Fundentals Of Flight / NAMP / AIMD / NALCOMIS / NATOPS Flashcards

1
Q

Explain acceleration.

A

The rate of change of the speed and/or velocity of matter with time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Explain speed.

A

The rate of movement in terms of distance measured in an allotted amount of time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Explain velocity.

A

The quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Explain Newton’s 1st Law.

A

Inertia - an object at rest will stay at rest, or an object in motion will continue in motion at the same speed and in the same direction, until acted upon by an outside source.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Explain Newton’s 2nd Law.

A

Force - if an object with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion, or acceleration, will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Explain Newton’s 3rd Law.

A

Action & Reaction - states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Explain Bernoulli’s principle.

A

When a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a construction or narrowing of the tube, the speed of the fluid passing through the construction is increased and its pressure decreased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Explain Lift.

A

The force that acts, in an upward direction, to support the aircraft in the air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Explain Weight.

A

The force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft and everything on the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain Drag.

A

The force that tends to hold the aircraft back.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Explain Thrust.

A

The force developed by the aircrafts engine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the basic components of the aircraft?

A

Ailerons, Elevators, Rudder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do the Ailerons control?

A

The Longitudinal axis (Roll)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do the Elevators control?

A

The Vertical axis (YAW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the Rudder control?

A

The Lateral axis (Pitch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of aircraft had a cyclic stick?

A

Rotary wing aircraft (Helicopters)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the cyclic stick control?

A

Roll/Pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of aircraft had a collective?

A

Helicopter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a Flap?

A

(Leading/Trailing edge) Creates extra lift by lengthening the top section of the wing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a spoiler used for?

A

Used to decrease or spoil wing lift by destroying the smooth flow of air over the wing surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are Speed Breaks?

A

Hinged or moveable control surfaces used for reducing the speed of the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are Slats?

A

Moveable control surfaces attached to the leading edge of the wing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Explain Angle of Attack.

A

The angle at which the airfoil or fuselage meets a flow of air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Explain the purpose of Auto Rotation.

A

A method of allowing a helicopter to land safely from altitude without using engine power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How many basic components does a hydraulic system have?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the basic components of a hydraulic system?

A

Reservoir, Pump, Tubing, Selector valve, Actuating unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How many components does a Main Landing Gear have?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the basic components of a Main Landing Gear?

A

Shock Strut Assembly, Tires, Wheel Brake Assembly, Retracting and Extending Mechanism, Side Strut Supports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does NAMP stand for?

A

Naval Aviation Maintenance Program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Who establishes the NAMP?

A

CNO/COMNAVAIRFOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the publication for the NAMP?

A

4790.2B CH-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 3 levels of maintenance described in the NAMP?

A

Organizational, Intermediate, and Depot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Describe Organizational Level.

A

Maintenance which is performed by an operating unit on a day-to-day basis in support of its own operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Give an example of an O-Level command.

A

Any Squadron (i.e. VFA-94, VFA-113, VAQ-139, VAW-116, HS-15, HSM-73)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Describe Intermediate level.

A

To enhance and sustain the combat readiness and mission capability of supported activities (i.e. Squadrons) by providing quality and timely support at the nearest location with the lowest material expenditure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Give an example of an Intermediate Level command.

A

AIMD’s and FRC sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe Depot Level.

A

Maintenance performed on material requiring major overhaul or rebuilding of parts, assemblies, sub-assemblies, and end items.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the 2 types of work described in the NAMP?

A

Rework and Upkeep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Describe Rework.

A

A more intensive type of maintenance performed at the Depot Level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Describe Upkeep.

A

Turnaround Inspections, Daily Inspections, Special Inspections, Conditional Inspections, Phase Inspections, Acceptance Inspections, Transfer Inspections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a Turnaround Inspection?

A

Conducted between flights to ensure the integrity of the aircraft for flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How long is a Turnaround Inspection good for?

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a Daily Inspection?

A

Conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth than the Turnaround Inspection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How long is a Daily Inspection good for?

A

72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a Special Inspection?

A

Scheduled inspection with a prescribed interval other than Daily or Phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How long is a Special Inspection good for?

A

Intervals are specified in the applicable Periodic Maintenance System (PMS) Publication. (Based on elapsed calendar time, flight hours, operating hours, or number of cycles or events.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a Conditional Inspection?

A

An unscheduled inspection when a event is required as the result of a specific over limit condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a Phase Inspection?

A

Divides the total scheduled maintenance requirement into smaller packages, or phases of the same work content.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What level of maintenance is rework conducted at?

A

Depot Level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does NATOPS stand for?

A

Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

“WARNING” in a publication means what?

A

An operating procedure, practice, or condition, that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

“CAUTION” in a publication means what?

A

An operating procedure, practice, or condition, that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A “NOTE” in a publication means what?

A

An operating procedure, practice, or condition that must be emphasized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

If you see the word “SHALL” in a publication, what does it mean?

A

Means the procedure is Mandatory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

If you see the word “MAY” in a publication, what does it mean?

A

Means the procedure is Optional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does NALCOMIS stand for?

A

Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does NALCOMIS provide?

A

Capability to manage maintenance and supply functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What does OOMA stand for?

A

Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity

60
Q

What does OIMA stand for?

A

Optimized Intermediate Maintenance Activity

61
Q

What does MAF stand for?

A

Maintenance Action Form

62
Q

What is the form number for a MAF?

A

4790/60

63
Q

What does MCN stand for?

A

Maintenance Control Number

64
Q

How many digits are in a MCN?

A

7

65
Q

What does JCN stand for?

A

Job Control Number

66
Q

How many characters are in a JCN?

A

9

67
Q

What are the first 3 digits in a JCN?

A

Organizational Code

68
Q

What is Carl Vinsons Organizational Code?

A

D9E

69
Q

What are the second 3 digits in a JCN?

A

Julian Date

70
Q

What are the third 3 digits in a JCN?

A

The MAF’s Serial Number

71
Q

What is a WUC?

A

Work Unit Code (identifies a system or sub-system)

72
Q

What is a TEC?

A

Type Equipment Code

73
Q

What is a T/M?

A

Type Maintenance Code

74
Q

What is a W/D?

A

When Discovered Code

75
Q

What can I find in the discrepancy block of a MAF?

A

Provides a narrative description of the failure/maintenance requirement as annotated by the aircrew/maintenance man.

76
Q

What would I put in the correction action block of a MAF?

A

Gives a short description of the action taken to correct the discrepancy, as annotated by the maintenance man.

77
Q

How many divisions are in AIMD?

A

4

78
Q

What are the divisions in AIMD?

A

IM-1, IM-2, IM-3, IM-4

79
Q

What is IM-1 known as?

A

Administrative Branch

80
Q

What are the shops in IM-1?

A

Maintenance Admin, QA, Production Control, Material Control

81
Q

What is Production Control’s role?

A

Monitor and “control” the flow of production throughout AIMD using NALCOMIS.

82
Q

What is Quality Assurance’s responsibility?

A

To perform QA Inspections that are required on every maintenance evolution.

83
Q

What is the purpose of Quality Assurance?

A

To prevent the occurrence of defects.

84
Q

What is a CDI?

A

Collateral Duty Inspectors

85
Q

What is a CDQAR?

A

Collateral Duty Quality Assurance Representatives

86
Q

What is a QAR?

A

Quality Assurance Representatives

87
Q

What is the responsibility of a CDI?

A

Works for QA to ensure quality maintenance is being performed in the work center.

88
Q

What are some work centers in IM-2?

A

NDI Lab, Tire and Wheel shop, Airframes, Hydraulic shop, Power plants, Paraloft

89
Q

What is IM-2 known as?

A

Aircraft Division

91
Q

What are the 3 main rates that work in IM-2?

A

AD’s, AM’s, PR’s

92
Q

What are some shops AM’s work in?

A

NDI, Tore and Wheel, Airframes, Hydraulic shop

93
Q

What shop do AD’s work in?

A

Power Plants, Jet Shop

94
Q

What are some work centers in IM-3?

A

Generator/Battery shop, Communication/Navigation shop, Radar shop, Flir Pod shop, Fire ControlRadar shop, ECM shop, 2M shop, Flight Control Repair shop, METCAL shop, AAS shop and AWSE

95
Q

What shop’s do PR’s work in?

A

Paraloft and Oxygen shop

96
Q

Where do the AT’s work?

A

Communication/Navigation shop, Radar shop, Flir Pod shop, Fire Control Radar shop, ECM shop, 2M shop, METCAL shop

97
Q

Where do the AE’s work?

A

Generator/Battery shop, 2M shop, Flight Control Repair shop

98
Q

Where do the AO’s work?

A

AAS shop, AWSE

99
Q

What is IM-3 known as?

A

Avionics/Armament Division

101
Q

What are the 3 main rates in IM-3?

A

AE, AT, AO

103
Q

What does AAS stand for?

A

Aircraft Armament Systems

104
Q

What does AWSE stand for?

A

Armament Weapon Support Equipment

107
Q

AS?

A

Aviation Support Equipmentmen

108
Q

What rate can work in any of the 4 division’s?

A

AZ

109
Q

What is special about the METCAL shop?

A

Meteorology and Calibration shop is the ships Calibration Lab. This work center is augmented with personnel from Reactor, Engineering, and Air departments.

110
Q

What other rates work in the METCAL shop?

A

MM, EM, ABF, ABE, ET

111
Q

What is 2M shop’s full name?

A

Miniature & Micro (2M) and Cable Repair Shop

112
Q

What kind of gear does 2M Shop work on?

A

Miniature and micro level component repair on circuit cards that will be sent to the various work centers throughout AIMD.

115
Q

What is IM-4 known as?

A

Ground Support Equipment

116
Q

What is the primary rate in IM-4?

A

AS

118
Q

How many types of engines do we have?

A

4

119
Q

What are the 4 engines?

A

Turbojet, Turboprop, Turbofan, Turboshaft

121
Q

What is the difference between GSE and Aviation Support Equipment?

A

GSE- ground support equipment (i.e. Tractors, forklifts, jacks). Aviation Support Equipment is for all levels of aviation maintenance for airframe configurations, power plants, and avionics systems.

122
Q

AT?

A

Aviation Electronics Technician

123
Q

AE?

A

Aviation Electriciansmate

124
Q

AO?

A

Aviation Ordnancemen

125
Q

PR?

A

Aircrew Survival Equipmentmen

126
Q

AM?

A

Aviation Structural Mechanic

127
Q

What does AIMD stand for?

A

Aircraft Intermediate Maintenance Department

128
Q

Who is the MO?

A

CDR Calamug

129
Q

What does MO stand for?

A

Maintenance Officer

130
Q

Who is the AMO?

A

LCDR Phillips

131
Q

What does AMO stand for?

A

Assistant Maintenance Officer or Aircraft Maintenance Officer

132
Q

Who is the departments LCPO?

A

AVCM Mouawangyee

133
Q

Who is the MMCO?

A

LCDR Labonte

134
Q

What does MMCO stand for?

A

Maintenance/Material Control Officer

135
Q

Who is the MMCPO?

A

AVCM Rodriguez

136
Q

What does MMCPO stand for?

A

Maintenance Master Chief Petty Officer

137
Q

What does MCO stand for?

A

Material Control Officer

138
Q

Does AIMD have a MCO?

A

No

139
Q

Who is the AVO?

A

CWO2 Watkins

140
Q

What does AVO stand for?

A

Avionics Officer

141
Q

Who is the QAO?

A

LT Rockot

142
Q

What does QAO stand for?

A

Quality Assurance Officer

143
Q

Who is the QAS?

A

ATCS Cripps

144
Q

What does QAS stand for?

A

Quality Assurance Supervisor

145
Q

AD?

A

Aviation Machinistmate

146
Q

AZ?

A

Aviation Administrationman

147
Q

What are the 5 basic sections of a jet engine?

A

Intake, Compression, Combustion, Turbine, Exhaust

150
Q

What plane has a turbojet?

A

EA-6B Prowler

151
Q

What plane has a turboprop?

A

E2-C Hawkeye / C2 Greyhound

152
Q

What plane has a turbofan?

A

F/A-18 Hornet

153
Q

What aircraft uses a turbo shaft?

A

MH-60 Helicopters

154
Q

Who monitors the hydraulic contamination program?

A

AM’s

155
Q

Who monitors the Joint Oil Analysis Program?

A

AD’s

156
Q

What is JOAP?

A

Joint Oil Analysis Program