Further Civil Rules Flashcards

1
Q

How do you the other side to produce documents at trial?

A

r 227 Production of documents at trial
You provide notice to otherside to produce documents that are disclosed under this subdivision

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2
Q

What is the consequence of a party having to disclose a document at trial under r 227

A

The document is admissible against the disclosing party as relevant and as being what it purports to be

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3
Q

How do ordinary rules of evidence interact with rule 227?

A

They are not circumvented by the rule, still may require witnesses, cannot tender document that is obvious hearsay.

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4
Q

What are interogatories

A

written questions about matters in issue, served on a party required to be answered on oath

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5
Q

What is the rationale and purpose of interogatories?

A

Permits a party to prove facts they otherwise could not. And potentially allow a party to extract admissions, confining the issue in dispute. Are appropriate where a party does not have knowledge to advance their case

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6
Q

How to serve interogatories upon another party?

A

r 229 Delivery of interrogatories
Can be served at any time with leave of the court on a party or (non-party to determine if they should be a party in the proceeding). Limited to 30 questons, unless court otherwise allows.

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7
Q

When is the best time to serve interrogatories?

A

r 229(1) can be done at anytime however in reality, court is unlikely to grant leave prior to the conclusion of disclosure.

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8
Q

What empowers the court to grant leave for interrogatories?

A

r 230 Granting leave to deliver interrogatories
Can grant with or without notice to other party.
Can only grant if there is no other less expenssive alternative for the applicant to prove the matter.
Cannot be granted if proceedings in Mags Court for less than $7500.

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9
Q

What needs to be include in an application seeking leave for interrogatories?

A

r 230(2)
Draft of the questions should be annexed to the application.

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10
Q

What is considered when deciding an application for leave for interrogatories?

A

Quite special circumstances need exist, however the presence of a cheaper alternative to prove the matter will not prevent the granting of leave in of itself.

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11
Q

What are the limits of evidence sought by interrogatories?

A

Questions must relate to facts in issue revealed by pleadings etc. Extraneous answers sought “fishing expeditions” (including to determine if some other cause of action might exist) are not permitted

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12
Q

What are examples of permissible and impermissible interrogatories?

A

Account from fiduciary - permissible
Question of law/questions within the court’s jurrisdiction to determine- not permissible
Opinions - only if it is opinion that can be given by a witness ordinarily as it falls within ordinary experience, and not to be subject of expert opinion
Facts not in dispute - not permissible
Question that presumes fact - not permissible (unless admitted)
Documents - limited to ancillary matters about doc’s existence if it no longer exists (if it exists it can simply be proved under 233(1)(c)
Conversations - to determine time, date, place and ID of speakers, also words spoken need to be material

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13
Q

What rule provides for answering interrogatories?

A

r 231 Answering interrogatories
Must be answered within time specified by court and by a statement answerthing them with a vertifying affidavit as to the statement.
If party is claiming relief against multiple defendants, must be sent to each defendant that has filed ntoice to defend.

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14
Q

What must you do when doing your statement in asnwer to interrogatories?

A

r 232 Statement in answer to interrogatories.
Must answer the substance of each question, or object to it. Answer must be direct, non evasive, non technical. Objection must be set out .

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15
Q

When answering interrogatory is it sufficient to answer the question to the best of the party’s knowledge?

A

No, must not only answer to best of the party’s knowledge, information, belief but must also demonstrate that all proper reasonable enquiries have been made.

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16
Q

What does the court think of cheek when answering interrogatories?

A

Not on. Parties have obligations to the court and opponenets to do their best to be helpful, not grudging or clever. If a question has typos, doesn’t matter as long as the intention is clear, it should still be answered.

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17
Q

When can you object to interoggaroties? What rule?

A

r 233 Grounds for objection to answering interrogatories
Not relevant to a matter in question.
Won’t enable the court to decide a matter in question.
Likely to be at trial, a simple, easier, inexpensive way of proving the matter.
Vexatious or oppressive.
privlege

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18
Q

Is there another way, aside from objection, to avoid answer interrogatories? What rule?

A

r 234 Unnecessary Interrogatories
Party can apply to court to be relived of answering unnecessary interrogatories.

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19
Q

Who can swear the affidavit that accompanies the statement in answer of interrogatories? What rule?

A

r 234 Identity of individual by whom verifying affidavit to be made
Person, guardian (legal incapacity), proper officer for corp, etc.

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20
Q

What is the recourse/court’s power where a party fails to answer interrogatories, or gives inadequate answers ? What rule?

A

r 236 Failure to answer interrogatories
Court can order answer/further answer be given.
Person ordered to attend to give evidence orally.
Order a person qualified to do the accompanying statement affidavit (if OG person not qualified).

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21
Q

What is the test for the court when considering to order further answers to interrogatories? What rules is concerned?

A

r 236(2)
Twofold test:
Whether the interrogatory is proper, and
whether an answer to it is reasonable necessary for the proper and efficient conduct of the proceeding.
Answers merely not being helpful to the interrogator, are not suffcient.

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22
Q

What is the consequence of failing to answer interrogatories, following a court order under r 236(2) to answer them? What rule?

A

r 237 Failure to comply with court order
Party can apply on notice to that part/all of proceedings are stayed/dismissed or obtain judgement or that the interrogatories and affidavit be done within specified time. And of course, contempt.

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23
Q

What can you do with answered interrogatories at trial? What rule?

A

r 238 Use of Answers.
Can tender them at trial as they are admissions of fact admissible against their maker.. Court may require all of them be tendered.

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24
Q

who can interrogatory/disclosure orders be served on, and what is the consequence of noncompliance with those?

A

r 240 Service on solicitors
Service can be done on solicitors. Parties liable to contempt. If solicitor does not notify their own party, solicitor is liable for contempt.

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25
Q

What can you do if you want disclosure of documents from non-parties? What rule?

A

R 242 Non-party disclsoure
Can serve notice on non party to produce to applicant (within 14 days) documents; directly relevant to allegation in issue, inpossession of, and a doc that the party be required to serve at trial.

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26
Q

When may a non-party disclosure request not be permitted? What rule is concerned

A

r 242 Non-party disclosure
The documents sought must relate to allegations in issue. “Fishing expeditions” are not permitted.

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27
Q

Can you do a non-party disclsoure request prior to the close of pleadings? What rule is concerned?

A

r 242(2) provides that the production not required if there is a alternative simple/inexpensive way of proving the matter the doc would prove, and this could be done by virtue of the pleadings and responses (i.e. admissions of fact) and what is in issue would not yet have formalised.

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28
Q

What is the scope of the duty to disclose of a non-party subject to non-party disclosure? What rule is concerned

A

r 242(4) disclosure under this division is not an ongoing duty. The non-party need only respond to the immediate request.

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29
Q

How must non-party disclosure notice be served? What rule?

A

r 243 Form and service of notice
must be in same way as claim, state the allegation in issue for which the doc is sought, include a cert that there is no simple/inexpensive alternative to obtaining the doc, be in approved form, be served in same way as claim and 3 months after its issue. And r 244 Others affected by notice, must also be satisfied.

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30
Q

Who must be served first with a notice of non-party disclosure, prior to serving the respondent of that notice? What rule?

A

r 244 Others affected by notice
Generally persons intersted in the doc;
Person about whom information is sought/or owner of the doc if respondent does not own unless the applicant believes that such notice will lead to fabrication of evidence/fraud then the app can do a certificate

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31
Q

What is the recourse against non-party disclsoure, if the respondent or a r 244 person hates it? What rule?

A

r 245 Objection to disclosure
Can be objected to within 7 days, or later time with leave. Must be in writing, served on application (and respondent if r 244 person) and clearly state the objection.

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32
Q

What are the grounds for objection to non-party disclosure? What rule is concerned?

A

r 245(2) reasons, not limited to
If the objector is the respondent, the cost or inconvenience.
Lack of relevance, lack of particularity as to docs sought, privilege, confidential nature of docs, effect disclosure would have on any person, the objector not having been served with the notice.

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33
Q

What is the immediate consequence to an objection to non-party disclosure? What rule is concerned?

A

r 246 Objection stays ntoice
Objection under r 245 stays the notice of non-party disclosure.

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34
Q

What can applicant do if non-party disclosure request objected to and stayed? What rule?

A

r 247 Court’s decision about objection.
Applicant can apply to court within 7 days of objection and court can make orders, not limited to, lifting the stay, varyuing the non-party disclsoure notice, setting aside the notice

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35
Q

Can you use a non-party disclosure request in an arbitration?

A

No, can only be used in “proceedings”

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36
Q

What must the respondent do in response to a valid, non-objected to non-party disclsoure request? What rule?

A

r 248 Production and copying of documents
Respondent has to produce document for disclosure at their business, or solicitors office, or as otherwise agreed. Applicant can make copies.

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37
Q

What can an applicant do if a respondent does not comply with non-party disclosure reuqest that has not been objected to? What rule?

A

r 248(2) Production and copying of documents
Applicant can apply to court for order of compliance.

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38
Q

What can a respondent/defendant do if an applicant/plaintiff fails to take a step in the proceeding within required time frame? What Rule

A

r 280 Default by plaintiff or applicant
If plaintiff or applicant fails to take a step in required time frame, defendant/respondent can apply for dismissal for want of prosecution.

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39
Q

What recourse is there for a plaintiff/applicant who have had proceedings dismissed for want of prosecution? What rule?

A

r 280 Default by plaintiff or applicant
r 280(3) dismissal only set aside on appeal or ifparties agree to it
r 280(4) dimissal can be set aside by court however if it was made in absence of plaintiff/applicant

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40
Q

What is the rationale underpinning r 280?

A

r 280 Default by plaintiff or applicant.
To be read in conjunction with r 5, the implied undertaking to expeditious with proceedings.

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41
Q

Who bears the onus for an application in dismissing a proceeding for want of prosecution and what must be established?

A

The applicant

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42
Q

What are the pre-conditions to be met to enliven the power of the court under r 280?

A

r 280 Deafult by plaintiff or applicant
three pre-conditions;
(1) a rule required plt/app to take step, or order required step, within a stated time
(2) plt/app does not do that within stated time
(3) deft/resp applies to court to dimiss for want of prosecution (does not appear court can do this of own motion)

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43
Q

Tyler v Custom Credit; what rule does it apply to and what are the princples of it

A

r 280 Default by plaintiff or applicant
On application under this section to dismiss for want of prosecution, the court has a discretion to exercise. The determining factors are
(1) howlong ago events alleged in claim occurred, and delay before litigation commenced
(2) how long ago the litigation was commenced or causes of action added
(3) prospects of the plaintiff’s success
(4) if there has been disobedience of court orders/directions
(5) whether litgation characterised by periods of delay
(6) whether delay attributable to the plaintiff or deft or both
(7) whether plt impecuniousity atrributable, and if deft is responsible for that impecuniosity
(8) whether litigation between parties would be concluded by striking out plt’s claim
(9) how much litigation has progressed
(10) whether delay is by plt’s lawyers being dilatory
(11) whether there is satisfactory explanation for delay
(12) has delay caused prejudice to deft having fair trial.
These arent rigid rules, court also have reagrd to ordinary community members entitled to get on with their lives without continuing threat of litigaiton

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44
Q

What must be tempered with an application under s 280, and against the prinicples of Tyler v Custom Credit?

A

Well established principle that court is to decide rights of parties, not punish them for mistakes with the conduct of their cases

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45
Q

What can a plaintiff do if a defendant has no real prospoect of defending all/part of a claim and there is no need for a trial? What rule?

A

r 292 Summary Judgement for the Plaintiff
Plaintiff can apply to the court for summary judgment any time after the defendant files a notice of intention to defend.

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46
Q

What is required for the court to grant summary judgement for a plaintiff? What rule is concerned?

A

r 292
Deft has no real prospect of defending, partly or all of claim, AND
no need for a trial of the claim/part

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47
Q

What does the case law generally say about the phrase “no real prospects” for the purposes of rr 292, 293?

A

Has to be the clearest of cases. More than fanciful etc.

Ordinarily party is not to be denied placing their case before the court.

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48
Q

What are the principles for establishing “no need for trial” for r 292?

A

Will not be satisfied if;
Triable issue at law, or a question of law, or circumstances that ought be investigated, or a defence may later come to exist etc.

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49
Q

What can a defendant do if a plaintiff has no real prospects of succeeding? What rule and elements?

A

r 293 Summary Judgement for the Defendant
Deft can apply for summary judgement, after filing notice of intention to defend.
If Plt has no real prospect of succeeding and there is no need for trial, court can grant the application.

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50
Q

What is the consequence of only part of a claim being disposed of by summary judgement? What rule?

A

r 294 Claims not disposed of

The residual claims continue on foot. And a party (such as a defendant) is not limited in applications for summary judgement so can bring them again. (bear in mind res judicata)

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51
Q

What is r 366 about?

A

Broad discretion that court can give directions at any time about the conduct of proceedings (even if inconsistent with other provisions) and party may apply for these as well.

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52
Q

What is a sensible demonstration of an order under r 366 and r 367(1)?

A

Ordering that an application for substituted service be dispensed with since it, and the actions of applicant contained in affidavit, be deemed as substituted service, to save cost as parties repeating steps.

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53
Q

What is paramount about a court made direction or order?

A

r 367(2) Interests of justice

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54
Q

What kind of directions can the court make regarding the conduct of a proceeding? What rule?

A

r 367(3)
Limiting time on evidence, crossing, trial, submissions, lengths of documents, etc. Court to take into account matters under r 367(4).

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55
Q

What is the general consequence for non-compliance with rules? What rule?

A

r 371 Effect of failure to comply with rules

Is an irregularity, does not nullify proceeding. This is to avoid undue technicality. However could can make orders under sub (2), subject to rr 372 and 373.

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56
Q

Is there is not strict compliance with forms, can a proceeding be struck out? What rule and what law might apply?

A

Compliance need not be strict, only substantial, Acts Interpretation Act s 48A for r 371.

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57
Q

What is the consequence of non-compliance with rr 243(2) and 244, non-party disclosure?

A

Affected persons not served for non-party disclosure is an irregularity, and can be cured under order of r 371(2)(d) and where affected party’s were served one month after and there was no objection from such persons, the service was still deemed effectual.

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58
Q

What are the limits of orders made under r 371?

A

Cannot remedy something that goes beyond mere “procedural irregularity” like seeking an extension on time for a statutory time limitation on a cause of action

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59
Q

Can you file an amended claim without an order? What rule might assist?

A

Filing an amended claim without order is an irregularity however because of r 371 would be valid.

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60
Q

What is a stale claim, and is service of it irregularity or nullity? What rules?

A

Stale claim is one not served within 1 year duration under r 24 and service of it irregularity which may be waived under r 371 provided it would be proper to renew the claim.

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61
Q

Can you use a subpoena in lieu of the non-party disclosure provisions, would that be an irregularity or nullity, what rules and why?

A

subpoena in lieu of non-party disclosure provisions is not a “mere procedural irregularity” that can waived by r 371, because there are stringent safeguards that exist in the non-party disclosure provisions, that would not be observed by a subpoena.

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62
Q

What is the general power to amend and what does it include?

A

r 375 Power to amend
Any stage, court can allow/direct party to amend claim, pleading, application, any other document in way court considers appropriate. Even if effect arises new cause of action. Misnomer of party must be allowed to be amended. Subject to r 376.

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63
Q

What if a party seeks to amend a claim that was commenced in time, but the limitation period has now ended, and the consequence of the amendment would either give rise to new cause of action or a different defendant? What rules?

A

r 375 Power to amend. r 376 when amendment is made after limitation period.
r 376(4) New cause of action - can only be allowed if court considers it appropriate and the new cause arises from same factual matrix
r 376(2) Substitute a party - if court satisfied mistake should be corrected and it was genuine and was not misleading nor likely to cause reasonable doubt on the person being sued.

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64
Q

What would be the consequence of a plaintiff suing in negligence, who alleges from the same story a different breach of duty of care owed?

A

Would give rise to a new cause of action. Amendment can be permitted pursuant to r 376(4).

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65
Q

How does limitations of proceedings statute interact with r 376(4)?

A

Cannot use r 376(4) to backdoor a cause of action claim that is clearly out of time. New cause of actions can only be permitted if they substantially arise from the same story/facts/factual matrix.

E.g. Plt brings claim for injury incurred at work place alleging back injury from driving equipment, then tries to amend claim to include new cause of action from injury from shovelling mud 2 years later, and now time has passed, r 376(4) won’t allow amendment to add the subsequent to circumvent time limitations as not the substantially same facts.

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66
Q

Can the court allow an amendment to a claim, that would give rise to a new cause of action, not substantially based on the same facts, under s 16 Civil Proceedings Act?

A

It appears that was previously the case, that the court had and on the face of it has unfettered discretion, however insertion of sub (3) provides rules can limit the circumstances and r 376(4) does just that.

67
Q

What limits the amendment of originating process?

A

r 377 Amendment of originating process
Can only be amended;
- If technical with leave of registrar or court.
- if not served, and sealed copies returned to court, with leave of registrar or court.
- Otherwise the court.
This does not apply to pleading or particulars so those can be amended without courts leave?

68
Q

With r 377 in mind, is leave of the court required to amend a pleading or particular?

A

No, leave only required for cause of action, not for pleading or particular contained therein.

69
Q

How much or often can a party amend its statement of claim or application grounds or defence or counterclaim? What rule?

A

r 378 Amendment before request for trial date. Can amend as much as they want, leave of the court not required.

70
Q

What can a party do if they are aggrieved by other party making amendments to their respective documents (i.e statement of claim, application grounds, counter claim, defence) prior to request for trial? What rule?

A

r 379 Disallowance of amendment
Party, within 8 days after service of the amendment, can apply to the court to disallow all or part of the amendment. Up to court whether appropriate and court will consider the provisions of rr 375, 376.

71
Q

What happens if the court makes an order granting leave to a party to amend something and the party does not do that? What rule?

A

r 381 Failure to amend after order.
Party has to amend within specified time of order, or if no time specified, 14 days, otherwise order ceases to have effect.

72
Q

What must a party do wanting to take a step in a proceeding that is stagnant? What timeframes, requirements and rules?

A

r 389 Continuation of proceeding after delay.
1 year from the last step, party wanting to proceed must give month’s notice to other parties of intention to proceed.
2 years from last step, new step may not be taken without court order

73
Q

How does an application to strike out for want of prosecution interact with r 389(2)?

A

Application to strike out for want of prosecution does not require a 389(2) order, however the respondent to that app would need to seek leave pursuant to r 389 (or at least evince an intention to do that) otherwise the strike out app must succeed.

74
Q

What will the court take into account when considering to exercise the discretion to grant leave to reactivate proceeding under r 389(2)

A

On balance, is there good reason for making the order. Applicant has the onus, resp has onus of persuading why it ought not be granted by ultimate onus.

Court has however granted the leave in a borderline case because the parties did have something to argue and the deft conceded they would not be prejudiced by this.

Tyler v Custom Credit 12 principles apply in considering whether to grant leave.

A limitation period not having yet expired is relevant.

75
Q

On topic of disclosure, what would, and and would not be “taking a step” for the purpose of r 389?

A

Filing list of docs for disclosure purposes without notice/service is not a step. However service of that per r 214 is a step

76
Q

A supplementary affidavit of documents being delivered more than three years after last step. Is this is a step being taken, and pursuant to what rule?

A

r 289(2) does appear to constitute a step being taken

77
Q

Is an application under r 24 (what is that) a step being taken, pursuant to what rule?

A

r 289(2) obiter, not a step.

78
Q

What is the general rule for giving evidence in proceeding for claim, and application?

A

r 390 Way evidence given
Claim - Orally only.
Application - Affidavit only

79
Q

What is a rule exception to r 390?

A

R 390 way evidence given.
r 367(3)(d) court can direct evidence be done orally, or by affidavit

80
Q

What is the part/Chapter of UCPR that governs expert evidence, and what does it not apply to?

A

Ch 11, Pt 5:
r 424 Application of Part.
Does not apply to witness (oral/affidavit) who is:
> A party (like Dr sued for medical negligence)
> whose conduct is in issue
> Doctor/treater to injured person if evidence is limited to results of any examination, description of treatment/advice, reason treatment/advice given, the results of giving treatment/advice
>nor a minor claim in mags court

81
Q

How significant is the importance of complying with Ch12 Pt 5?

A

Very. Expert evidence regime, parties who choose to ignore do at risk that evidence will be rejected.

82
Q

What is a minor claim, where is it defined?

A

UCPR Dictionary
minor claim—
(a)means a claim for an amount, including interest, of not more than $25,000, whether as a balance or after an admitted set-off, reduction by any amount paid by or credited to the defendant, abandonment of any excess, or otherwise; but
(b)does not include a claim for a liquidated demand mentioned in the QCAT Act, schedule 3, definition minor civil dispute, paragraph 1(a).

83
Q

What can a party do if it intends to call expert evidence, or adverts to another party’s intention to call expert evidence? What rule?

A

R 426 Application for directions
(for expert evidence)
Application can be made at any time for a direction that the court can make under r 437 Directions generally.

84
Q

What are the directions generally that the court can make regarding expert evidence? What rule?

A

r 427 Directions Generally
Starting with, any order it damn well fkn pleases.
Other general directions include when reports to be served, experts not to adduce evidence on certain issues or only w/leave of court.
Limiting No. experts on particular issue.
Appointing expert, or requiring 2 or more experts to confer, or how expert is to give evidence etc.

85
Q

What can the court do where there are multiple experts? What rule?

A

r 428 Directions about experts’ conferences and joint reports
Court can direct they confer to ID, and try to resolve dispute AND jointly prepare a report that says what they agree and what they dispute.

86
Q

What is incumbent on experts directed at doing a joint conference? What rule?

A

r 429A Experts’ conference and joint report
must be independent, endeavour to reach agreement, not act on instruction AND must do it without the parties and prepare report with no reference to instructions

87
Q

Can experts’ communicate with parties when there is a multi expert conference ordered? What rule and details?

A

r 429B Permitted Communications between experts and parties.
Can in writing to ask parties for info to ass the conference itself or preparation of joint report OR to advise parties of anything adversely affecting the conference or preparation of joint report.

88
Q

If experts’ ordered to do a joint conference want to communicate with parties about permitted matters, what governs the communication and how?

A

r 429B(2) Permitted Communications between experts and parties.

Written communication made jointly to all parties, include whether experts even agree on terms of the communication and if not, matter’s not agreed to.

89
Q

If parties receive a communication from experts ordered to conference, how are/can they respond to that? What rule?

A

r 429B(3) Permitted Communications between parties and experts.

Must be in writing, addressed to all experts jointly, be in terms agreed to by parties or directed by the court

90
Q

If a party is fanging to know what the experts are doing in their expert conference, what might they do? What rule?

A

r 429(4) Permitted communications between parties and experts
Can request in writing a progress report which experts must reply to in two days, inter alia.

91
Q

Is the discussions that experts have at a directed expert conference admissible at the trial? What rule?

A

429C Restrictions on admissibility of particular matters.
The discussions only admissible if all parties agree. The report however is always admissible (duh)

92
Q

What are the duty of parties when an expert is appointed? What rule?

A

r 429E Duties of Parties
Must give the expert as soon as practicable the code of conduct (the party that commissions, or if joint then both or whoever agreed etc

93
Q

Can you give instructions to an expert to adopt or reject a particular opinion? What rule?

A

r 429E(2) Duty of parties
No, party must not give instructions to expert to adopt or reject an opinion.

94
Q

Where is the code of conduct for experts’ to be given?

A

Sch 1C UCPR

95
Q

What are the duties of experts? What rule?

A

r 429F Duty of Expert
Has duty to assist the court, not advocate for a party, must not take instructions to form a particular opinion, must comply with code of conduct, and duties override obligation to parties paying them.

The duty may even require candour that might prejudice the case of the party that called them.

96
Q

With expert duties in mind (what rule is that?) what is the consequence of an expert who is not independent?

A

Report may still be considered by the court, but given less weight.

97
Q

How does an expert give evidence-in-chief generally? What rule?

A

429G Expert Evidence
By report, tendered as evidence if it has been disclosed or with leave of the court.
Party can adduce the report only if they produce the expert for cross.
Report must acknowledge code of conduct.

98
Q

Can an expert give EIC orally? What rule

A

r 429G Expert Evidence
(3) court can grant leave to exception that expert EIC be in report only

99
Q

Can a party adduce further expert evidence at trial? What rules?

A

r 429G Expert evidence
(2)(b) court can grant leave if expert report not disclosed or
(5) Court can grant leave for oral expert EIC

Court to consider fair trial and if interests of justice permit this as well as r 5, facilitation of expeditious proceedings.

100
Q

What are the requirements for expert report, what rule?

A

r 429H Requirements for report
Various requirements under section incl qualifications, facts on which report is based, reasons for opinions, references to corpus of literature relied upon

also; bund by code of conduct, factual matters are based on truth, enquires have been made etc.

101
Q

When must disclosure of an expert report be done? What rule

A

r 429I Disclosure of report
Soon as practicable, otherwise after close of pleadings:
90 days plaintiff
120 days defendant
90 days other party

102
Q

What happens if an expert changes their opinion? What rule?

A

r 429K Supplementary report following change of opinion
Give written notice of the change of opinion
If court appointed - to court
If party appointed - to party

103
Q

If two or more parties want to appoint an expert jointly, what rules can the rely on?

A

r 429L Appointment of Expert
r 429M Requirements for appointment

104
Q

What must parties provide to jointly appointed experts? What rule

A

r 429N Provision of statement of facts
Must give agreed upon SOF. If not agreed, each party gives SOF

105
Q

Who can cross examine a jointly appointed expert? What rule?

A

r 429Q Cross-examination of expert
Each party has a right to cross, unless the court directs otherwise.

106
Q

What rule allows the Court to appoint an expert, and at what time can the court do this?

A

r 429R Appointment of Expert
At any time, on own initiative, or application can appoint expert

107
Q

When can an expert apply for directions, what rule?

A

r 429V Expert may apply for directions
If jointly appointed, or court appointed may apply for directions to facilitate the preparation of a report. to be served on everyone etc.

108
Q

What is the general rule for what goes into an affidavit?

A

r 430 Contents of affidavit
Has to be what a person could give orally. However affidavit not for final relief may contain statements based on information/belief if the witness cites the source

109
Q

What is the civil jurisdiction monetary limit for the District Court? What Act/section?

A

s 68 District Court Act
Monetary limit: $750,000 (exclusive of interest)

110
Q

What powers does the District Court have (relevantly) for civil jurisdiction? What Act/Seciont?

A

s 69 District Court Act
Powers of district Court
Same orders as the Supreme Court can including sub (3) Mareva injunction or Anton Pillar Order

111
Q

What is the civil jurisdiction monetary limit for the Magistrates Court? What Act/Section?

A

s Definitions with s 4 Jurisdiction
Prescribed limit: $150,000

112
Q
A
113
Q

What orders can the court make under the rules in relation to inspecting/detaining/preserving property?

A

r 250 Inspection, detention, custody and preservation of property.
Court can order this for property is subject of proceeding or question of it may arise, or inspection is necessary to decide an issue.

114
Q

How is property defined, and where?

A

sch 1 Acts Interpretation Act
Any legal or equitable estate/interest (whether now, future, vested contingent, tangible, intangible in real or personal property of any description and things in action

115
Q

What is a “proceeding” for the purposes of an offer to settle? What rule?

A

r 352 Definitions for pt 5
Started by claim, or ordered to continue as if started by claim, or originating application if direction has been made for pleadings, or other documents defining issues to be served

116
Q

What rule permits the making of an offer under UCPR?

A

r 353 If Offer available
Party can serve offers, more than one, must be in writing and contain statement under the part.

117
Q

When can an offer be made? What rule?

A

r 354 Time more making offer
Pretty much any time before jury returns verdict, or before final relief is granted or if judgement conditional on assessment of damages, before that assessment is returned.

118
Q

What is the duration of an offer to settle and or when can it be withdrawn? What rule?

A

r 355 Withdrawal or end of Offer
Offer must specify period, no less than 14 days, cannot be withdrawn in that time without leave of the court.
Party can apply for leave to withdraw offer at any time without notice, but the offer can still be accepted prior to the application being heard.
Court cannot extend duration of offer.

119
Q

How are offers without prejudice? What rule

A

r 356 Effect of offer
Offer is taken to be made without prejudice (so probs don’t need the label, but still prudent to include it)

120
Q

What is the admissibility of an offer made, at trial etc? What Rule?

A

r 357 Disclosure of Offer
Offer cannot be referred to in pleading or affidavit (except for affidavit for app to withdraw offer, after which offer related docs must be sealed by the court).
Cannot be filed.
If not accepted, not mentioned to court until after liability determined

121
Q

How is offer accepted and what is the consequence of counteroffers? What rule?

A

r 358 Acceptance of offer
Accepted by written notice.
OG offer can still be accepted where counteroffer made or rejected.

122
Q

What is the costs consequence if a defendant rejects an offer, no less favourable then the judgement for the plaintiff? What rule?

A

Provided court satisfied that that plt would have carried out the offer, and deft cannot show another order appropriate, court must order:
standard basis costs to day of offer;
indemnity basis costs thereafter.

123
Q

What is the costs consequence if the deft makes an offer that the plt does not accept, and then judgement for the plt is less favourable than the offer? What rule?

A

r 361 Costs if offer by defendant-order obtained by plaintiff
If court satisfied deft would carry out the order, and no other costs order is shown as appropriate. Court must order:
standard basis costs by deft until day of offer; and
indemnity basis costs by the plaintiff from date of offer, and plt not entitled to costs after day of offer

124
Q

What is the costs consequence if the defendant makes an offer, not accepted by the plaintiff, and the plaintiff’s proceeding is dismissed? What rule?

A

r 361A Cost if offer by defendant - dismissal of plaintiff’s proceeding
Plaintiff must pay:
Standard costs to day of offer;
indemnity costs thereafter.
If defendant was willing/able to carry out the offer, and no party shows that another costs order is appropriate.

125
Q

What happens if a party does not comply with an accepted offer? What rule?

A

r 365 Failure to comply with offer
Other party party apply to court for order on conditions on the order, and court may make the order; OR,
Continue with proceeding.

126
Q

What is the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction and where is that provided for? Act/Section

A

s 58 Constitution of Queensland 2001
Supreme Court Superior Jurisdiction
For all justice administration in Qld. Subject to comm law, unlimited jurisdiction at law and in equity and otherwise.

127
Q

How can a proceeding be transferred in jurisdiction? Act/Sections?

A

s 25 Civil Proceedings Act
Supreme Court can order proceedings pending in District or Mag court be transferred to Supp court, or vice versa if such courts have jurisdiction

128
Q

What is the implication for costs when the Supreme court does an inbound or outbound transfer of the proceedings? Act/Section

A

s 33 Civil Proceedings Act
Costs will be for scale to the respective court the proceeding in was in when costs were incurred.
Inbound court can make an order as to costs for whole proceeding, if no costs order made prior to transfer.

129
Q

Supp Court PD 1 of 2023, Commercial List, Applies to?

A

Commercial matters in the Brisbane Registry. Party to a proceeding can put matter on list if of commercial character or arise out of trade and commerce.

130
Q

What are the categories of commercial list matters, pursuant to what PD?

A

Supp Court PD 1 of 2024, Commercial List
1) Managed and determined by a fast track procedure, matters requiring urgent resolution.
2) A proceeding with 5 days’ or less trial
3) A proceeding with more than 5 days’ trial

131
Q

How, and when can a matter be placed on the Commercial List, pursuant to what PD?

A

Sup Court PD 1 of 2023: Commercial List
Party can email request to Principal Judge associate and CC other parties.
Can be made after filing and service of originating process, or in exceptional case even before proceeding commenced.
There is an online form requiring party and matter details.

132
Q

What is the general effect/reemphasised obligations of the parties on the commercial list?

A

Be expeditious, endeavour to confine issues in dispute, prior to review MUST confer in person/phone/VL to resolve as many issues as possible

133
Q

What is an urgent/fast track matter for the purpose of Sup Crt PD1/23?

A

Urgent matter is exceptional proceeding, by nature requires urgent resolution. Can be claim or application. Application to put urgent matter on commercial list can be made by email to associate.

134
Q

What are fast track directions the court can make for urgent matters per PD what?

A

Sup Crt PD1/23
No pleadings (unless otherwise ordered) as parties will use Fast Track; statements, responses, cross-claims, replies. Expedited time tables for serves and replies, limited disclosure orders, pre trial conference and trial plans and “stop watch” hearings.

135
Q

What should the duration of a freezing order without notice be for? What PD might apply?

A

Sup Crt PD 1/2007; Freezing Orders
Duration should be limited to return date of application, when respondent has opportunity to be heard. Applicant then to satisfy court if order should continue.

136
Q

What should be the value limit on the order to freeze assets? What PD might apply?

A

Sup Crt PD 1/2007
Value of assets should not exceed the prospective amount for judgement including interest and costs.

137
Q

What is the scope of the Court’s ability to make freezing orders? What PD Might apply?

A

Sup Crt PD 1/2007
Can make order before before a cause of action has accrued (prospective cause of action). Can make it in aid of foreign proceedings. Can make it where assets in Australia, service outside Australia is permitted.

138
Q

What ought an affidavit contain in support of an application for a freezing order? What PD Might apply?

A

Sup Crt PD 1/2007
Info about judgement, if obtained or the cause of action, the basis of it, amount claimed, if the respondent has notice, value of the assets, r 260D matters, and any person who may be affected by the order.

139
Q

Under what rule can the Court make a mareeva order?

A

r 260A Freezing Order
To prevent frustration or inhibition of court process; to protect against judgement being partially or wholly unsatisfied. The order can restrain someone from removing assets, disposing of, dealing with or diminishing the value.

140
Q

What is an ancillary order in relation to a freezing order? What rule?

A

r 260B Ancillary order
Court can make order ancillary to freezing order if appropriate, like to obtain information about assets or deciding whether the freezing order ought be made.

141
Q

Are freezing order’s restricted to defendant/respondent parties in proceedings? What rule?

A

r 260C Respondent need not be party to proceeding
Doesn’t need to be a party for either freezing or ancillary order

142
Q

Can freezing/anton pillar orders be made without service of notice? What rule would apply?

A

r 259 Part 2 order without notice
Application should be served, but order can be granted without notice with good reason.

143
Q

Can you obtain an anton pillar order under UCPR? What rule?

A

r 261A Search order
Court can make in proceeding, or anticipated proceeding, to secure or preserve evidence.

144
Q

What are the requirements of a search order? What rule

A

r 261B Requirements for grant of search order
Applicant has strong prima face case in accrue cause of action and potential or actual loss to applicant will be serious if order not made and there is sufficient evidence that the resp has the material and might destroy it etc.

145
Q

What provides for the terms of a UCPR search order

A

r 261D Terms of Search order
sets out terms, can require people to assist, inter alia

146
Q

What must the court appoint when granting a search order? What rule?

A

r 261E Independent solicitors
Court must appoint 1 or more independent solicitors to supervise.

147
Q

What PD applies to search orders and what does it provide about the search party?

A

Sup Crt PD 2/2007
Search party must have independent solicitor and may have other persons (like independent computer expert). Ought not include the applicant themselves. Should be as small as possible.

148
Q

What is required in the affidavit for a search order application and where is that set out?

A

Sup Crt PD 2/2007
Enumerated list of requirements;
things sought, address, why, why the things are likely to be destroyed, the prejudice suffered if order not made, the name, address firm and commercial lit exp of independent solicitor who consents to being appointed

149
Q

What are the responsibilities of the independent solicitor? Where are they set out?

A

Sup Crt PD 2/2007
Enumerated list of requirements.

150
Q

When ought a search order be carried out? Where is that provided?

A

Sup Crt PD 2/2007
Ought to be done between 9:00am and 2:00pm to allow resp to get legal advice, but may be exceptions

151
Q

What needs to be established for a freezing/mareeva order? What case applies?

A

Vaughn v Bonjiorno
Must be a prima facie case, and court needs to consider whether evidence advanced for application would be admissible at trial.

Case where lawyer was smashing clerk and gave her property.

152
Q

What case decision concerns explaining denials in pleadings?

A

Cape York Airlines v QBE
r 166 Denials and non-admissions
r 166(4) these require direct explanation.
The requirement for explanation of a denial is rationalised;
1) compels party at early stage to expose its rationale for a joinder issue;
2) party compelled to formulate that rationale “Why am I denying this fact”

153
Q

What happens if at summary judgement sought by the plaintiff/applicant, a defence may exist? What rule and case?

A

Shaw v Deputy Commissioner of Taxation; Rablin v Deputy Commissioner of Taxation
r 292 Summary Judgement for Plaintiff
For summary judgement a court must be satisfied, inter alia, no real prospects of defence. If a defence is possibly available it is not a merely fanciful defence, and even if there are issues with defence case, matter ought proceed to trial.

154
Q

What case applies to consideration of order to inspect property under UCPR where the inspection may be liable to damage the property (and what rule)?

A

Wilsons Ceramics Case (naval hull)
r 250 Inspection, detention, custody and preservation of property

Court to take into account whether plaintiff’s rights are being infringed (i.e. causing property damage) and that an inspection will facilitate proof of the claim. Court did not all inspection in this case;
- testing was likely to damage the property
- the person testing was questionable as an expert (not meet Makita v Sprowles)
- unclear whether testing(further testing) would assist determining the issues

155
Q

What case applies to consideration of an application to preserve property under the UCPR and what rule?

A

GE Automotive Financial Services Pty Ltd v Christine Judith Laverty
r 250 Inspection, detention, custody and preservation of property

Case involves plaintiff seeking to preserve car at apprehension insolvent defendant would dispose of it. Order granted, but limited/qualified the power granted under r 250. Court will only impose conditions to the extent necessary to preserve the property. In this case;
> plaintiff could be not be granted power to enter any premises to seize the car (as could be 3rd party premises)

156
Q

What case applies to the consideration of an order to inspect property where the examination of similar manufacturing that encroaches on IP, might be concerned (what rule)?

A

r 250 detention, custody and preservation of property
Evans Deakin P/L v Orekinetics P/L & Ors [2002] QSC 042

Sand distilling machines, ostensibly stolen schematics by former employee, now being produced at new business. Respondent had concerns of protecting own trade secrets.

Court will not grant for mere fishing. Applicant needs to show there are genuine grounds. Respondent’s interest to be adequately safeguarded by inspection order (such as only solicitors and experts inspecting, without plaintiff/applicant)

157
Q

In the Federal Realm, what can the court do if it doesn’t want to deal an oral hearing? Act/Section?

A

20A Federal Court of Aust Act
Can deal with matter without oral hearing if the matter is frivolous/vexatious OR issues have been decided authoratively by the case law OR oral hearing would not significantly aid the determination of the issue.

158
Q

What can a party do if it wants summary judgement in the Federal realm? Act/Section?

A

31A Summary Judgement
Court to be satisfied that defendant (under sub 1) or plaintiff (under sub 2) has no real prospects.
“No real prospects” (per sub 3) need not be ‘hopeless’ or ‘bound to fail’.

159
Q

Can the Federal Court’s jurisdiction be extended to associated matters? What Act/section?

A

s 32 Federal Court of Aust Act
Court can deal with associated matters (insofar as the constitution permits) that relate to the core matters.

160
Q

What is important about the overarching purpose of civil practice in Federal Court proceedings? What section/Act?

A

s 37M The overarching purpose of civil practice and procedure provisions
s 37N Parties to act consistently with the overarching purpose

For the quick, inexpensive and as efficient as possible resolution for

161
Q

What Federal Court Act provision allows for dismissal for want of prosecution?

A

s 20(5)(d)(c) Federal Court of Aust Act
Court can make various orders regarding the proceeding including dismissal for want of prosecution

162
Q

Aon Risk Services Australia Ltd v Australian National University

A

Pleadings can’t be amended last minute, during trial, if it causes too great a prejudicial effect. This is the ANU building burn down case. Principles:-
1 )ANU sought to introduce substantial new claims - would effectively require Aon to restart its defence;
2) Application brought during the time set for trial and adjournment would vacate the remaining scheduled weeks of trial;
3) Even indemnity costs would not overcome the prejudice to Aon from the substantial delay and necessity of defending new claims;
4) ANU had known the importance of proper valuation for 12 months and offered no explanation for the delay in seeking leave to amend; and
5) Granting the application and adjournment would delay the hearings of other litigants and undermine public confidence in the legal system.

163
Q
A