G-IV systems and limitations oral test prep Flashcards
1
Q
What is Mmo?
A
0.88M
2
Q
What is Vmo?
A
340 kts.
3
Q
What is Va?
A
s/n 1000 - 1213 = 170 kts.
or
s/n >= 1214 = 206 kts.
*or if have ASC 190
4
Q
What is Vmc?
A
Vmca = 104 kts.
Vmcg = 111 kts.
5
Q
What is turbulence penetration speed?
A
270 kts. / 0.75M
6
Q
What is max ramp weight?
A
s/n 1000 - 1213 = 73,600 lbs.*
or
s/n >= 1214 = 75,000 lbs.
*75,000 lbs. w/ ASC 190
7
Q
What is the max take off weight?
A
s/n 1000 - 1213 = 73,200 lbs.*
or
s/n >= 1214 = 74,600 lbs.
*74,600 lbs. w/ ASC 190
8
Q
What is the max landing weight?
A
s/n 1000 - 1213 = 58,500 lbs.*
or
s/n >= 1214 = 66,000 lbs.
*66,000 lbs. w/ ASC 190
9
Q
What is the max zero fuel weight?
A
s/n 1000 - 1213 = 46,500 lbs.*
or
s/n >= 1214 = 49,000 lbs.
*49,000 lbs. w/ ASC 190
10
Q
What is the maximum approved altitude for takeoff and landing?
A
15,000 ft.
11
Q
What is the maximum approved slope for take off and landing?
A
+ / - 2%
12
Q
What is the maximum approved tailwind for takeoff and landing?
A
10 kts.
13
Q
What is the maximum approved altitude?
A
45,000 ft.
14
Q
What limitation is there on the use of landing lights?
A
Ground operation is limited to 5 minutes.
15
Q
Other than the AFM, what 2 publications are required to be immediately available to the flight crew?
A
FMS, SPZ 8000 (or 8400)
GPWS* TCAS*
*if installed
16
Q
What is the minimum altitude for autopilot engagement?
A
200 ft. AGL
17
Q
What is the minimum altitude for autopilot operation on approach?
A
50 ft. AGL (If VNAV is used, the min. altitude for disengagement is 300 ft. AGL or 50 ft. below MDA. Whichever is higher).
18
Q
What is the minimum altitude for autothrottle operation on approach?
A
50 ft. AGL
19
Q
When is the autothrottle not authorized for use during take off or go around?
A
When wing anti-ice is used.
20
Q
What is the engine starter duty cycle?
A
30 sec. on / 3 min. off
30 sec. on / 3 min. off
30 sec. on / 15 min. off
21
Q
What is the airstart ignition duty cycle?
A
s/n 1000 - 1249 =
30 sec. on / 30 sec. off
5 min. on / 30 min. off
s/n >= 1250 = continuously
*also for sub =< 1249 w/ ASC 304
22
Q
What is the maximum engine fuel temperature?
A
90 C indefinitely, or 120 C for 15 min.
23
Q
What is the minimum engine fuel temperature?
A
-40 C/F
24
Q
What is the maximum oil temperature?
A
105C indefinitely, or 120C for 15 min.
25
What is the minimum oil temperature?
-40 C/F
26
What is the minimum oil temperature for opening the power levers?
Minus - 30 C
27
What is the limitation for the engine synchronizer system?
The engine synchronizer must be off for takeoff and landing.
28
When do we need to cancel reverse during landing?
Initiate cancellation of reverse thrust by 70 kts. to achieve idle reverse thrust by normal taxi speed.
29
What is the maximum APU EGT?
988 C by 60%
732 C after starting,
680 C with bleed air on.
30
What is the maximum APU RPM?
110.0%
31
What are the APU starter duty limits if starting on batteries?
3 - 30 second attempts
20 minutes off
2 - 15 second attempts
1 hour off
32
What are the APU starter duty limits if starting on a GPU?
2 - 15 second attempts
20 minutes off
2 - 15 second attempts
1 hour off
33
What is the APU starter duty cycle if the starts are successful?
6 starts with 10 minute intervals between starts.
Then 1 hour off.
34
What is the APU starting envelope?
SL to 15,000 below 250 kts. = start guaranteed.
15,000 to 20,000 = start is possible.
35
What limitations must be considered if the APU is operated above 30,000?
An inspection is required if the APU is operated above 30,000 ft. for more than 1 hour or more, or more than 5 times above 35,000 ft.
36
Can the APU be used for pressurization in flight?
No, the nutcrackers disable the APU bleed air.
37
What limitations apply to the standby electrical system?
Minimum HP RPM = 67%
No ground spoilers
No thrust reversers
Speedbrakes may be used, but operated slowly (about 5 seconds for full deflection)
38
What limitation must be observed before pulling the flight power shutoff handle?
The speedbrakes must be retracted (Assymetrical blow down).
39
What is Vle?
250 kts.
40
What is Vlo?
Normal = 225 kts.
Alternate = 175 kts.
41
What is the maximum tire speed?
s/n 1000 - 1213 = 182 kts.*
or
s/n >= 1214 = 195 kts.
*or if have ASC 190 for prior
42
What is the maximum altitude with the landing gear extended?
20,000 ft.
43
When are speedbrakes not authorized?
Flaps 39 or landing gear extended.
44
If a takeoff is made with ground spoilers inoperative, what configuration must be used?
Flaps must be at 20.
Anti-skid must be operative.
45
If a takeoff is made with anti-skid inoperative, what configuration must be used?
Flaps must be at 20.
Ground spoilers must be operative.
Rated thrust must be used.
Cowl and wing anti-ice must be off.
46
What 2 brake messages must be cleared prior to takeoff?
Brake Pedal (BBW) and Brake Fail.
47
What are the Vfe speeds?
Flaps 10 = 250 kts.
Flaps 20 = 220 kts.
Flaps 39 = 170 kts.
Flaps 39 = 180 kts. (* w/ ASC 190 or s/n 1214 and later.)
48
What is the maximum speed with both mach-trim compensators inoperative or electric trim inop?
0.75M
49
What speed considerations must be observed if the yaw damper fails in flight?
Minimum speed with yaw damper inoperative is 220 kts. above FL 180. Below FL 180, see AFM for minimum speed (it's a function of fuel.)
50
What limitations apply if both mach-trim compensators and the yaw damper are inoperative?
Max altitude = 41,000 ft. Speed limits for both apply (max 0.75M & min 220 kts. above FL 180)
51
Are mach-trim compensators required to be on during flight?
Yes.
52
Are the stall barrier computers required to be on during flight?
Yes.
53
What is the maximum altitude that you can operate with flaps 39?
20,000 ft.
54
What limitation applies if a takeoff is made with your yaw damper inoperative?
Maximum fuel load is 9,000 lbs.
55
What bleed considerations must be observed above 41,000 ft.?
Do not operate above 41,000 ft. without both engine bleeds ON and each engine being bled by either the air conditioning (PACKS) on. If a PACK is turned off, the corresponding cowl anti-ice must be on. (*prevents compressor stalls)
56
What is the max cabin differential?
9.8 PSID
57
What is the max cabin differential permitted during taxi, takeoff and landing?
0.3 PSID
58
What is the maximum windshield wiper speed?
200 kts.
59
When is the cowl anti-ice required on the ground?
When static air temp (SAT) is below +10C and visible moisture, precipitation, or contaminated runway are present. Engine operation of 85% LP for 60 seconds is recommended just prior to takeoff.
60
When is wing anti-ice required?
When icing conditions are imminent or immediately upon detection of ice formation on wings, winglets, or windshield edges.
61
What conditions must be met in order to turn off 1 boost bump while at cruise?
Fuel tank temps must be above 0 C or fuel contains anti-icing additive.
62
What is total useable fuel?
29,500 lbs.
(26,000 lbs. for G-300)
63
What is the maximum possible fuel imbalance?
Ranging from a 2,000 lb. imbalance at a weight of 55,000 lbs. to a 400 lb. imbalance at a weight of 66,500 lbs.
64
If a thrust reverser deploys accidentally what would happen to engine thrust?
It is reduced to idle by a cable that automatically retards the respective power lever.
65
What EVM indications are considered normal in icing conditions and non-icing?
In icing = 1.25
Non-icing = 0.60
66
When checking the engine oil, what precaution must be observed when reading the sight gauge?
There are 2 tapes on either side. While checking the left engine, check the left sight gauge. Right engine, right sight gauge.
67
What indications should be observed prior to opening up the HP fuel cock during an engine start?
Positive LP
Positive HP (min 15%)
Positive oil pressure
TGT rising
68
Which hydraulic system power the thrust reverser?
The left engine is powered by the Combined System (left engine)
The right engine is powered by the Flight System (right engine)
69
During preflight what would you look for on the thrust reverser?
General condition, doors fully stowed and flush to engine cowl and no leaks.
70
If a flameout occurred and you are unable to close the HP cock, what would you suspect has happened?
Shaft separation.
71
Where we tap customer bleed?
7th and 12th stage.
72
Will the oil filter bypass?
Yes.
73
Will the fuel filter bypass?
No.
74
What are the engine idle speeds?
Ground = 46.6%
Airborne w/ flaps less then 22 = 46.6% HP
Airborne w/ flaps greater than 22 = 67% HP
75
What do the colors on the engine instruments indicate?
Red = Max and Min
Amber = Takeoff and Caution
White = Normal
76
When do the standby engine instruments come on?
In auto, if a primary engine instrument fails, in a manual full time.
77
What engine parameters are displayed on the standby engine instruments?
The primary engine instruments (left side of the DU #3).
78
What would you suspect if the APU master switch is turned on and the low oil pressure light did not come on?
The APU inlet door did not open.
79
What is the APU used for on the ground? In the air?
Ground = air & electricity
Air = electricity only
80
When shutting down the APU by using the overspeed / test switch, when should you turn off the master switch?
After the RPM reaches 10%
81
If an automatic shutdown of the APU occurs, where would you look to determine what caused the shutdown?
On the APU fault indicator panel in the tail compartment.
82
If a flag is in the view on the APU fault panel (in the tail cone section), what should be done before starting the APU?
Actuate the reset switch and make a note of which flag was in view.
83
Where does the APU receive its fuel from?
From the left hopper fuel ejector line.
84
If the APU is started and for some reason it shuts down, and the decision is made to restart, what must be done with the APU cockpit controls prior to the restart?
The APU master switch must be turned off then back on.
85
Once the APU is operating, how long should you wait before placing the electrical loads on the APU? What about pneumatic loads?
Electrical (Aux Power) = immediately.
APU bleed air = at least 2 minutes before turning on.
86
What is the correct configuration for the APU shutdown?
Alternator - off, Air - unchanged until 10% RPM
87
When you shutdown the APU, you press the Overspeed Test Switch, what does this actually do?
It simulates an overspeed of 114% RPM which causes the ECU to close the APU fuel valve.
88
After the APU is operating, how would turn on the alternator?
By selecting the AUX power on.
89
If the APU is operating and the AUX power switch is on, when both engine driven alternators are operating, will the APU OFF light be on?
No.
90
What occurs automatically in the pneumatic system when we turn on the APU air?
The isolation valve opens.
91
At what point do the fuel low level warning lights come on?
At 650 lbs. per hopper.
92
If 2 boost pumps fail on the same side, how would you keep the fuel balanced?
By opening the Intertank valve and using a sideslip.
93
After start, you check the fuel and oil temps. What are we checking and why?
We should check to see that the temps are similar, to verify that the fuel / oil heat exchanger is working.
94
How would you read the fuel tank temps?
On the fuel page (DCU).
95
Explain the fuel quantity test?
Place the toggle switch to the D and you will say all 8s displayed. Then place the toggle switch to T, left and right fuel quantity will indicate 7,000 lbs. and total will indicate 14,000 lbs. EICAS displays will turn amber and low fuel lights will flash for 30 seconds.
96
What is the Intertank valve used for?
To move fuel from one hopper to the other using a sideslip.
To defuel the airplane.
97
What is the Crossflow valve used for?
To move fuel from one hopper to the opposite engine by using a boost pump to pump it through the valve (pumps push.)
98
What is indicated if a L or R Main (or Alt) fuel press low message (amber) is on the EICAS and the CB light on the switch is illuminated?
The circuit breaker on the PDB (Power Distribution Box) has opened.
99
What 2 devices serve to keep the hoppers full?
Flapper valves.
Fuel ejectors.
100
What items are powered by the battery tie bus?
- The APU starter
- The aux hydraulic pump
- The essential DC
101
How many alternators are installed on the airplane?
4. Left, Right, APU and ABEX (arguably 3, some don't consider the ABEX.)
102
Where do the battery chargers receive power?
The respective main AC bus.
103
In normal operation, how many EPMP switches must be in auto?
6
104
What does the E-Inverter feed?
The essential AC bus (phase A)
105
What does the standby electrical power system supply power to?
The essential busses (AC & DC).
106
How should you turn on the standby electrical power system?
Stby elec switch - ON
E-Inverter - ON
TRU - ON (In that order)
107
If the standby electric system is in use and it comes off line, how should you reinstate it?
By turning the standby electric switch off then back on.
108
If the standby electric trim is in use and it comes off line, how should reinstate it?
By turning the standby electric switch off then back on.
109
How would you read the power on the essential busses?
By selecting Essential on the volt/freq meter switch (top right row of switches), and read the outputs.
110
How would you read the load on the left converter?
By reading the % of load on the AC & DC loadmeter.
111
What is the priority on the main busses?
Left, Aux, Right.
112
What is the priority of the essential busses?
Left, Right, Battery or E-Inverter.
113
What is the source of power for the standby electrical system (ABEX)?
The combined hydraulic system.
114
What is norm system pressure?
3000 PSI
115
What is the proper pre-charge pressure on the hydraulic accumulators?
1000 PSI
116
What type of fluid is used in the hydraulic system?
Type IV (Skydrol)
117
What components can the auxiliary system operate during landing?
Flaps, and brakes (with anti-skid).
118
Where does the utility system receive its fluid?
From the combined system reservoir.
119
What drives the utility system pump?
Flight system pressure.
120
Where does the auxiliary system receive its fluid?
From a dedicated chamber within the combined system reservoir.
121
What drives the auxiliary system pump?
An electric motor.
122
How many hydraulic filters are equipped with differential pressure indicators?
10
Combined = 5
Flight = 3
Right main gear = 1
Left main gear = 1
123
How is the hydraulic fluid cooled?
By a heat exchanger in each hopper. (Left-Combined. Right-Flight)
124
Hydraulics: What is normal Flight system quantity?
Full
125
Hydraulics: What is normal Combined system quantity?
Full if the gear is down. About 1/2 way between add and full if the gear is up.
126
Hydraulics: If the Utility pump is armed, when will it come on?
If Flight system pressure is normal.
If Flight system fluid is not overheated (greater than 104 C).
Combined system pressure is low (less than 800 PSI)
127
When will the Auxiliary pump come on?
Aux pump On/Off switch, Inside door switch, Outside door switch, Brake application (Assuming an absence of Combined/Utility pressure), Ground service valve.
128
What is the purpose of the nutcracker system?
To provide an air / ground signal to various systems within the airplane.
129
If you press the nutcracker test switch and both lights come on, what does this indicate?
That both main gear nutcrackers are in the airborne mode. (If you don't see two white lights - DO NOT arm ground spoilers.)
130
If the nutcrackers fail their test while airborne, what precaution should be taken?
Do not arm the ground spoilers.
131
If one main gear nutcracker is in flight and the other is on the ground, where do the systems that rely on this information think they are?
Airborne.
132
What does pulling the emergency gear handle (T-Handle) do?
Pulling the T-Handle positions the dump valves (to port fluid to return if there is any) and supplies N2 to the landing gear to extend.
133
What does pulling the handle (D-Ring) adjacent to the co-pilots right leg do?
Resets the dump valve in the landing gear system so that it can operate normally.
134
What does the red light in the landing gear handle indicate?
If the handle is up it indicates that one or more landing gear doors are not closed. If the handle is down, it indicates that one or more landing gear are not down and locked.
135
If you do an emergency extension and all 3 landing gear come down and lock, what will be the indication in the cockpit?
The three green lights will be on and the red light in the handle will be off.
136
With respect to the landing gear, what precaution should be taken before towing the airplane?
The nose scissors must be disconnected.
137
What 2 methods can we use to steer the nosewheel?
The hand-wheel (tiller)
The rudder pedals.
138
There is a guarded toggle switch in front of the hand-wheel. What does it do?
It turns off steering at the rudders and the hand-wheel.
139
On some airplanes there is a switch aft of the hand-wheel labeled, "Normal and Hand-Wheel Only". If it is in the "Hand-Wheel Only" position, what has been done?
The rudder pedal steering has been turned off.
140
If you move the landing gear control handle, you reposition the landing gear control valve. Is this done electrically or mechanically?
Mechanically.
141
What is the proper brake accumulator pre-charge pressure?
1200 PSI.
142
If we land the airplane with 1200 PSI on the brake system pressure gauge and normal brakes fail, will the emergency brakes (through the parking brake) be available?
No, the accumulator has to be charged with hydraulic fluid.
143
How do we set the parking brake?
Pull the handle fully up.
Turn handle 1/4 turn clockwise.
Pressurize the brake system to 3000 PSI using the Aux hydraulic pump.
144
If you use the parking brake to stop the airplane during landing, will you have anti-skid?
No.
145
Are brakes automatically applied after retraction?
Yes.
146
On SPZ-8000 airplanes that are equipped with BTMS, if you move the brake temperature monitor system selector switch to the "ALL" position, what temperature is being displayed?
The hottest brake.
147
How do you determine the hottest brake on the SPC-8400 system?
Pull up the brake page and the hottest brake is displayed at the bottom of the page.
148
When you do a brake BITE check, you generate 4 CAS messages (BBW system), or 3 CAS messages (HMAB system, then the brake ECU does the BITE check. What is an indication of a successful check?)
All the CAS messages will go away.
149
Which flight controls have trim tabs?
Both elevators.
The left aileron.
150
What is the maximum speed for operation of the speed brakes?
Vmo / Mmo
151
What does the rudder limit CAS message mean?
That further application of rudder will not displace the rudder.
152
What does the emergency flap handle do?
It mechanically repositions the flap selector valve, which will move the flaps if hydraulic pressure is available to the valve.
153
What feature of the airplane reduces control forces during flap movement?
Automatic repositioning of the horizontal stabilizer.
154
What precautions should be observed prior to engaging the gust lock?
Make sure all of the hydraulic pressure has been bled from the system. (Bring up the hydraulic page & make sure they all read 100. Then line up rudder pedals so they lock.)
155
How is the rudder trimmed?
By repositioning the entire rudder itself (no trim trab).
156
If we are in flight with speed-brakes retracted and apply left aileron, which spoilers go up?
The outboard 2 on the left wing.
157
Assuming both computers are working normally, how many stall barriers computers are required to give us a sticker shaker? Pusher?
1 for the shaker.
2 for the pusher.
158
What is the rudder limiter for?
To limit the amount of rudder deflection available based on airspeed.
159
What does the "No Ground Spoiler Light" on the windshield post mean?
It means that all conditions for deployment have been met (Nutcrackers in ground mode, both power levers to idle, ground spoiler Armed) and the ground spoilers did not deploy.
160
What does the "Ground Spoiler" message mean?
The primary control valve has opened and the ground spoilers did not deploy.
161
What is bleed air used for?
- Engine start
- Wing & Cowl anti ice
- Air conditioning
- Pressurization
- Door seals
- TAT probe
162
What is the purpose of the isolation valve?
To separate the left and right sides of the bleed air manifold.
163
Name the 4 ways to open the isolation valve?
- Isolation valve switch
- Turning on APU bleed air
- Selecting Start Master
- Selecting Crank Master (ground only)
164
How are the outflow valves controlled?
The normal outflow valve is normally operated by an AC motor, although a DC motor will reposition the valve if manual pressurization is selected (Auto=AC, Man=DC). The safety outflow valve is normally closed, however it will begin to open if pressure differential reaches 9.8 PSID.
165
What functions does the FLIGHT / LANDING switch serve?
In the FLIGHT position, it gives control to the flight tape on the pressurization controller (unless the landing field elevation is set higher.)
In the LANDING position, if gives control to the landing tape on the pressurization controller.
166
What prevents you from using the APU to pressurize the airplane airborne?
The nutcracker system closes the APU bleed valve when airborne.
167
What is the minimum pressure that cowl anti-ice is effective?
4 PSI
168
What does a "Wing Warm" CAS message mean?
The wing is warm enough to prevent ice from forming.
169
What does a "Wing Hot" CAS message mean?
The wing is too hot.
170
What would happen if one wing anti-ice valve failed closed when you selected wing anti-ice ON?
Both wings would be heated by the other valve and crossover duct.
171
Where is the cowl anti-ice air exhausted?
Into the engine air inlet.
172
With respect to ice and rain protection, what precaution should be observed if a Main AC buss losses power momentarily?
The windshield heat switches should be cycled off, wait 2 seconds, then back on to prevent a windshield heat controller from running away.
173
What protects the fan nose cone from icing?
The nose cone has a rubber tip that will tend to vibrate when ice is formed, shedding it toward the outside tips of the fan blades.
174
What is the proper pre-charge pressure for a fire bottle?
600-625 PSI
175
Which buss powers the engine and APU fire extinguishing systems?
Essential DC
176
What takes place if a fire handle is pulled?
- Fuel shutoff valve closes
- Hydraulic shutoff valve closes
- Thrust reverser is disabled
- Alternator is tripped
- Both fire bottles are armed to discharge into the respective engine (F.I.R.E.S.)
177
Will a fire warning automatically bring up a checklist?
1000-1143 without ASC 178 - NO
1000-1143 with ASC 178 & 1444 subsequent - YES
178
How many fire bottles are installed?
3.
179
How many engine fire bottles are installed?
2.
180
Normally how many fire loops are necessary to trigger an engine fire warning?
2.
181
If a fire loop has a fault, can the engine it is installed on still have a fire warning?
Yes, when the fault occurs the "Eng flt loop alert" message will appear. By pressing lighted button the fire warning for that engine is configured to produce a warning if only 1 loop registers the fire.
182
If there is no fire warning, what must be done in order to pull the Fire Handle?
Press the button below the handle.
183
If the Oxygen mask flow selector is set to normal, what will be delivered to the mask?
Diluted oxygen in a decreasing ratio to about 35,000'. Above 35,000', you will receive 100% oxygen.
184
If the passenger oxygen control is set to automatic, the passenger oxygen masks should deploy if the cabin altitude gets too high (13,000' +/- 500). What should be done if this does not take place?
Place the passenger oxygen control to manual.
185
How do you shut off the oxygen flow to the crew oxygen masks after it's no longer needed?
Push the reset / test bar forward.
186
When using the crew oxygen mask, what 2 ways are there to receive oxygen under positive pressure?
By rotating the selector knob to emergency, or automatically between 36,000' and 45,000'.
187
There are 2 oxygen pressure gauges on the oxygen control panel. If both of those gauges indicate an adequate supply of oxygen, can we expect to receive oxygen if needed?
Not necessarily. The gauges will indicate bottle pressure even if the supply switches are off.
188
If the crew oxygen masks are needed, how would we verify that we are receiving oxygen?
By observing the flow indicator in the forward right corner of the stowage box. (There should be a yellow and black + sign).
189
What communications equipment will be available if the emergency batteries are the only source of power?
The #1 VHF communications radio.
190
What communications equipment will be available if the standby electrical system is used?
The #1 VHF communications radio.
191
On the audio panel, what does the "MASK" button do?
It enables the oxygen mask microphone.
192
On the audio panel, what does the "HMIKE" button do?
If both crewmembers select HMIKE, they may communicate without using the interphone key.
193
On the audio panel, what does the "PAGE" button do?
It enables a cockpit crewmember to speak directly to all passengers in the cabin through the cabin speakers.
194
On the audio panel, what does the "CABIN" button do?
It enables a cockpit crewmember to speak directly to a cabin crewmember at a specific location (usually the galley).
195
What is the priority for different messages of different color?
Red, Amber, Blue.
196
If a red message is flashing, how can it be stopped?
By pressing either of the master warning lights.
197
If a blue message is flashing, how can it be stopped?
It stops on its own after 5 seconds.
198
What does a red X over the CAS display signify?
Failure of the fault warning computer.
199
What is the difference between a display unit going blank and a display unit going blank with a red X displayed?
If the display unit goes blank it has failed.
If a red X appears on a blank screen, the symbol (signal?) generator supplying it has failed.
200
If all the right engine instruments show amber dashes, what would you suspect is the problem and how would you fix it?
DAU #2, channel B has failed. Go to the sensor page and select DAU #2, Channel A.
201
The DBDI's have 3 lights in the upper right corner. One is green (AHDB), one is amber (STBY), and the other is Red (STBY). What do they mean?
If the Green light comes on, it indicates that the DBDI is using the alternate IRS for heading info.
If the Amber light comes on, it indicates that the IRS input has failed, and that the DBDI is using info from the flux valve. If the Red light comes on the flux valve input has failed.
202
Why is it recommended that you do not use the runway position feature on the IRS?
An IRS position error is calculated by the FMS based on starting position and the time that the IRS entered the NAV mode. When IRS position is updated, the position error calculation would now be inaccurate.
203
How do you create a place / distance waypoint?
By line selecting a waypoint into. the scratch pad, typing in the desired bearing then typing in the distance. When this is done, line select this information into the flight plan wherever you want it.
204
What is the priority for navigation sensor use by the FMS?
GPS
DME / DME
VOR / DME
LRN Blending
205
If an NDB approach is made, you must identify the navaid prior to starting the approach, however, it is not necessary to monitor it continuously during the approach. Why?
Because if the signal from the NDB is lost the bearing pointer will disappear.
206
In which axis does the autopilot have authority?
Latitude & Longitude (Roll & Pitch).
207
What does the "BC" button do on the flight guidance panel?
It enables the flight director to track a back course.
208
If the yaw damper fails, will the autopilot work?
No.
209
What takes place when "TOGA" is selected in flight?
- A/P disconnects
- Autothrottles initiate go around power (if engaged)
- Flight director issues a pitch command of +12 degrees (or speed command SPZ-8400)
- Flight director issues a roll command of wings level
- FMS initiates the missed approach procedure (if properly sequenced)
210
What practical conditions must be met to engage the autothrottles on the ground?
- Takeoff mode must be on the flight director (TOGA)
- EPR must be at least 1.17
- Isolation valve must be closed.
211
How many autopilots are on the airplane?
2
212
Where are the shoulder harness locks?
On the inboard side of each pilot's seat toward the bottom, and aft.
213
How do you open the over-wing emergency exits?
Pull the handle up and pull the window inboard.
214
There is a ring on the upper surface of the wing approximately 10-12 feet from the fuselage, at about mid chord. What is it for?
So that a rope can be attached from the emergency exit to the ring. Then the rope can be used as a hand rail.
215
Where are the crew life jackets stowed?
In a pouch at the back of the seat toward the bottom.
216
When doing the cabin preflight, what should we check for on the hand held fire extinguishers?
Pressure gauge in the green arc, and current inspection.
217
Which exterior lights are powered from the emergency batteries?
The lights below each emergency exit, one at the leading edge of the wing and one underwing light.
218
What is the power source for the cabin emergency lights?
A self-contained battery pack using batteries that are approximately the same as D cell flashlight batteries.
219
How would you turn all the cockpit lights to full bright?
By turning on the floodlight override switch.
220
If the passenger oxygen shutoff valve is opened, what cabin sign will come on automatically?
The "no smoking" sign.
221
The taxi lights are located on the nose strut. If the nosewheel is turned while taxiing, will the lights also turn?
Yes.
222
If the taxi lights are on when the landing gear is retracted, will the lights go out?
s/n 1000 - 1155 = No
w/ ASC 131 or s/n 1156 + = Yes
223
What are the pulselights?
Turning on the pulselights causes the landing lights to illuminate alternately, making the plane easier to see.
224
The utility lights are contained in the tail compartment. Can these lights be turned on in flight?
Yes, there is a labeled "Tail Compartment Light" on the right side of the baggage compartment that controls the lights.
