Fundamentals Pre-Assessment ATI Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

A client is prescribed antibiotic “A” 50 mg IV. The mixed IV solution contains 100 mL. The nurse is to administer the medication over ½ hour. The drip factor of the available IV tubing is 15gtt/mL. What is the drip rate in drops per minute? (Round to nearest whole number and enter only the number in the answer box).

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A nurse is providing education to a client with a fractured femur who will need to use crutches for the next 6 weeks. Identify if the following directions provided by the nurse for walking up stairs using crutches are true or false.

  1. Hold to rail with one hand and crutches with the other hand.
  2. Push down on the stair rail and the crutches and step up with the ‘unaffected’ leg.
  3. If not allowed to place weight on the ‘affected’ leg, hop up with the ‘unaffected’ leg.
  4. Bring the ‘affected’ leg and the crutches up beside the ‘unaffected’ leg.
  5. Remember, the ‘unaffected’ leg goes up first and the crutches move with the ‘affected’ leg.
A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Match the development tasks with the correct age group.

Develop sense of personal identity that family expectations influence. Peer relationships develop as support system. Concerned with body images that media portray.

A

Adolescents 12-20 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Match the development tasks with the correct age group

Develop sense of industry through advances in learning. Strive to develop healthy self- respect by finding out in what areas they excel. Peer groups play important role in social development.

A

School-age children 6-12 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Match the development tasks with the correct age group

Take on new experiences and when unable to accomplish task may feel guilty or misbehave. Generally do not exhibit stranger anxiety. Understand behavior in terms of what is socially acceptable.

A

Pre-schoolers 3-6 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Match the development tasks with the correct age group

Personalize values and beliefs and base reasoning on ethical fairness principles. Establish close relationships. Have influences that help with formation of healthy self-concept, such family and friends.

A

Young adults 20-35 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Droplet precautions:

A private room or a room with other clients with the same infectious disease.
Masks for providers and visitors.

A

Pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Contact precautions:

A private room or a room with other clients with the same infection.
Gloves and gowns worn by the caregivers and visitors.

A

Vancomycin resistant enterococcus (VRE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Airborne precautions:

A private room.
Masks or respiratory protection devices for caregivers and visitors.
An N95 or high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator is used if the client is known or suspected to have tuberculosis.
Negative pressure airflow exchange in the room of at least six exchanges per hour.

A

Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Full-thickness tissue loss with destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures. There may be sinus tracts, deep pockets of infection, tunneling, undermining, eschar (black scab-like material), or slough (tan, yellow, or green scab-like material).

A

Stage 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and the dermis. The ulcer is visible and superficial and may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Edema persists, and the ulcer may become infected, possibly with pain and scant drainage.

A

Stage 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Full-thickness tissue loss with damage to or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue. The ulcer may extend down to, but not through, underlying fascia. The ulcer appears as a deep crater with or without undermining of adjacent tissue and without exposed muscle or bone. Drainage and infection are common.

A

Stage 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Intact skin with an area of persistent, nonblanchable redness, typically over a bony prominence, that may feel warmer or cooler than the adjacent tissue. The tissue is swollen and has congestion, with possible discomfort at the site. With darker skin tones, the ulcer may appear blue or purple.

A

Stage 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the name of a legal document that instructs health care providers and family members about what, if any, life-sustaining treatment an individual wants if at some time the individual is unable to make decisions?

A

Living will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A nurse is caring for a client with encephalopathy secondary to liver failure. The client has been prescribed a high calorie, low protein diet. Which of the following meal selections is appropriate for this client?

A

Chicken breast, mashed potatoes, spinach.

(This option meets the prescribed diet. It is high in calories and while chicken does provide protein it is a low-fat source and can be eaten in moderation on a low-protein diet. Spinach will provide additional vitamin K for this client at risk for bleeding due to liver failure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A nurse is caring for an older adult client with delirium. Which intervention will most effectively reduce the client’s risk for falls?

A

Hourly rounding by the nurse.

(In the health care environment, hourly rounding by nurses significantly reduces the occurrence of client falls, as well as reducing call light usage and increasing client satisfaction.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A nurse is caring for a client with a closed head injury. When pressure is applied to the client’s nail beds, the client’s eyes open and adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists is noted. The client also moans with stimulation. What is this client’s Glasgow Coma Score?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A nurse is caring for several clients prescribed heat/cold therapies. Which of the following clients are at risk of injury from these therapies? Select all that apply.

A

c. A client with diabetes prescribed cold therapy for a fractured toe. (Clients who have impaired sensory perception such as those with diabetes may not feel pain or burning.)
e. A cognitively impaired older adult prescribed alternating heat and cold therapy. (This client is at risk. Cognitively impaired, older adult clients are at risk for injury related to heat and cold therapies due to decreased perception.)
a. A fair-skinned, school age client prescribed heat therapy after a soccer injury.
d. An older adult client prescribed heat therapy for hip pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A nurse is providing dietary education to a client with cholecystitis who has been prescribed a low-fat diet. Which of the following meal selections by the client indicates understanding of education?

A

Roast turkey, rice pilaf, green beans

20
Q

A nurse is verifying nasogastric tube placement by the pH of aspirated gastric fluid. Which of the following pH values provides a good indication of correct tube placement?

A

2

A good indication of appropriate placement is obtaining gastric contents with a pH between 0 and 4.

21
Q

A nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy that is experiencing neutropenia. Which of the following should the nurse include in this client’s education?

A

Avoid crowded events.

(Clients with neutropenia do not have enough circulating neutrophils to fight off infections. This client should avoid crowds to prevent exposure to colds/viruses.)

22
Q

A nurse is caring for a client receiving opiates for pain management. Initially after the pain management plan was started, the client was sedated and sleeping most of the time. After three days on the plan the client is no longer sedated and sleeping regularly. What action should the nurse take?

A

No action is needed at this time.

23
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage this to include in his diet?

A

Oranges

(Clients prescribed potassium-wasting diurectics should be encouraged to eat foods high in potassium. Oranges, dried fruits, tomatoes, avocados, dried peas, meats, broccoli, and bananas are all good sources of potassium.)

24
Q

A nurse is assisting a client with his meal that is at risk for aspiration due to a stroke. What interventions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration? Select all that apply.

A

a. Keep the client in semi-Fowler’s position for at least 1 hour after the meal. (Maintaining the client in a semi upright position following meals can prevent aspiration in the event of reflux.)

c. Position the client in Fowler’s position. (Positioning the client in Fowler’s position or in a chair can help prevent aspiration.)
d. Instruct the client to tuck his chin when swallowing. (Tucking in the chin when swallowing can help propel food down the esophagus and prevent aspiration.)

e. Support client’s upper back, neck and head during feeding. (The nurse should ensure adequate support of the client’s upper body during feeding.)

25
Q

Which of the following can cause a low pulse oximetry reading?

A

Inadequate peripheral circulation

26
Q

A nurse is caring for a client receiving radiation treatments for cancer. The client states he is experiencing dryness, redness and scaling at the treatment area. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to do?

A

Liberally apply prescribed lotion to the area. (Hydrating lotions are commonly prescribed to treat irritated areas. The client should avoid applying other lotions not prescribed by the radiologist to affected areas.

27
Q

A nurse manager is providing staff education on the correct use of restraints. Which of the following should be included in this education? Select all that apply.

A

a. Restraints should never interfere with treatment.
b. Staff must document type and location of the restraint and time applied. ( Documentation required for restraints includes behaviors making restraint necessary; alternatives attempted and the client’s response; the type and location or the restraints and time applied; and frequency and type of assessments.)
c. Restraints should never be used because of short staffing. (Restraints should never be used because of short staffing or staff convenience. If at all possible, non-pharmacological and non-restraint measures such as distraction, frequent observation or diversion activities should be used.)
e. Assess neurovascular and neurosensory status every 2 hours. (Assessments to be taken include neurovascular and neurosensory status checks every 2 hours. The nurse should also document the frequency and type of assessments made while the client is restrained.)

28
Q

A nurse is preparing to administer total parenteral nutrition (TPN) to a client. Which of the following findings indicates a need to obtain a new bag of TPN before administering?

A

The TPN solution has an oily appearance and a layer of fat on top of the solution.

(Before administration of TPN, the nurse should look for “cracking” of TPN solution. This occurs if the calcium or phosphorous content is high or if poor-salt albumin is added. A “cracked” TPN solution has an oily appearance or a layer of fat on top of the solution and should not be used.)

29
Q

Dehydration in clients leads to increased registered levels of glucose, electrolytes and hematocrit.

A

True

Dehydration is the loss of water from the body without the loss of electrolytes. This hemoconcentration results in increases in HCT, serum electrolytes, and urine specific gravity.

30
Q

A nurse is completing a nutritional assessment on a client and measures body mass index (BMI). Which of the following readings correlates with a BMI of an overweight client?

A

25

●● Healthy weight is indicated by a BMI of 18.5 to 24.9.

●● Overweight is defined as an increased body weight in relation to height. It is indicated by a BMI of 25 to 29.9.

●● Obesity is an excess amount of body fat. It is indicated by a BMI greater than or equal to 30.

BMI = weight (kg) ÷ height (m2)

31
Q

A menopausal client is having difficulty getting to sleep and asks what actions she should incorporate in her daily routine to promote sleep. The nurse would encourage, which of the below measures to promote sleep?

A

Limit alcohol and nicotine prior to bedtime.

Measures to promote sleep include:

●● Exercise regularly; limit exercise at least 2 hr before bedtime.

●● Establish a bedtime routine and a regular sleep pattern.

●● Arrange the sleep environment for comfort.

●● Limit alcohol, caffeine, and nicotine at least 4 hr before bedtime.

●● Limit fluids 2 to 4 hr before bedtime.

●● Engage in muscle relaxation if anxious or stressed.

32
Q

A client with hearing loss has been fitted for a hearing aid. Which of the following teaching points are important for the nurse to discuss with the client?

A

Use mild soap and water to clean the ear mold. (To clean the ear mold, use mild soap and water while keeping the hearing aid dry.)

Hearing Aid Nursing Considerations

●● Use the lowest setting that allows hearing without feedback.

●● To clean the ear mold, use mild soap and water while keeping the hearing aid dry.

●● When the hearing aid is not in use, turn it off or remove the batteries to conserve battery power. Keep replacement batteries on hand.

33
Q

A nurse is caring for a client who is admitted for observation and has full range of motion. Which is the best manner to encourage the client to void?

A

Client Bathroom

34
Q

A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has evidence of dyspnea, bibasilar crackles and frothy sputum. What dietary recommendations should be provided to this client in management of their heart failure?

A

Reduce sodium intake

It is encouraged to stop smoking, reduce sodium intake, monitor fluid intake, restricting intake to 2 L per day. It is also encouraged to increase protein intake to 1.12 g/kg and consume small, frequent meals that are soft, easy-to-chew foods. There are no recommendations on calcium intake associated with heart failure.

35
Q

A client with COPD is using accessory muscles to breath and has a productive cough. To promote energy, the nurse should encourage high-calorie foods

A

True

Dyspnea decreases energy available for eating, so soft, high-calorie foods should be encouraged.

36
Q

A client with a cystocele is encouraged to exercise to strengthen pelvic floor muscles and prevent pelvic organ prolapse. What exercise will the client need to perform?

A

Kegel exercises

Kegel exercises strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, which results in reduction or prevention of pelvic prolapse and stress urinary incontinence

37
Q

A nurse is caring for a client with celiac disease. Which food should be removed from the meal tray?

A

Tortillas

Celiac disease is a gluten-sensitive enteropathy. It is a chronic, inherited, genetic disorder with autoimmune characteristics. Clients who have celiac disease are unable to digest the protein gluten. Tortillas contain gluten. Corn bread, mash potatoes and lentils do not contain gluten.

38
Q

A client with Parkinson’s Disease has muscle rigidity. The nurse should encourage the client to stop occasionally when walking to slow down speed and reduce risk of injury.

A

True.

The goal of care is to maintain client mobility for as long as possible.

Encourage exercise, such as yoga (can also improve mental status).
Encourage use of assistive devices as disease progresses.
Encourage range‑of‑motion (ROM) exercises.
Teach the client to stop occasionally when walking to slow down speed and reduce risk for injury.
Pace activities by providing rest periods.
Assist with ADLs as needed (hygiene, dressing).

39
Q

Order of Assessment

A

I-inspection

P-palpation

P-percussion

A-auscultation

Except with abdomen it is IAPP-inspect, auscultate, percuss and palpate.

40
Q

Cane walking:

A

C-cane

O-opposite

A-affected

L-leg

41
Q

Crutch walking:

A

Remember the phase “step up” when picturing a person going up stairs with crutches. The good leg goes up first followed by the crutches and the bad leg. The opposite happens going down the stairs….OR “up to heaven…down to hell”

42
Q

Delegation:

A

RNs DO NOT delegate what they can EAT–evaluate, assess, teach

43
Q

Helpful tool to remember Isolation Precautions:

A

AIRBORNE: “My Chicken Hez TB”

  • Measles
  • Chicken pox
  • Herpes zoster
  • TB

Management: neg. pressure room, private room, mask, n-95 for TB.

44
Q

DROPLET: “SPIDERMAN”

A
  • Sepsis
  • Scarlet Fever
  • Strep
  • Pertussis
  • Pneumonia
  • Parvovirus
  • Influenza
  • Diphtheria
  • Epiglottitis
  • Rubella
  • Mumps
  • Adenovirus

Management: Private room/mask

45
Q

CONTACT: “MRS WEE”

A

CONTACT: “MRS WEE”

  • MRSA
  • VRSA
  • RSV
  • Skin infections (herpes zoster, cutaneous diphtheria, impetigo, pediculosis, scabies, and staphylococcus)
  • Wound infections
  • Enteric infections (Clostridium difficile)
  • Eye infections (conjunctivitis)

Management: gown, gloves, goggles, private room