fundamentals SG #1 Flashcards

1
Q

a continuous process characterized by open-mindedness, continual inquiry, and perseverance, combined with a willingness to look at each unique patient situation and determine which identified assumptions are true and relevant

A

Critical Thinking

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2
Q

knowledge based on research or clinical expertise, makes you an informed critical thinker

A

Evidence-Based Knowledge

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3
Q

3 levels of critical thinking

A
  1. basic
  2. complex
  3. commitment
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4
Q

analytical process for determining a patients health problems

A

Diagnostic Reasoning

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5
Q

process of drawing conclusions from related pieces of evidence and previous experience with the evidence

A

Inference

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6
Q

you feel certain about accomplishing a task or goal such as performing a procedure or making a diagnostic decision

A

Confidence

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7
Q

you learn to consider a wide range of ideas and concepts before forming an opinion or making a judgment

A

Thinking Independently

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8
Q

deals with situations justly, bias or prejudice does not enter into a decision

A

Fairness

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9
Q
  • responsible for correctly performing nursing care activities based on standards of practice.
A

Responsibility & Accountability

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10
Q

willing to take risks in trying different ways to solve problems. Often leads to advances in patient care

A

Risk Taking

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11
Q

misses few details and follows orderly or systematic approach when collecting information, making decisions, or taking action

A

Discipline

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12
Q

determined to find effective solutions to patient care problems

A

Perseverance

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13
Q

original thinking, finding solutions outside of the standard of care while still keeping standards of practice

A

Creativity

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14
Q

question and test their own knowledge and beliefs

A

Integrity

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15
Q

admit your limitations in your knowledge and skill

A

Humilty

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16
Q

3 ways of developing critical thinking skills

A
  1. reflective journaling
  2. meeting with colleagues
  3. concept mapping
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17
Q

2 steps of critical thinking approach to assessment

A
  1. Collection of information from a primary source (patient) and secondary sources (family members, health professionals, medical record)
  2. The interpretation and validation of data to ensure a complete database
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18
Q

an approach for obtaining from patients the data are needed to foster a caring nurse-patient relationship, adherence to interventions, and treatment effectiveness

A

Patient-Centered Interview

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19
Q

describes human responses to health conditions or life processes that exist in an individual, family, or community

A

Actual Nursing Diagnosis

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20
Q

describes human responses to health conditions or life processes that may develop in a vulnerable individual, family, or community

A

Risk Nursing Diagnosis

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21
Q

Describes the essence of a patient’s response to health conditions in as few words as possible

A

Diagnostic Label

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22
Q

identified from the patient’s assessment data and is the reason the patient is displaying the nursing diagnosis

A

Related Factors

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23
Q

PES format

A

PROBLEM: nanda-1 label: impaired physical mobility
ETIOLOGY: related factor: incisional pain
SYMPTOMS: defining characteristics:evidence by restricted turning and positioning

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24
Q

reflects a patients highest possible level of wellness and independence in function

A

Patient-Centered Goal

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25
Q

is an objective behavior or response that you expect a patient to achieve in a short time, usually less than a week

A

Short-term Goal

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26
Q

preprinted document containing orders for the conduct of routine therapies, monitoring guidelines, and/or diagnostic procedures from specific patients with identified clinical problems

A

Standing Order

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27
Q

helps to differentiate nursing practice from that of other health care professionals

A

NIC Interventions

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28
Q

5 processes of the Implementation Process

A
  1. Reassessing the Patient
  2. Reviewing and Revising the Existing Nursing Care Plan
  3. Organizing Resources and Care Delivery
  4. Anticipating and Preventing Complications
  5. Implementation Skills
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29
Q

presence and growth of microorganism within a host but without tissue invasion or damage

A

Colonization

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30
Q

some of these have little to no risk for transmission

A

Infectious Diseases

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31
Q

disease can be transmitted directly from one person to another

A

Communicable Disease

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32
Q

pathogens multiply and cause clinical signs and symptoms

A

Symptomatic

33
Q

Infectious agents (4)

A
  1. bacteria
  2. Viruses
  3. Fungi
  4. Protozoa
34
Q

A place where microorganisms survive, multiply, await transfer to a susceptible host

A

Reservoir

35
Q

ability to produce disease, to enter and survive in the host and the susceptibility of the host

A

Virulence

36
Q

requires oxygen, Staphylococcus aureus

A

Aerobic

37
Q

does not require oxygen, Clostridium difficile

A

Anaerobic

38
Q

Most pathogens live between what temps ex: Legionella pneumophilia

A

20-40C (106-109F)

39
Q

temperature or chemical that destroys bacteria

A

Bactericidal

40
Q

Is skin considered a port of exit?

A

yes

41
Q

Broad-spectrum antibiotics can lead to what? bc they have eliminated the normal flora as well.

A

suprainfections

42
Q

containing RBCs (looks reddish/pink)

A

Sanguineous

43
Q

containing WBCs & RBCs (white/reddish)

A

Purulent

44
Q

are not as strong as tissue collagen and assumes the form of scar tissue

A

Granulation

45
Q

a type of HCAI from a diagnostic or therapeutic procedure such as bronchoscopy

A

Iatrogenic infections

46
Q

Part of the patient’s flora becomes altered and an overgrowth results

A

Endogenous infection

47
Q

eliminating the infectious organisms and supporting the patients defenses

A

Acute Care

48
Q

Process that eliminates many or all microorganisms with the exception of bacterial spore from inanimate objects

A

Disinfection

49
Q

Complete elimination of destruction of all microorganisms including spores

A

Sterilization

50
Q

energy needed to maintain life-sustaining activities for a specific period of time

A

Basal Metabolic Rate

51
Q

polysaccharide that is the structural part of plants that is not broken down by the human digestive enzyme

A

Fiber

52
Q

mainly from plant foods

A

Carbohydrates

53
Q

o Essential for synthesis of body tissue in growth, maintenance and repair
o Collagen, hormones, enzymes, immune cells, DNA, & RNA

A

Proteins

54
Q

Fat-Soluble Vitamins?

Water-Soluble Vitamins?

A
  1. A, D, E, K

2. C, B

55
Q

inorganic elements essential to the body as catalysts in biochemical reactions

A

Minerals

56
Q
  • measurement system of the size and makeup of the body
A

Anthropometry

57
Q

when the normal red tones of the light skinned patient are absent

A

Blanching

58
Q

Nonblanchable Redness of Intact Skin o Discoloration of the skin, warmth, edema, hardness, or pain may also be present

A

Stage 1 Pressure Ulcer

59
Q

Partial-thickness Skin Loss or Blister
o Present as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed without slough.
o Or presents as an intact or open/rupture serum-filled or serosanginous filled blister

A

Stage 2 Pressure Ulcer

60
Q

Full-thickness Skin Loss (Fat Visible)
o Subcutaneous fat may be visible, but bone, tendon, or muscle is not exposed
o Some slough may be present
o It may include some undermining and tunneling

A

Stage 3 Pressure Ulcer

61
Q

Full-thickness Tissue Loss (Muscle/Bone Visible)
o Full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle
o Slough or eschar (black and brown necrotic tissue) may be present
o Often includes undermining and tunneling

A

Stage 4 Pressure Ulcer

62
Q

Full-thickness tissue loss in which the actual depth of ulcer is completely obscured by slough

A

Unstageable/ Unclassified: Full-thickness skin of Tissue Lose- Depth unknown (Pressue Ulcer)

63
Q

a purple or maroon localized area of discolored intact skin or blood-filled blister caused by damage of underlying soft tissue from pressure and/or shear

A

Suspected Deep- Tissue Injury- Depth uknown

64
Q

damage to the spinal cord above the sacral region, loss of voluntary control of urination

A

Reflex Incontinence

65
Q

bladder is overly full and bladder pressure exceeds sphincter pressure, resulting in involuntary leakage of urine

A

Overflow Incontinency

66
Q

increase in nitrogenous wastes in the blood, marked fluid and electrolyte abnormalities, nausea, vomiting, headache, coma, and convulsions

A

Uremic Syndrome

67
Q

awakening to void one or more times at night

A

Nocturia

68
Q

Excessive Output

A

Polyuria

69
Q
  • urine output is decreased despite normal intake amounts
A

Oliguria

70
Q

coffee, tea, cocoa, cola drings that contain caffeine

A

Diuresis

71
Q

leads to the spread of organisms into the kidneys and possibly to bacteremia or urosepsis

A

Bacteriuria

72
Q
  • involuntary leakage of urine that is sufficient to be a problem
A

Urinary Incontinence

73
Q

temporarily or permanently bypasses the bladder and urethra as the exit routes for urine

A

Urinary Diversion

74
Q

3 common urine tests

A
  1. Urinalysis
  2. Specific gravity
  3. urine culture
75
Q

when the bowel temporary stops peristalsis

A

Paralytic ileus

76
Q

results from unrelieved constipation, collection of harden feces wedged in the rectum that a person cannot expel

A

Impaction

77
Q

inability to control passage of feces and gas from the anus

A

Incontinence

78
Q

temporary or permanent surgical opening in the abdominal wall. The intestine is brought through the abdominal wall to create the stoma

A

Ostomies