G2 - OPERATING PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questios - 5 Groups] Flashcards

1
Q

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

A. Upper sideband

B. Lower sideband

C. Vestigial sideband

D. Double sideband

A

A. Upper sideband

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160, 75, and 40 meter bands?

A. Upper sideband

B. Lower sideband

C. Vestigial sideband

D. Double sideband

A

B. Lower sideband

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

A. Upper sideband

B. Lower sideband

C. Vestigial sideband

D. Double sideband

A

A. Upper sideband

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17 and 12 meter bands?

A. Upper sideband

B. Lower sideband

C. Vestigial sideband

D. Double sideband

A

A. Upper sideband

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the high frequency amateur bands?

A. Frequency modulation

B. Double sideband

C. Single sideband

D. Phase modulation

A

C. Single sideband

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

A. Very high fidelity voice modulation

B. Less bandwidth used and higher power efficiency

C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise

D. Less subject to static crashes (atmospherics)

A

B. Less bandwidth used and higher power efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband (SSB) voice mode?

A. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed

B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

C. SSB voice transmissions have higher average power than any other mode

D. SSB is the only mode that is authorized on the 160, 75 and 40 meter amateur bands

A

B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a conversation when using phone?

A. Say “QRZ” several times followed by your call sign

B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations

C. Say “Break. Break. Break.” and wait for a response

D. Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station

A

B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions from the other stations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160, 75 and 40 meter bands?

A. Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies

B. Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands

C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector

D. Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands

A

D. Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following statements is true of SSB VOX operation?

A. The received signal is more natural sounding

B. VOX allows “hands free” operation

C. Frequency spectrum is conserved

D. Provides more power output

A

B. VOX allows “hands free” operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the expression “CQ DX” usually indicate?

A. A general call for any station

B. The caller is listening for a station in Germany

C. The caller is looking for any station outside their own country

D. A distress call

A

C. The caller is looking for any station outside their own country

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

A. Nets always have priority

B. QSO�s in process always have priority

C. No one has priority access to frequencies, common courtesy should be a guide

D. Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies

A

C. No one has priority access to frequencies, common courtesy should be a guide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

A. Continue your communication because you were on frequency first

B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

C. Change to a different frequency

D. Immediately cease all transmissions

A

B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do?

A. Tell the interfering stations to change frequency

B. Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator

C. As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency

D. Increase power to overcome interference

A

C. As a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation should you allow in order to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

A. 5 to 50 Hz

B. 150 to 500 Hz

C. 1 to 3 kHz

D. 3 to 6 kHz

A

B. 150 to 500 Hz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SSB signals under normal conditions?

A. Between 150 and 500 Hz

B. Approximately 3 kHz

C. Approximately 6 kHz

D. Approximately 10 kHz

A

B. Approximately 3 kHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference when selecting a frequency to call CQ on CW or phone?

A. Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

B. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ

C. Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response

D. Send �QSY� on CW or if using phone, announce �the frequency is in use�, then send your call and listen for a response

A

A. Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

A. Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station

B. Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times

C. Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use

D. All of these choices are correct

A

C. Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the �DX window� in a voluntary band plan?

A. A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States

B. An FCC rule that prohibits contacts between stations within the United States and possessions on that band segment

C. An FCC rule that allows only digital contacts in that portion of the band

D. A portion of the band that has been voluntarily set aside for digital contacts only

A

A. A portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

A. Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license

B. Only a RACES net control operator

C. A person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official

D. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

A

A. Only a person holding an FCC issued amateur operator license

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When may the FCC restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RACES?

A. When they declare a temporary state of communication emergency

B. When they seize your equipment for use in disaster communications

C. Only when all amateur stations are instructed to stop transmitting

D. When the President�s War Emergency Powers have been invoked

A

D. When the President�s War Emergency Powers have been invoked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

A. Whatever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message

B. Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations

C. Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges

D. Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services

A

A. Whatever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

A. Only when transmitting in RACES

B. At any time when transmitting in an organized net

C. At any time during an actual emergency

D. Only on authorized HF frequencies

A

C. At any time during an actual emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK

B. Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys

C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission

D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

A

D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

25
Q

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS”?

A. Send slower

B. Change frequency

C. Increase your power

D. Repeat everything twice

A

A. Send slower

26
Q

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

A. Listening for novice stations

B. Operating full break-in

C. Listening only for a specific station or stations

D. Closing station now

A

C. Listening only for a specific station or stations

27
Q

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “CL” at the end of a transmission?

A. Keep frequency clear

B. Operating full break-in

C. Listening only for a specific station or stations

D. Closing station

A

D. Closing station

28
Q

What is the best speed to use answering a CQ in Morse Code?

A. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying

B. The speed at which the CQ was sent

C. A slow speed until contact is established

D. 5 wpm, as all operators licensed to operate CW can copy this speed

A

B. The speed at which the CQ was sent

29
Q

What does the term �zero beat� mean in CW operation?

A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station

B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency

C. Sending without error

D. Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal.

A

D. Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal.

30
Q

When sending CW, what does a �C� mean when added to the RST report?

A. Chirpy or unstable signal

B. Report was read from S meter reading rather than estimated

C. 100 percent copy

D. Key clicks

A

A. Chirpy or unstable signal

31
Q

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

A. SK

B. BK

C. AR

D. KN

A

C. AR

32
Q

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

A. Send slower

B. We have already confirmed by card

C. I acknowledge receipt

D. We have worked before

A

C. I acknowledge receipt

33
Q

What does the Q signal “QRQ” mean?

A. Slow down

B. Send faster

C. Zero beat my signal

D. Quitting operation

A

B. Send faster

34
Q

What does the Q signal �QRV� mean?

A. You are sending too fast

B. There is interference on the frequency

C. I am quitting for the day

D. I am ready to receive messages

A

D. I am ready to receive messages

35
Q

What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC?

A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations

C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters

D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

A

A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

36
Q

Which of the following are objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary?

A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations

B. To encourage amateur self regulation and compliance with the rules

C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage

D. To provide emergency and public safety communications

A

B. To encourage amateur self regulation and compliance with the rules

37
Q

What skills learned during �hidden transmitter hunts� are of help to the Amateur Auxiliary?

A. Identification of out of band operation

B. Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules

C. Identification of different call signs

D. Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

A

B. Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC Rules

38
Q

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

A. A world map that shows accurate land masses

B. A world map projection centered on a particular location

C. A world map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator

D. A world map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

A

B. A world map projection centered on a particular location

39
Q

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

A. Only when the foreign country has a formal third party agreement filed with the FCC

B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

C. When the contact is with amateurs in any country as long as the communication is conducted in English

D. Only when the foreign country is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union

A

B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications

40
Q

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a �long-path� contact with another station?

A. Toward the rising Sun

B. Along the gray line

C. 180 degrees from its short-path heading

D. Toward the north

A

C. 180 degrees from its short-path heading

41
Q

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60 meter band?

A. If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

B. You must keep a log of the date, time, frequency, power level and stations worked

C. You must keep a log of all third party traffic

D. You must keep a log of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

A

A. If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna

42
Q

Why do many amateurs keep a log even though the FCC doesn’t require it?

A. The ITU requires a log of all international contacts

B. The ITU requires a log of all international third party traffic

C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest

D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information

A

D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information

43
Q

What information is traditionally contained in a station log?

A. Date and time of contact

B. Band and/or frequency of the contact

C. Call sign of station contacted and the signal report given

D. All of these choices are correct

A

D. All of these choices are correct

44
Q

What is QRP operation?

A. Remote piloted model control

B. Low power transmit operation

C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol

D. Traffic relay procedure net operation

A

B. Low power transmit operation

45
Q

Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference?

A. A quarter-wave vertical antenna

B. An isotropic antenna

C. A unidirectional antenna

D. An omnidirectional antenna

A

C. A unidirectional antenna

46
Q

Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

A. USB

B. DSB

C. CW

D. LSB

A

D. LSB

47
Q

How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character?

A. The number varies

B. 5

C. 7

D. 8

A

A. The number varies

48
Q

What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information?

A. Directory

B. Preamble

C. Header

D. Footer

A

C. Header

49
Q

What segment of the 20 meter band is most often used for data transmissions?

A. 14.000 - 14.050 MHz

B. 14.070 - 14.100 MHz

C. 14.150 - 14.225 MHz

D. 14.275 - 14.350 MHz

A

B. 14.070 - 14.100 MHz

50
Q

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

A. A 7-bit code with start, stop and parity bits

B. A code using error detection and correction

C. A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits

D. A code using SELCAL and LISTEN

A

C. A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits

51
Q

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

A. 85 Hz

B. 170 Hz

C. 425 Hz

D. 850 Hz

A

B. 170 Hz

52
Q

What does the abbreviation “RTTY” stand for?

A. Returning to you

B. Radioteletype

C. A general call to all digital stations

D. Repeater transmission type

A

B. Radioteletype

53
Q

What segment of the 80 meter band is most commonly used for data transmissions?

A. 3570 � 3600 kHz

B. 3500 � 3525 kHz

C. 3700 � 3750 kHz

D. 3775 � 3825 kHz

A

A. 3570 � 3600 kHz

54
Q

In what segment of the 20 meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz

B. At the top of the SSB phone segment near 14.325 MHz

C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz

D. Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz

A

D. Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz

55
Q

What is a major advantage of MFSK16 compared to other digital modes?

A. It is much higher speed than RTTY

B. It is much narrower bandwidth than most digital modes

C. It has built-in error correction

D. It offers good performance in weak signal environments without error correction

A

D. It offers good performance in weak signal environments without error correction

56
Q

What does the abbreviation “MFSK” stand for?

A. Manual Frequency Shift Keying

B. Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Shift Keying

C. Manual Frequency Sideband Keying

D. Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Sideband Keying

A

B. Multi (or Multiple) Frequency Shift Keying

57
Q

How does the receiving station respond to an ARQ data mode packet containing errors?

A. Terminates the contact

B. Requests the packet be retransmitted

C. Sends the packet back to the transmitting station

D. Requests a change in transmitting protocol

A

B. Requests the packet be retransmitted

58
Q

In the PACTOR protocol, what is meant by an NAK response to a transmitted packet?

A. The receiver is requesting the packet be re-transmitted

B. The receiver is reporting the packet was received without error

C. The receiver is busy decoding the packet

D. The entire file has been received correctly

A

A. The receiver is requesting the packet be re-transmitted