimums” and “bank angle”
121
When would you select GPWS flap inhibit
In accordance with checklist: to inhibit GPWS voice alarm, “TOO LOW FLAPS”
122
Where can traffic be displayed
Three places: HSI, map and traffic synoptic page
123
What is the normal TCAS vertical display range
Auto range is +-2700’, +9900’/-2700’ climbing & +2700’/-9900’ for descending
124
What is the meaning of the color yellow on flight plan page
From waypoint
125
What is the meaning of the color magenta on flight plan page
To waypoint
126
What does RTA stand for
Select required time of arrival (RTA) from FMS Task Menu then monitor RTA Prog from Flight Progress 
127
What does BTMS stand for
Enable or disable brake temperature monitoring system(BTMS) from AC Cfg radio button under Perf Takeoff tab of FMS menu. Power-up default is Enabled. Disabling BTMS withholds brake temperature information from FMS
128
Why does approach speed default to Vref + 5 knots 
Accounts for the common 10 knot headwind and turbulence
129
Under what FMS tab would you find unit conversion
Tools
130
What are the limitations associated with navigation database
Verify currency. If out of date, verify latitude/longitude of each waypoint during flight. A current database is required in order to fly any approach procedure using the FMS
131
How is AC power normally produced
By engine driven integrated drive generators (IDGs) and/or APU generator.
132
How many TRUs convert AC to DC power 
Five (5)
133
What is the purpose of emergency batteries
They power emergency avionics and emergency egress lighting
134
What is the difference between red and black circuit breakers
Red CBs are related to essential circuits and black CBs are considered nonessential
135
What is the purpose of GCUs
They work with electrical system to provide quality power
136
How can a GCU be reset
Buy cycling associated generator control switch (L GEN, R GEN or APU GEN) to OFF then ON
137
True/false: all non-failure AC power transfers are NBPTs, except between external AC power and APU power sources
True
138
How is electrical power normally controlled
By two (2) BPCUs, three (3) GCUs and two (2) ESCs. BPCU are brains of system and control most contactors 
139
Describe emergency batteries
Two (2) lead acid emergency batteries: one located up forward in LEER and one located back aft on left side of baggage compartment in forward BEER
140
What are the three modes of emergency batteries
Like main batteries, they have three (3) Modes of operation: charge, discharge, and TR mode
141
How are emergency batteries activated
ON switch is depressed or they are ARMED and left or right essential DC bus drops below 20 VDC (even momentarily)
142
What items are powered down to emergency batteries
Both SFDs without air data
TSCs 2 & 3 Backup Eng/Rad
Emergency lighting 
143
When would MAIN BATTERY switches indicate amber on
When starting a APU (left battery discharge only), operating aux pump, or powering ESS DC buses if MAIN BATTERY switches are selected ON and ESS DC buses have no other source of power 
144
What additional function does right battery have on ground
It is used to power ground service bus when not powered by right main DC bus or external DC power
145
What are main battery charging requirements
AC power applied
146
When is TR mode initiated
If battery switches are selected ON, main AC buses are powered, and the following occur - APU start switch is selected ON, aux pump is turned on, or essential DC buses require power from batteries
147
What mode of battery/chargers is lost with loss of Main AC buses
TR and charge mode
148
The batteries have split bus configurations. What does this mean
Left battery is involved in APU start; both batteries power aux pump
149
When should you remove batteries
Cold soak conditions (-20C)
150
On dark airplane, what occurs when EXTERNAL BATTERY switch is selected ON
Power is provided from both main batteries and anti-collision beacon illuminates
151
What is the purpose of ground service bus (GSB)
To provide DC power to equipment required for minimal servicing while on ground
152
What are the sources of power for ground service bus
Right main DC bus, external DC, or right battery
153
Name the locations of four (4) GSB control switches 
One behind the cockpit on REER System/Monitor Test panel, one in Security / Gnd Svc panel, one on ground service panel in tail compartment, and one in refuel panel 
154
What happens on dark airplane when GND SVC BUS switch is selected to ON
Right battery powers ground service bus and anti-collision beacon illuminates
155
There are four (4) GRN SVC BUS Annunciator lights: one in cockpit, one in security/Grd Svc panel, one in refuel panel, and one on ground service panel and tail compartment. When do the illuminate
When GRD SVC BUS is powered by right battery or by external DC power ( i.e., other than normal source of power)
156
When is ground service bus automatically deactivated
When all doors are close: tail compartment door, main door, security/Grd Svc panel door, and refuel door
157
What is the function of EBHA battery 
It is dedicated source of power to Electric Backup Hydraulic Actuators (EBHAs)
158
What is the purpose of UPS battery
It is dedicated source of power to flight control computers
159
If both AC and DC external power is connected, which has priority
External AC
160
Describe APU generator
It is mounted on APU, is usable on ground, or in-flight. It is physically and distinctly different from IDGs but produces the same type of power up to 35,000’
161
What is the source of power for personal electronic devices, electric razors, hairdryers, blender, toaster, etc.
60 Hz power system comprised of two converters. One converter is active while other is standby
162
True false: CABIN / GALLEY and 60 Hz master switches are wired in series (i.e., both must be selected ON for converters to produce power).
True. CABIN / GALLEY Master switch also controls 28 VDC to cabin. It is single switch for load shedding all power to cabin
163
What is the purpose of secondary power distribution system (SPDS)
It takes power from primary power system and distributes it to various aircraft loads
164
SPDS is composed of two Electrical System Controllers (ESCs) and 14 Modular Power Tiles (MPTs) (4 AC and 10 DC). What is the difference between ESCs and MPTs
ESCs perform system control functions and interface with other aircraft systems. MPTs performed power routing and circuit protection function using AC and DC Solid State Power Controllers (SSPCs)
165
What causes AC or DC legend of AC/DC RESET switchlite to activate
Fault in AC or DC bus, logic fault within the BPCU, or relay or component failure
166
What happens when you depress RESET switch
It resets lockout and allows trip contactors to close if fault no longer exists
167
When would you select L/R Bus Tie to ISLN
When directed by checklist. It prevents associated contactor from closing and isolates respective main AC bus from other power sources
168
Describe RAT deployment
It is totally manual and is accomplished by pulling guarded RAT DEPLOY handle
169
What does RAT power once it reaches operating speed (Usually 5–8 seconds)
FCC UPS bus and EBHA bus through Emerg AC bus, and both Essential DC buses through left and right ESS TRUs
170
How is RAT stowed
On the ground using installed hand operated piston pump mounted above RAT assembly: it cannot be stowed in flight
171
What happens as airspeed falls below limit of RAT operation (200 knots)
RAT stops operating an Main, UPS and EBHA batteries begin to power fight critical systems for up to 10 minutes
172
When is AUX DC bus load shed or not powered 
During single generator operation, RAT generator operation, battery only operation, or when aux TRU is powering another DC bus. Load shed feature is inhibited on the ground
173
Describe the purpose of fifth or Aux TRU
It serves as back up to primary TRUs. When not serving in backup role, Aux TRU powers Aux DC bus which provides 28VDC power to cabin loads
174
What is Aux TRU priority
Essential before main and left before right
175
Where is fuel stored
In wing tanks that are part of internal wing structure: there are no bladders
176
Describe location and capacity of hopper tanks
Inside each wing tank, adjacent to center line rib, is a hopper that holds approximately 1170 pounds of fuel for G600
177
What is the purpose of ventilation system
It protects from over and under pressurization by allowing air, fuel vapors, and fuel to move about or flow freely
178
Vent tubes are connected to empty chamber or plenum which is located at wingtip, just outboard of fuel tanks. What is the capacity of plenum and vent tubes
They provide for 2% fuel expansion
179
What is indicated if HIGH LEVEL WARN lights illuminate on refuel panel
High level sensors are wet and Fuel Quantity Signal Conditioner (FQSC) has close respective refueling valve
180
What happens when REMOTE FUEL SHUTOFF switch is selected on OHPTS
Switch label turned green and both pressure fueling shut off valves close
181
What are the different methods of refueling
Single point pressure fueling or
over-the-wing
182
How is automatic refueling controlled
From touchscreen controller TSC or refueling panel located at fueling station
183
How many methods are there for maintaining fuel balance
To: by moving fuel from hopper to hopper through intertank valve, or by directing fuel from one hopper to opposite engine using cross flow valve
184
How many boost pumps does GVII have and where are they located
There are four (4) identical and interchangeable fuel boost pumps in main wheel wells attached to a portion of each hopper
185
What is the purpose of fuel boost pumps
They deliver fuel to engines and APU at relatively low pressure through various fuel distribution lines and shutoff valves
186
How does fuel flow into hopper
Through ejector pumps and flapper type check valves
187
How do ejectors operate
They require only fuel boost pump pressure to operate: they are low pressure, high-volume jet pumps. As long as there is boost pump pressure, ejector pumps deliver steady flow of fuel into each hopper
188
What happens when crossflow valve is opened
Boost pump manifolds are joined allowing pressurized fuel from functioning pumps to flow to both engines
189
When do white Fuel Crossflow Valve Open and Fuel Inter Tank Valve Open CAS messages changed to blue
After five (5) minutes
190
What is the warning associated with use of crossflow valve
You should always OPEN crossflow valve before turning 0FF both boost pumps on one side. Without boosted pressure above 20,000’, Gulfstream says the engine will run erratically and flame out
191
What happens when intertank valve is opened
Fuel gravity flows between two hopper tanks allowing the tanks to balance
192
What action does Gulfstream recommend before opening intertank valve
Establish sideslip (i.e. rudder trim in direction of heavy tank)
193
What happens when Fuel Return switch defaults to green Auto on power up
The system allows heated fuel into tanks when fuel tank temperature is <= 0° and altitude is >= 30,000’. When tank temperatures warm to approximately +10° C, heated fuel stops flowing to the tanks
194
There are several abnormal conditions which inhibit heated fuel return system from operating (e.g., fire handle pulled, low fuel pressure signal, low fuel quantity). What types of normal conditions inhibit the system from operating
Crossflow valve open or engine at high power setting
195
What is the purpose of Power Transfer Unit
Provides operational redundancy to left system (especially to get to gear up with failure of left engine on takeoff)
196
What is the purpose of Aux pump
Primarily designed for ground and maintenance operations
197
Where are hydraulic reservoirs located
There are two (2) hydraulic reservoirs located in forward section of tail compartment: left hydraulic system reservoir on left and right hydraulic system reservoir on right
198
A visual site gauge is installed on high-pressure end of each hydraulic reservoir and clearly indicates proper FULL and REFILL levels of Resavoir. What is required for accurate reading
Electrical power is not required to read site gauge; however, system must be pressurized to obtain correct reading
199
Describe engine-driven pump
It is constant pressure, variable volume pump, which means it produces 3000 psi any time engine is running (Except for pump unloading feature during engine start in-flight)
200
What is the purpose of hydraulic heat exchangers and where are they located
There are two hydraulic heat exchangers: one for each system located in each hopper close to floor. Functioning as a radiator, heat exchanger allows surrounding, cooler fuel to cool the hotter hydraulic fluid
201
How many hydraulic accumulators are there and what is the preflight requirement
There are two accumulators: one for each system. Check for 1200 psi at 70°F nitrogen pre-charge on preflight
202
What are requirements for PTU operation when ARMED
1) Left system pressure < 2400 psi
2) Fluid in the left system
3) Right system not hot 
203
How would gear and flaps operate differently with aux pump
They would operate much slower due to low flow rate
204
What are the requirements for Aux pump operation when ARMED
In-flight
1) Left system pressure < 1500psi
2) Fluid in left system
3) Left system not hot
4) flap handle position doesn’t match flat position OR landing gear handle position doesn’t match gear position
Aux Pump activates on ground with left system and inboard accumulator pressure < 1200 psi and brake pedals depressed. It deactivates when inboard break accumulator is replenished
205
How does ox pump operate differently in air when selected to ON
It operates regardless of hydraulic quantity or temperature; however, it automatically shuts off after two (2) minutes to prevent inadvertent depletion of the batteries
206
There are two replenishing systems in the tail compartment. What are they for
One is for hydraulics and one is for oil replenishing
207
What is the purpose of APU
Supply flight crew with auxiliary source of bleed air and electrical power during ground operations. In-flight, APU is used for backup electrical power or used for air for main engine start. APU air cannot be used for pressurization
208
What are APUs two on-speed modes
Non-essential if on the ground and essential in-flight
209
What is the indication that air inlet door has opened and APU is ready to start
Cyan “APU READY” annunciation illuminates on IRS/APU/Batt page of OHPTSs
210
When should you check APU oil level
10-30 minutes after shutdown to prevent over-servicing
211
What is the purpose of APU load control valve
It opens to provide bleed air from APU while aircraft is on ground, as well as inflight if needed, for main engine start. It is controlled by APU BLEED AIR switch
212
When is APU bleed air available
After APU reaches operating speed. If APU was started under cold conditions (i.e., EGT < 149°C), bleed air loading is delayed for 60 seconds unless attempting main engine start in-flight
213
When selecting APU BLEED AIR switch to ON during ground operations, what valve opens in addition to the load control valve
Isolation valve
214
Regarding APU, two things occur with right engine lower cowl door open. What are they
Amber Cowl Door Open annunciation appears on APU panel and ECU inhibits start while on the ground in order to protect engine cowl
215
What function does ECU perform if APU limits are exceeded
It automatically shut down APU on ground (non-essential mode) and in some cases, in-flight (essential mode)
216
Name things that occur when APU MASTER switch is selected to ON
ECU performs Power-up Built-In Test (PBIT), commands APU inlet door open, and commands APU fuel shut off valve open. NAV lights and left main fuel pump also turn 0N, and TROV opens
217
What happens when APU MASTER switch is selected to OFF
Switch legend extinguishes, APU fuel shut off valve closes and APU, if running, immediately shuts down. Inlet door also begins to close
218
What is the recommended action if APU amber FAULT light illuminates
Cycle MASTER and give it another try
219
What is the significance of On legend in APU START / STOP switch
It indicates that starter is engaged or APU is running
220
What happens when APU START / STOP switch is selected when APU is running 
APU load sheds and APU enters cool down mode. If on the ground and up to 20,000 feet, ECU decreases APU RPM on linear scale (1/2% per second) for 60 seconds (to 70% RPM), then shuts down APU. If above 20,000 feet, ECU maintains APU RPM for 60 seconds, then shuts down APU
221
What happens if APU START switch is depressed at any time during 60 second cool down.
APU is commanded to 100% RPM
222
What is the quickest way to shutdown APU
Anytime APU MASTER switch is selected off, APU immediately shut down (APU fuel shutoff valve commanded closed)
223
When does APU generator come online
When APU reaches operating speed
224
Why does APU GEN switch indicate amber on
It represents abnormal in-flight condition
225
What is the difference between essential and non-essential
In nonessential mode, there are many conditions which would cause ECU to shut down the APU. If this were to occur, cool down mode is bypassed, APU’s Fuel shutoff valve is closed, and APU shuts down immediately. When in essential mode (In-flight), some protective shutdowns are disabled to allow continued operation
226
What happens if APU is operating in essential mode after landing
APU continues to assume aircraft is in essential mode until AP master switch is selected off (or 15 min has elapsed)
227
What does an amber APU essential CAS message indicate
It means it hasn’t shut down for one of the malfunctions that would have caused shut down on ground. Do not shut down if you need it because a subsequent start may be inhibited. If you don’t need it, shut it down promptly
228
GVII uses fly-by-wire technology. How does it work
Pilot inputs are read by a computer that intern decides how to move control services to best achieve what the pilot wants
229
How is trim accomplished
Pitch and role trim is accomplished by actuating switch mounted on side stick; pedestal mounted PITCH TRIM switch is also used to control pitch
230
What is the purpose of A/P DISC switch
It disengages is autopilot and stops runaway trim and all three axes
231
What is the function of FLT CTRL RESET switch
Used to reset flight control computers, side sticks, and controls surface actuators when directed by checklist
232
What effect does loss of one hydraulic system have on flight controls
Loss of one spoiler pair
233
What are control laws
Software in FCCs that translate electrical commands from cockpit control sensors and aircraft motion sensors (inertial/air data) into flight control surface commands
234
How many computers control the fly-by-wire flight control system
Three (3) computers: two (2) flight control computers for normal operation and Backup Flight Control Unit in case both flight control computers fail
235
What is the minimum number of FCC channels that can command all flight control surfaces on the aircraft
One
236
What is the purpose of Backup Flight Control Unit (BFCU)
It is designed to provide what Gulfstream calls “ Get home capability” if both primary FCCs fail
237
What happens once the BFCU becomes active
He communicates directly with EBHA remote electronic units (REUs) on separate backup data buses and is active for duration of flight
238
Describe Electric Backup Hydraulic Actuator (EBHA)
It is a special actuator with self-contained electric motor/pump and hydraulic reservoir
239
What type of sensor input is provided to FCCs
Input from IRSs, AHRS, ADSs and radio altimeters
240
Describe AOA limiting feature
In this mode, full stick input commands maximum nose angle of attack of 0.95
241
Which mode protects from surface flutter and separation that would occur greater than Vdive speed 
High speed protection
242
What is the auto-retract feature
It retracts speed brakes at high power settings 
243
Name the four (4) Flight control modes
Normal, alternate, direct, and backup
244
When would flight control mode change from normal to alternate
Loss of multiple air data or inertial sensors; may also revert to alternate mode if FCCs lose communication with REUs that control HS MCE
245
What happens if all four (4) FCC channels are invalid
Flight control system reverts to direct mode
246
What happens if all four (4) FCC channels are unable to compute the control law
Backup Flight Control Unit (BFCU) activates to provide “get home”capability
247
What term is used to describe the amplification, attenuation, boosting, or magnification that is applied to forward signal to achieve desired aircraft response
Gain
248
Normal mode has four (4) primary operating sub modes what are they
On ground, In-flight, AOA limiting, and High speed protection
249
Describe how the flight control system operates in alternate mode
Pitch, roll, and rudder pedal inputs are multiplied by a set of fixed gains to command elevator, ailerons, roll spoilers, and Rudder
250
How many sets of gains are associated with degraded flight control modes
2:1 cent of generally smaller numbers used one flap handle and gear handle are up (and aircraft is presume to be traveling at a higher speed - 340kts), and a set of generally larger numbers that are used if flap handle or gear handle is down (and aircraft is presumed to be traveling slower - 250kts)
251
What functions with ailerons to improve roll response
Mid and outboard spoiler panels extend to a maximum of 55°
252
Name the two types of flight control actuators
Hydraulic Actuator (HA) and Electronic Backup Hydraulic Actuator (EBHA)
253
Describe HA operation
It is controlled electrically by its Remote Electronics Unit (REU) and uses hydraulic power to move control surface
254
What is the function of REU
It averages FCC1 and FCC2 commands and electrically controls a valve in hydraulic manifold to control actuator position to match FCC commands
255
What additional features do EBHAs have
Able to operate in electric backup mode if normal source of hydraulic pressure is lost or operate in MCE direct control mode for REU failure
256
Describe EB operation
Within EB hydraulic manifold, an electric motor turns a hydraulic pump that draws fluid from self-contained reservoir: it acts like third hydraulic system
257
What does the color of HA or EBHA status border indicate on flight control synoptic page
Green for active/healthy, gray for inactive, and amber for failed
258
What pilot action is required for an aileron, spoiler, or elevator surface jam
Both pilot and copilot side sticks remain available to control the unrestricted surfaces: fly normally and trim, and referred to AFM
259
Under what condition with pedestal mounted PITCH TRIM switch have to be used
Back up mode: if this were to occur, pedestal mounted PITCH TRIM switch bypasses FCCs and controls horizontal stabilizer directly at a constant, minimum rate
260
What is the difference between active, degraded active, and passive sidestick modes
Active mode features electronic linking an electronic feel. In degraded active, sidesticks remain length but lose active feel. In passive mode, there is a loss of both electronic linking and feel
261
What pilot action is required in the unlikely event that rudder pedals become mechanically jammed
Pilots would have to use other flight controls or differential power to control the aircraft
262
What component is responsible for moving the stabilizer surface
Horizontal Stab Trim Actuator (HSTA) which is a dual electric motor
263
What kind of things can go wrong with the horizontal stabilizer
FCC loss of communication with controlling REUs, Failure of dual electric motor, mechanical jam of Jack screw, or failure of both channels of Horizontal Stab Motor Control Electronics (HS MCE)
264
What is elevator off-load feature
Once elevator deflection exceeds preset value for predetermined amount of time, horizontal stabilizer and elevators move simultaneously: horizontal stabilizer moves to the new trim position as elevators move to “faired” position (0° relative to horizontal stab surface). It is controlled or commanded from FCCs to reduce elevator deflection
265
Describe how the flaps operate
Manually operated, electrically controlled, hydraulically powered, and mechanically actuated
266
What happens if there is any sort of malfunction (e.g., flap jam, asymmetry, runaway, etc) during flap operation 
Flap motion is interrupted
267
What happens if you attempt to extend the flaps at high rate of speed
A load limiter device prevents the flaps from extending
268
When do the spoilers function
Six boiler panels (three on each wing) operate as speed brakes/air brakes and ground spoilers; four operate as fight spoilers (two outboard)
269
What is maximum spoiler deflection
55°
270
What is the maximum deflection with full speed break extension
30° in-flight or 55° on ground with flap handle not up
271
What indications would you get during speed break extension
When move left and aft out of forward detent, a white Speed Brakes Extended message displays
272
How would the indications change during level off
For speed break extended 
As power is increase during level off, white Speed Brakes Extended message changes to amber and you get the associated two bong caution chime
273
What happens if speed brakes are extended and pilot advances the throttles to high power setting
Speed brakes automatically retract although Speed break handle remains in extended position, and amber Speed Break Auto Retract message displays
274
What function do ground spoilers perform on touchdown or during rejected takeoff
All spoiler panels automatically deploy to reduce lift and increase breaking effectiveness
275
What are the requirements for ground spoiler deployment
Throttle that idle and one of the following: both main gear WOW, left WOW and right wheel spin, right WOW and left wheel spin, both main gear wheel spin and radar altitude less than 10 feet
276
How is nose cone de-iced
By a number of bleed air holes around the tip of cone
277
What accessories are mounted on the engine
Breather, Fuel Metering Unit (FMU), hydraulic pump, Integrated Drive Generator (IDG), oil tank and pump, Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA), and starter
278
What is the meaning of engine oil shut down quantity
It is a 10 minute after shut down snapshot quantity
279
How is oil filling accomplished
By conventional gravity filling or through remote replenishing system
280
When does EEC channel transition from A to B or B to A
When FUEL CONTROL switch is positioned from RUN to 0FF. Note: ground-air-ground transition also required
281
What is the only time you’re completely FADEC protected during start
On the ground
282
What can you consider if starter air valve fails to open
It has a manual override
283
What is rotor bow or thermal bowing
N1 and N2 shafts warp or bow due to asymmetrical cooling after shut down
284
During what mode would the EEC energize both igniters continuously at high spark rate and schedule fuel flow until rpm stabilizes
Flameout detection
285
What mode provides auto relight if FUEL CONTROL switch is selected to OFF and then back to ON within 20 seconds
Quick relight
286
Which component, driven by accessory gearbox, is dedicated source of power to EEC when the engine is running
Permanent Magnetic Alternator (PMA)
287
What are some benefits of FADEC
Engine protection, improved handling, better fuel efficiency, and prolonged engine life
288
How can autothrottles be disconnected
Push either quick disconnect switch, toggle either engage/disengage button, or manually adjust throttles
289
What is the purpose of hold mode on takeoff
Any changes in bleed air are ignored by EECs which prevents N1 Changes during takeoff role, rotation, and climb out to 400’ AGL
290
Under what conditions will drag devices be required for descent
WAI on and TAT < 0°C
291
When do engines go to approach idle
Gear extended or flaps 39°
292
Which AT auto-engage conditions can be inhibited
Vertical mold change: other reasons are safety related (i.e., during EDM, speed protection, and for FLCH mode descending through 2000’) and cannot be inhibited
293
When is MCT authorized for use and for what time limit
It is intended for infrequent use at pilot discretion and available without time limit
294
When does TO/GA power change to MCT thrust
As altitude and forward speed increases; TO/GA is available within takeoff envelope
295
What is the caution associated with selection of ENGINE CONTROL switches to ALT
Move affected engine power lever to mid range to avoid a thrust bump
296
Describe thrust reverser operation
Electrically controlled and hydraulically operated
297
REV appears inside N1 gauges during thrust reverser operation. Describe color indications
White for in transit, green for full deployment, amber for uncommanded deployment on ground, and red for uncommanded deployment in-flight flight
298
What happens to the engine during uncommanded thrust reverser deployment
FADEC commands engine to idle
299
Which bottle can discharge into the APU
Left bottle
300
How do you know if a fire bottle has discharged
CAS message
301
Which tests are performed with Master Test Switch
Annunciator, smoke, passenger oxygen, and equipment overheat
302
How are fire handles normally locked in stowed position
With electrical solenoid
303
What happens if a fire handle solenoid malfunctions
A manual override button underneath each fire handle allows handle activation
304
What happens when a fire handle is polled
It shuts off fuel at tank, trips Generator Control Unit (GCU), and shuts off hydraulics in tail compartment
305
What happens if engine fire persists after discharging the first bottle
Fire handle may be rotated to inboard DISCH 2 position to inject agent from left fire bottle into the engine
306
The smoke evacuation valve has how many positions
Two: CLOSED and VENT SMOKE
307
Fire testing, detection, and protection is available down to what source of power
Main batteries only: not available with emergency batteries
308
What is the location of the smoke detectors
Ceiling of baggage compartment as well as galley and lavatories
309
What happens when smoke evacuation valve is selected to VENT SMOKE position
Smoke evacuation valve opens and baggage compartment air is vented overboard through vent on ceiling of baggage compartment. Air is exhausted overboard through right side wing-to-body faring near lavatory servicing
310
Can interior baggage compartment door be opened once baggage compartment is depressurized
No, it is impossible without equalizing the pressure between baggage compartment and cabin
311
If interior baggage compartment door is closed, what is the process for reentry once baggage compartment is depressurized
Play smoke evacuation valve back to CLOSED position. This causes baggage compartment ventilation shut off valve to re-open and restore airflow to compartment
312
Describe APU’s fire detection system 
It has 7 foot helium filled tube secured to top of APU enclosure
313
What happens to APU during a fire
ECU automatically shuts it down
314
Describe engine fire detection system
Comprised of series of detector segments/elements and jumper wires
315
What happens when Fire Test switch is depressed
You get 13 lights and 3 chimes: FIRE light illuminates on APU control panel, you get 5 red CAS messages, 1 amber CAS, both red WARN indications, Both fire handles illuminate, both FUEL CONTROL switches illuminate, and fire bell sounds from nose wheel well on ground
316
What indications do you get for an APU fire
You get 5 lights and 3 chimes: FIRE light on APU control panel, amber FAULT light in MASTER switch, both red WARN indications, and one red CAS message. Additionally, you get fire bell on ground
317
What indications do you get for an engine fire
You get 5 lights and 3 chimes: both red WARN indications, fire handle, FUEL CONTROL star light and one red CAS message
318
Describe the equipment overheat detection system
A number of thermal switches are installed in aircraft interior to monitor temperature levels. They utilize two preset temperatures: 150°F and to 50°F depending on location and type of equipment monitored. Switches set at a trip point of 150°F generate amber CAS message when the temperature is reached and switches set at a trip point of 250°F generate red CAS message (generally amber for electrical and red for bleed air)
319
What is the location of fire bottles
Two identical single shot fire bottles are mounted in tail compartment: pressurized by nitrogen and filled with Halon
