G2 Flashcards

1
Q

A room heater installed in either a sleeping area or public area shall be:
A. Direct vent only
B. Equipped with a regulator
C. Equipped with a fan
D. Equipped with an on/ off switch on the wall

A

B. Equipped with a regulator

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2
Q

What type of vent must be used when the vent of a wall furnace will be concealed in a partition wall:
A. B Vent
B. L Vent
C. BH vent
D. BW vent

A

D. BW vent

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3
Q

Single wall vent connectors:
A. may pass through floors, ceilings or roofs provided a metal
thimble is used
B. may pass through floors, ceilings or roofs provided the required
minimum distance from combustible material is maintained
C. may pass through floors, ceilings or roofs provided they are
insulated
D. shall not pass through floors, ceilings or roofs

A

D. Shall not pass through floors, ceilings or roofs

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4
Q

BW vent shall be used only with an approved:
A. decorative appliance
B. down flow furnace
C. revertible flue boiler
D. recessed wall furnace

A

D. Recessed wall furnace

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5
Q

What must be done during the installation of a gas log fireplace?
A. Make sure there is a metal mesh screen in front of the fireplace
B. Secure the chimney damper in the open position
C. Install a pressure regulator
D. Install a metal chimney liner

A

B. Secure the chimney damper in the open position

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6
Q

When can a certified hose be used to connect a construction
heater to temporary piping?
A. Only if a lever handle shut off valve is installed upstream of the
hose
B. Only if the hose is 15 feet long
C. Never

A

A. Only if a lever handle shut off valve is installed upstream of the
hose

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7
Q

Which of the following is acceptable when a fireplace insert is
installed?
A. A metal chimney linear
B. The existing fireplace flue
C. BW vent
D. A tile lined fireplace flue?

A

A. A metal chimney linear

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8
Q

An unvented infra-red heater can be installed in ________ application
A. A warehouse
B. A commercial building
C. An industrial building
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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9
Q

Dirt pockets are required on:
A. Decorative appliances
B. Gas logs
C. Room heaters
D. None of the available choices

A

D. None of the available choices

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10
Q

What diameter and length of a dirt pocket is required when a drop
line is 3-inch diameter?
A. 3 inch diameter by 3 inches long
B. 1 inch diameter by 3 inches long
C. 3/4 inch diameter by 3 inches long
D. 2 inch diameter by 3 inches long

A

D. 2 inch diameter by 3 inches long

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11
Q

What type of room heater maybe installed in a bathroom?
A. Natural draft
B. Direct fired
C. Forced draft
D. Direct vent

A

D. Direct Vent

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12
Q

What safety control protects a steam boiler if the condensate
pump fails to return water to the boiler?
A. High pressure limit control
B. Low pressure limit control
C. Flame safeguard control
D. Low water cut off

A

D. Low Water Cut-off

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13
Q

The relief valve for a residential low-pressure hot water boiler
system should be?
A. 14.7 psia
B. 15 psia
C. 30 psig
D. 30 psia

A

C. 30 psig

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14
Q

A backflow prevent used in a boiler system should be located in
the:
A. Over flow line connected to the drain
B. Return line close to the boiler
C. 1/4” line connecting the boiler and cushion tank
D. Make up water line to the system

A

B. Return line close to the boiler

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15
Q

A 90,000 BTU Category IV furnace shall have a minimum vent termination distance from a Window or door of?
A.1800mm (72in)
B. 900mm (36in)
C. 300mm (12in)
D. 2400mm (96in)

A

300mm (12 in)

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16
Q

The high limit switch found on category 4 appliance is always wired in series with?
a. The “on” “off” switch
b. Fan blower.
c. Fan motor
d. The gas valve

A

The Gas Valve

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17
Q

On a furnace with an integrated control board, the blower is controlled by?
a. Timer relay
b. A klaxon(bimetal) switch
c. A combination fan/limit control
d. An ignition module

A

Timer Relay

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18
Q

If a 24 volts gas valve solenoid is working properly but a humming sound is heard coming from the gas valve, what would be the cause of this?
a. Solenoid coil it broken or burnt out
b. High voltage
c. The common wire is on the wrong terminal
d. Low voltage

A

Low Voltage

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19
Q

If a thermostat is calling for heat and a volt meter test cross the power source (Transformer) reads 28 volts, another check is done across “RH” and “W” in the thermostat and the reading is “0” volts. This would this suggest?
a. The thermostat need replacing.
b. The transformer need replacing.
c. The transformer voltage too high.
d. The thermostat is good.

A

The thermostat is good

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20
Q

The best location to install an air conditioning coil on a ‘horizontal or suspended furnace is?
a. Mounted in a frame 3 inches above the air circulating blower.
b. In the supply air plenum
c. In the return air plenum.
d. Air conditioning coils are not recommended for these application

A

In the supply air plenum

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21
Q

If the warm air supply or the return air supply on a high efficiency furnace is blocked, which component would disable the appliance burner?
a. Solid state board
b. Vent pressure switch
c. Automatic vent damper switch
d. High limit switch

A

High Limit Switch

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22
Q

A gas FWAF appliance installed in a storage garage shall be at what height from the floor.
a. 8 feet
b. None of the choices
c. 4.5 feet
d. 18 inches

A

18 Inches

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23
Q

When a high efficiency furnace vent is terminated under a veranda or deck, what requirements must be met?
a. It must be a two pipe system
b. The distance between the top of the vent and the deck underside must be less than 12 inches
c. A minimum of two sides beneath the deck must be open
d. The input must not be over 100,000 BTU

A

A minimum of two sides beneath the deck must open

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24
Q

The top of a warm air plenum on a furnace should have a minimum clearance to combustible material of?
a.
25 mm
b.
100 mm
c.
75 mm
d.
50 mm

A

25mm (1”)

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25
Q

A forced warm air furnace is operating at 85% efficiency. If the temperature rise is 78°F and the fan is moving 950 cfm, what is the input?
a.
81 500 Btuh
b.
56,510 Btuh
c.
70 000 Btuh
d.
96 000 Btuh

A

96,000 btuh

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26
Q

When a furnace is used to heat a residence under construction, what requirements must be met?
a.
The gas connection to the appliance may be done with a flexible hose not exceeding 15 ft.
b.
Must be installed on a finished or poured concrete floor/slab at least 4” thicker; 1” higher than the basement floor, 6” longer and Wider than the base of the furnace.
c.
Shall be fitted with a warm-air plenum and a return-air plenum is not necessary while under construction.
d.
A thermostat is not required while under construction but an “on” “off” Switch may be substituted

A

Must be installed on a finished or poured concrete floor/slab at least 4” thicker; 1” higher than the basement floor, 6” longer and Wider than the base of the furnace

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27
Q

If a atmospheric category I appliance is equipped with an electrically operated automatic vent damper, when should it operate?
a.
When the appliance surface temperature reaches 140°F
b.
When the furnace main switch is turned on
c.
As soon as gas reaches upstream of the appliance regulator
d.
When the damper is proven to be fully open before ignition of the main burner

A

When the damper is proven to be fully open before ignition of the main burner

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28
Q

If the domestic water heater using a thermostatic gas valve (unitrol gas valve) what safety device will shut off the supply of gas, if a higher than normal water temp is reached?
a.
E.C.O
b.
Anode
c.
Fire pot
d.
Dip tube

A

E.C.O.
(Energy Cut Off)

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29
Q

When two water heaters are piped in parallel, it is important to?
a.
Have the largest BTU closest to the door opening
b.
Make sure the vertical outlets are twice the height has the vertical inlet
c.
Ensure that the inlet and the outlet has equal resistance
d.
Ensure that the structure is over 2200 square feet

A

Ensure that the inlet and the outlet has equal resistance

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30
Q

A temperature and pressure relief valve on a water heater is set relieve at which pressure?

a.
150° F
b.
150 psig
c.
210 psig
d.
210° F

A

150 psig

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31
Q

What name is given to a water heater that is allowed to be installed in bathroom?
a.
Direct vent water heater
b.
High Efficiency water heater
c.
Power vented water heater
d.
Conventional water heater

A

Direct Vent water heater

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32
Q

A vent from a 65,000 BTU power vented water heater shall not be terminated less than ________ from the ground level?
a.
600 mm (24 in)
b.
900 mm (36in)
c.
150 mm (6 in)
d.
300 mm (12 in)

A

300mm (12”)

33
Q

What minimum service clearance is required on the burner side of a direct vent water heater?
a.
10ft
b.
3 ft
c.
15ft
d.
2 ft

A

2 ft

34
Q

A temperature and pressure relief valve that incorporates a fusible plug would tend to melt at?
a.
150° F
b.
210° F
c.
210 psig
d.
150 psig

A

210° F

35
Q

What are the components of an instantaneous water heater?
a.
Pump, pump control, flow switch, temperature and pressure relief valve and rod and tube sensor
b.
Pump, pump control, flow switch, E.C.O and limit switch
c.
Pump, anode, flow switch, temperature and pressure relief valve and dip tube
d.
Pump, pump control, flow switch, temperature and pressure relief valve and limit switch

A

Pump, pump control, flow switch, temperature and pressure relief valve and limit switch

36
Q

What is the open circuit test of a thermocouple?
a.
10-15 MV
b.
15-25 MV
c.
5-10 MV
d.
25-30 MV

A

25-30 mV

37
Q

15 psi is equivalent to?
a.
1.87 feet of head
b.
420 feet of head
c.
35 feet of head
d.
15 feet of head

A

35 feet of head

(1 foot of head water = 0.433 psi 1 psi = 2.31 feet of head)

38
Q

On a no heat call with a combination hot water system, you find the water heater hot and working fine, and the air handler is blowing cold air. The probable cause of no heat maybe?
a.
Water heater is too small
b.
Faulty unitrol
c.
Faulty pressure relief valve
d.
Faulty pump in the air handler

A

Faulty pump in the air handler

39
Q

The relief opening on a hot water heater must be piped to not more than?
a.
2 ft from the floor
b.
3 ft from the floor
c.
1 ft from the floor
d.
4 ft from the floor

A

1 ft from the floor

40
Q

What is the purpose of the high limit found on some water heaters?
a.
Limits the temperature rise in the water heater
b.
Limits the inlet and outlet water temperature
c.
Set the storage tank water temperature
d.
Lowers the temperature of the water outlet

A

Limits the temperature rise in the water heater

41
Q

What name is given to a device which controls gas pressure to the main burner, the temperature of the water, and turns off the gas when the pilot goes out?
a.
E.C.O
b.
Unitrol
c.
Low water cut off
d.
Pressuretrol

A

Unitrol

42
Q

You’re taking a shower at home and you notice that the water temperature starts to drop after 1 minute with no other faucets running and your gas bill is paid on time. What would be the likely cause of this?
a.
The dip tube is either cracked or broken
b.
The new shower head is passing too much water
c.
The system is out of calibration
d.
The Inver steel sensor has calcium deposits

A

The dip tube is either cracked or broken

43
Q

A domestic water heater utilizes what thermostatic control?
a.
Bi-metallic sensor
b.
Rod and tube sensor
c.
Mercury filled sensor
d.
Thermistor

A

Rod and Tube sensor

44
Q

Pumps for air handlers are sized?
a.
10,000 gpm for each 1 Btuh output
b.
1 gph for each 10,000 Btuh input
c.
1 gpm for each 10,000 Btuh input
d.
1 gpm for each 100,000 Btuh output

A

1 gpm for each 10,000 Btuh input

45
Q

What component in a combination heating system that will prevent thermal siphoning from the air handler heating loop?
a.
Emergency shut-off valve
b.
Back check valve
c.
Mixing valve
d.
Hydrostatic relief valve

A

Back check valve

46
Q

What are the components of an underfired storage water heater?
a.
Temperature and pressure relief valve, anode, and mixing valve
b.
Pump, anode, flow switch, temperature and pressure relief valve and dip tube
c.
Temperature and pressure relief valve, anode, and dip tube
d.
Pump, pump control, flow switch, ECG and Emit switch

A

Temperature and pressure relief valve, anode, and dip tube

47
Q

On a hot water combination system, a call for heat will?
a.
Open the hot water solenoid to the air handler
b.
Cause the water heater to fire up
c.
Ensure hot water is available
d.
Energize the pump and blower in the air handler

A

Energize the pump and blower in the air handler

48
Q

Identify one type of burner below that you could use, when doing a conversion from one fuel to another?
a.
Inshot burner
b.
Ribbon port burner
c.
Mono port burner
d.
Slotted port burner

A

Inshot Burner

49
Q

A mechanical device such as a fan or blower that is designed at sufficient pressure to overcome the resistance of the burner only, would be referred to as?
a.
Induced-draft burner
b.
Natural-draft burner
c.
Fan-assisted burner
d.
Forced-draft burner

A

Fan-assisted burner

50
Q

An oil nozzle size that is .65 gph, will give you?
a.
9,100 Btuh
b.
87,000 Btuh
c.
8,700 Btuh
d.
91,000 Btuh

A

91,000 btuh

51
Q

What would a gas technician do to determine that a heat exchanger is defective?
a.
Using a carbon monoxide detector or flue gas analyzer
b.
Using a smoke generator
c.
Visual using a mirror or a camera scope
d.
All available choices

A

All available choices

52
Q

Identify two unwanted products of incomplete combustion?
a.
Carbon monoxide and nitrogen
b.
Carbon dioxide and water vapour
c.
Carbon monoxide and aldehydes
d.
Nitrogen and excess heat

A

Carbon dioxide and aldehydes

53
Q

When measuring carbon dioxide using an analyzer and the accuracy is in doubt, it is best to?
a.
Check against a known source
b.
Do a dial test
c.
Verify it against the rating plate
d.
Do two more test sample

A

Check against a known source

54
Q

The air temperature that is found upstream of a draft hood is said to be?
a.
Dilution air temperature
b.
Ambient air temperature
c.
Supply air temperature
d.
Gross stack temperature

A

Gross stack temperature

55
Q

Too much excess air will?
a.
Raise efficiency
b.
Lower net stack temperature
c.
Lower efficiency
d.
Raise CO2 levels in the flue gases

A

Lower efficiency

56
Q

Dilution air can be defined as?
a.
Air that is always pre-mixed before ignition
b.
Room air that enters and mixes with the flue gas at the draft regulator
c.
Air that surrounds the flame and completes combustion
d.
Additional air that is added to the combustion zone

A

Room air that enters and mixes with the flue gas at the draft regulator

57
Q

A converted boiler shall be installed with _______________ minimum clearances from the sides and rear to a combustible material?
a.
6 in (150 mm)
b.
18 in (450 mm)
c.
1 in (25 mm)
d.
48 in (1200 mm)

A

18 in (450mm)

58
Q

When doing a combustion analysis on a propane fired appliance, the CO2 reading of the flue gases should be?
a.
5 to 6%
b.
10 to 11%
c.
9 to 9.5%
d.
7 to 8%

A

9 to 9.5%

59
Q

Additional air that is found in the flue gases can be referred to as?
a.
Excess air
b.
Dilution air
c.
Primary air
d.
Secondary air

A

Excess air

60
Q

If the gross stack temp is 500F and the ambient room temp is 70F. What is the net stack temperature?
a.
450F
b.
430F
c.
500F
d.
550F

A

430° F

61
Q

Conversion burners used with an appliance having a draft regulator, the c-vent connector should be how far from a combustible material.
a.
225 mm (9”)
b.
450mm (18”).
c.
75mm (3”)
d.
150mm (6”)

A

9 in (225mm)

62
Q

One US gallon of #2 fuel oil would yield what calorific value?
a.
180,000 BTU
b.
140,000 BTU
c.
105,000 BTU
d.
112,000 BTU

A

140,000 btu

63
Q

If the required clearance to a vent connector 18 in (450mm) from combustible material with no protection, what provisions must he made if the clearance needs to be reduce by 9 in (225mm)?
a.
No. 24 MSG (0.30 mm) metal spaced 1 in (25 mm) apart with non-combustible spacers
b.
0.25 in (6mm) insulating millboard spaced 1 in (25mm) apart with non-combustible spacers
c.
No.28 MSG (0.30mm) metal spaced 1 in (25 mm) apart with non-combustible spacers
d.
No.28 MSG (0.30mm) metal on 0.25 in (6mm) insulating millboard

A

No.28 MSG (0.30mm) metal spaced 1 in (25 mm) apart with non-combustible spacers

64
Q

What happens if the neutral pressure point (above the fire) is improperly adjusted on a conversion burner?
a.
The equipment will be under fired
b.
The burner undergoes longer firing cycles
c.
The efficiency of the equipment will be affected
d.
Burner flame become too wavy

A

The efficiency of the equipment will be affected

65
Q

A natural drafted appliance of the revertible flue type shall not be converted unless?
a.
The centreline of the flue collar is at least 1 in (25 mm) above the burner port
b.
The centreline of the flue collar is at least 6 in (150 mm) above the burner port
c.
The centreline of the flue collar is at least 12 in (300 mm) above the burner port
d.
The centreline of the flue collar is at least 3 in (75 mm) above the burner port

A

The centreline of the flue collar is at least 12 in (300 mm) above the burner port

66
Q

Gross stack temp is measured where in the vent connector?
a.
Downstream of the draft regulator
b.
At the barometric regulator
c.
upstream of the draft regulator
d.
At the draft regulator

A

upstream of the draft regulator

67
Q

Before a burner is started, it is important to?
a.
Make sure the electrical service energized
b.
Read the manufacturer’s instructions
c.
Attach a condensate drain
d.
Make sure the induced draft motor comes on first

A

Read the manufacturer’s instructions

68
Q

On a converted forced warm air furnace the highest high limit setting would be?

a.
180° C (350° F)
b.
120° C (250° F)
c.
250° C (482° F)

A

120° C (250° F)

69
Q

On a forced warm air converted furnace the service clearance should be?
a.
75 mm (3in)
b.
600mm (24in)
c.
25 mm (1in)
d.
150mm (6in)

A

24 in (600mm)

70
Q

The supply pressure for propane on a recreational vehicle shall not exceed?
a.
11” wc
b.
2 psig
c.
13” wc
d.
7”-14”wc

A

13” w.c.

71
Q

Three way refrigerators usually run on, propane, 120 volts AC and______?
a.
24 volts AC
b.
Natural gas
c.
12 volts AC
d.
12 volts DC

A

12 Volts DC

72
Q

Domestic gas-fired refrigerators found on recreational vehicles or homes must be?
a.
Type A-Vent
b.
Insulated L-Vent
c.
Insulated BH-Vent
d.
Direct vent sealed combustion

A

Direct vent sealed combustion

73
Q

Propane cylinders on a recreational vehicle are usually found
a.
On the A frame of the RV
b.
Under the RV
c.
None of the Above
d.
The rear bumper of the RV

A

On the A frame of the RV

74
Q

Gas fired refrigerators operate on the principle of?
a.
Condensation
b.
Compression
c.
Diffusion
d.
Absorption

A

Absorption

75
Q

The use of propane is not allowed in a recreational vehicle that are?:
a.
Unoccupied
b.
A permanent installation
c.
Occupied
d.
In motion

A

In motion

76
Q

Thick frost on the evaporator coil will?
a.
Cause freeze state to kick out
b.
Operate with greater efficiency
c.
Operate with less efficiency
d.
Cause a red light to activate on unit

A

Operate with less efficiency

77
Q

When purging a propane system on a recreational vehicle, which is the correct method:
a.
None of the above
b.
Disconnect the gas tubing under the RV and turn on the gas and purge
c.
Open the oven door and turn on the gas purge and light with a lit taper
d.
Using a lit taper open the valve on the cook top stove purge and light

A

Using a lit taper open the valve on the cook top stove purge and light

78
Q

The components of an absorption system are?
a.
Condenser, generator, evaporator, absorber
b.
Generator, compressor, evaporator, condenser
c.
Compressor, condenser, evaporator, absorber
d.
Condenser, absorber, evaporator, separator

A

Condenser, generator, evaporator, absorber

79
Q

What is the minimum clearance from combustibles that a gas refrigerator must maintain at the side and back of the unit?
a.
2”
b.
3”
c.
4”
d.
5”

A

2” (50mm)