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ODP Year One > Fundamentals Of Perioperative Practice > Flashcards

Fundamentals Of Perioperative Practice Flashcards

1
Q

What are surgeries classified from?

A

Urgency
Risk
Purpose

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2
Q

What are the types of urgency in a surgery?

A

Elective
Urgent
Emergency

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3
Q

What are the 6 surgery purposes?

A

Diagnostic , reconstructive
Ablative , transplantation
Palliative , constructive

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4
Q

What are the 6 indicators of surgery?

A

Vital , cosmetic
Absolute , prophylactic
Relative , diagnostic

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5
Q

What are the 4 types of instrument cleaning?

A

Cleaning
Decontamination
Sterilisation
Disinfection

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6
Q

Define cleaning surgical tools

A

Removal of all bio-burden or soil from the instrument or objects surface

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7
Q

Define decontamination of instruments

A

Removal of all pathogenic microorganisms from the instrument

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8
Q

Define sterilisation of an instrument

A

Total destruction of all microbial life including viruses and spores

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9
Q

Define disinfection of an instrument

A

Destruction of all vegetative microbial life, but not spores

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10
Q

Define surgery

A

Structurally altering the human body by incision or destruction of tissues for diagnostic or therapeutic treatment of conditions or diseases

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11
Q

List the types of anaesthesia (5)

A

General
Spinal
Epidural
Regional
Local

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12
Q

What does the triad of anaesthesia consist of?

A

Amnesia
Analgesia
Muscular relaxation

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13
Q

How can anaesthesia be introduced?

A

Intravenous
Inhalation

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14
Q

What is stage 1 of anaesthesia?

A

INDUCTION
Loss of consciousness
Progress to analgesia with amnesia

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15
Q

What is stage 2 of anaesthesia?

A

EXCITEMENT
Excited activity
Respiration and heart rate may become irregular

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16
Q

What is stage 3 of anaesthesia?

A

SURGICAL ANAESTHESIA
Respiratory depression
Skeletal muscles relax

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17
Q

What is stage 4 of anaesthesia?

A

OVERDOSE
Too much medication resulting in severe brain stem and/ or medullary depression

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18
Q

What is plane 1 of anaesthesia?

A

Eyes initially roll then become fixed
Eyelid reflex is lost
Swallowing reflex is lost

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19
Q

What is plane 2 of anaesthesia?

A

Loss of corneal and laryngeal reflexes
Secretion of tears

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20
Q

What is plane 3 of anaesthesia?

A

Pupils dilate and loss of light reflex
Intercostal paralysis

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21
Q

What is plane 4 of anaesthesia?

A

Diaphragmatic respiration only
Assisted ventilation is required

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22
Q

What is purple waste and how should it be disposed?

A

Hazardous
Incineration

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23
Q

What is yellow waste and how should it be disposed?

A

Clinical / highly infectious
Incineration

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24
Q

What is red waste and how should it be disposed of?

A

Hazardous / non hazardous anatomical waste
Incineration

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25
Q

What is orange waste and how should it be disposed of?

A

Clinical / infectious waste
Treated then disposed or incinerated

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26
Q

What is black and yellow waste and how should it be disposed?

A

Non hazardous and non infectious
Incinerated or landfill

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27
Q

What is black waste and how should it be disposed of?

A

Various
Landfill

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28
Q

Define MAC

A

Minimum alveolar concentration
The concentration of volatile anaesthetic agent at 1 atmosphere which produces immobility in 50% of patients exposed to a noxious stimulus.

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29
Q

What does the airway assessment acronym LEMON mean?

A

Look for external difficulty
Evaluate using 3=3=2 rule
Mallampati (class 1 & 2)
Obstruction
Neck mobility

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30
Q

What does the airway assessment acronym BONES mean?

A

Beard
Obese
No teeth
Elderly
Snores (sleep apnea)

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31
Q

What does the airway assessment acronym SHORT mean?

A

Surgery (head neck jaw)
Haematoma
Obese
Radiation
Tumour

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32
Q

What is spinal anaesthesia?

A

An injection of local anaesthetic into the cerebrospinal fluid

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33
Q

What is Boyle’s law?

A

At a constant temperature the volume and pressure of a gas are inversely proportional to each other

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34
Q

What is Gay-Lussac’s law?

A

At a constant volume, pressure is directly proportional to temperature

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35
Q

What is Charles’ law?

A

At a constant pressure, the volume is directly proportional to the temperature

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36
Q

What is Dalton’s law?

A

The total pressure exerted by a gaseous mixture is equal to the sum of all the partial pressures of each individual component in a gas mixture

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37
Q

What is Henry’s law?

A

At a constant temperature the amount of a given gas that dissolves in a given type of volume of liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas in equilibrium with that liquid.

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38
Q

What are the 4 types of theatre cleaning?

A

Damp dusting
Patient turnover cleaning
Terminal cleaning
Scheduled cleaning

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39
Q

Name 3 amnesia drugs

A

Propofol
Ketamine
Thiopentane

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40
Q

Name 3 analgesia drugs

A

Fentanyl
Remifentanil
Alfentanil

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41
Q

Name 5 paralysis drugs

A

Suxamethonium
Atracurium
Rocuronium
Vecuronium
Pancuronium

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42
Q

What drug reverses rocuronium and vecuronium?

A

Sugammadex

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43
Q

What drug can reverse non depolarising blockage in anaesthesia and what should it be given with?

A

Neostigmine
Given with glycopyrrolate

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44
Q

What are 7 advantages for spinal anaesthesia?

A

Good for patients with respiratory problems
Good for patients with diabetes
Less chance of post op DVT
Bleed less
Cost is cheaper
Patient uses own airway
Muscle relaxation

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45
Q

What are 6 disadvantages of spinal anaesthesia?

A

Can cause hypotension
Lasts 2 hours max
Causes urinary retention
Can cause infection of subarachnoid space
Requires the patient to be cooperative
Requires experienced anaesthetist

46
Q

Name 5 complications of spinal anaesthesia?

A

Bleeding in patients with hemorrhagic tendencies
Infection of skin or subarachnoid space
Shock
Total or high spinal shock
Headaches

47
Q

What drugs are used in spinal anaesthesia?

A

Lignocaine / lidocaine for the skin
0.5% bupivacaine (marcain) in 8% dextrose (hyperbaric)

48
Q

What does epidural anaesthesia do?

A

Gives intraoperative and postoperative pain management

49
Q

What is an epidural needle called?

A

Tuohy needle

50
Q

What drugs are involved in epidural anaesthesia?

A

Bupivacaine or Levobupivacaine 0.5 to 0.75%
And ropivacaine 0.75 - 1%

51
Q

What are 3 complications of epidural anaesthesia?

A

Bleeding
Shock
Infection

52
Q

What is a regional block?

A

When the transmission of impulses from the nerves are blocked by injection of local anaesthetic around the nerve.

53
Q

What is a local anaesthetic?

A

Used to numb the skin either by injection or topical application

54
Q

What can a local anaesthetic be used with and why?

A

Adrenaline
Causes vasoconstriction and creates a slower rate of absorption. Can’t be used on digits

55
Q

What should everybody wear in a theatre?

A

Scrubs, hat, face mask

56
Q

What are 4 extra theatre PPE?

A

Eye protection
Cuts covered
Correct sized gown
Correct glove size

57
Q

What are the 4 main properties of surgical antiseptic?

A

Antimicrobial activity
Persistent activity
Safety
Acceptance

58
Q

What is an indicator glove and why is it used?

A

To increase awareness of perforations

59
Q

What are the 10 ideals for volatile anaesthetic agents?

A

Smooth & reliable induction and maintenance
Minimal affect on other organ systems
Safe for all ages and pregnancy
Not metabolised
Odourless, pleasant to inhale
Rapid onset and offset
Potential
Cheap
Non inflammable
Environmentally friendly

60
Q

5 factors that increase MAC

A

Hyperthermia
Youth
Alcoholism
Hypernatremia
Thyrotoxicosis

61
Q

6 factors that decrease MAC

A

Hypothermia
Old age
Hypotension
Pregnancy
Hypercarbia
Hypoxia

62
Q

Define latent heat of vaporisation?

A

The amount of energy required to convert 1g of liquid into vapour with constant temperature.

63
Q

What are the 6C’s?

A

Care
Compassion
Competence
Communication
Courage
Commitment

64
Q

What does the pin index system do?

A

Ensures the correct cylinder is attached to the correct yoke

65
Q

What is a Bodox seal?

A

Made of metal and neoprene so there is no leak from the cylinder

66
Q

What does the pressure gauge of O2 show on an anaesthetic machine?

A

The contents of the oxygen remaining in the cylinder

67
Q

What does the pressure gauge of N2O show on an anaesthetic machine?

A

The gauge will remain constant until all the liquid has evaporated. Then it will start to decrease fairly rapidly.

68
Q

What is emergency oxygen flow?

A

Delivers 35L/min of O2. It bypasses flow meters and vaporisers joining common gas outlet

69
Q

How is an oxygen failure alarm powered?

A

By the fall in oxygen pressure

70
Q

Why do we do a surgical count?

A

To reduce the risk of leaving something in the patient that can lead to growths and infections.

71
Q

What are the names of something that has been left inside a patient after surgery and it has formed a shell? (3)

A

Gossypiboma
Textiloma
Cottonoid

72
Q

How do we do a surgical count? (6)

A

2 practitioners counting aloud
Items counted separately
Counting sequence should be in a logical order
Swabs and packs counted in 5
The new packs number should be verified before use
Needles counted as a total amount and added individually

73
Q

When do we do a surgical count? (5)

A

At set up (initial)
During procedure (new items)
Prior to closure of a potential cavity (second count)
At skin closure (final/third)
Bin count

74
Q

What is the calculation to work out blood loss?

A

Weight of wet swab - weight of dry swab = approximate EBL

75
Q

Dry weight of a 4x3 swab

A

4g

76
Q

Dry weight of a 22x22 swab

A

13g

77
Q

Dry weight of a 30x30 swab

A

25g

78
Q

Dry weight of a 45x45 swab

A

50g

79
Q

What is wound healing?

A

The physiological process by which the body replaces and restores itself

80
Q

What are 5 symptoms a wound is healing?

A

Heat
Pain
Redness
Swelling
Loss of function

81
Q

What are the 3 categories of wound closure?

A

Primary, secondary and tertiary

82
Q

What is a primary wound closure?

A

The closure of a wound within hours of its creation

83
Q

What is a secondary wound closure?

A

Healing involves no formal wound closure. The wound closes spontaneously by contraction and re-epithelialisation

84
Q

What is a tertiary wound closure?

A

AKA delayed primary closure
Involves initial debridement of the wound left open for a specific period then formally closed later.

85
Q

What is the infection rate of a clean surgical wound?

A

1-3%

86
Q

What is the infection rate of a clean/contaminated surgical wound?

A

5-6%

87
Q

What is the infection rate of a contaminated surgical wound?

A

20-25%

88
Q

What is the infection rate of a dirty surgical wound?

A

30-40%

89
Q

What are 8 local factors that affect wound healing?

A

Bacterial colonisation
Necrosis
Wound infection
Poor wound hygiene
Poor blood supply
Low O2 saturation
Debris
Pressure

90
Q

What are 8 systematic factors that affect wound healing?

A

Cardiovascular disease
Diabetes
Metabolic disease
Malnutrition
Medications (steroids)
Immuno suppression
Age
Smoking

91
Q

What are 10 complications of wound healing?

A

Dehiscence
Haemorrhage
Adhesions
Infection
Herniation
Fistula & sinus formation
Hypertrophic scar
Heloid scaring
Contractive
Evisceration

92
Q

What are resident microorganisms?

A

Normally found on the skin. Termed as normal flora. Found in the deeper layers of the skin and do not readily cause infection.

93
Q

What are transient microorganisms

A

Transferred through contact with an external source. Found on the top surface of the skin and can be picked up and transferred easily.

94
Q

How does providing iodine work?

A

Creates a biofilm on the patients skin which prevents regrowth of organisms for 2-4 hours.

95
Q

How does chlorhexidine gulconate with 70% alcohol work?

A

The alcohol mixes with the air and evaporates off the skin and killing microorganisms. This reduces regrowth for 24-48 hours.

96
Q

What is laryngospasm?

A

A primitive protective airway reflex to protect against aspiration. It is triggered by stimulation of the vocal cords and peri glottic region

97
Q

When can laryngospasm occur?

A

When the patient is awake or semi conscious (more prone in semi and takes longer to go)

98
Q

When are patients most at risk of laryngospasm? (3)

A

During the induction of anaesthesia,
Emergence of anaesthesia
During stage 2 of anaesthesia

99
Q

When will laryngospasm usually break?

A

When patient awakes
When hypoxia or hypercapnia develops.
This is not always the case

100
Q

What can laryngospasm lead to?

A

Laryngospasm
Hypoxia
Bradycardia
Cardiopulmonary arrest

101
Q

What are 10 risk factors to laryngospasm?

A

Light anaesthesia
Irritant volatile anaesthetic
Blood/secretions
Pre existing airway abnormalities
Gastroesophageal reflux
Instrumentation during light planes
LMA and inexperienced anaesthetist
Young children
Certain types of surgery
Smoking

102
Q

How can we pharmacologically prevent laryngospasm?

A

Magnesium
Lidocaine
Atropine

103
Q

How to recognise laryngospasm? (4)

A

Stridor
Tracheal tug
Paradoxical respiratory effort (see saw breathing)
Oxygen desaturation

104
Q

How to treat laryngospasm? (9)

A

Prompt regain of oxygenation
Remove stimulation
Direct laryngoscope and gentle suction
Consider further help
CPAP- 100% O2, tight fit mask, 4 hands
Vigorous jaw thrust
Pressure on laryngospasm notch
Rapidly deepen anaesthesia with propofol
Paralyse with suxamethonium or rocuronium

105
Q

What are 4 anecdotal ways to treat laryngospasm?

A

Larsons manoeuvre
Superior laryngeal nerve block
Nitroglycerin
Gentle chest compressions

106
Q

What is in view for mallampati classification 1?

A

Soft palate
Faucets
Entire uvula
Tonsillar pillars

107
Q

What is in view for mallampati classification 2?

A

Soft palate
Faucets
Base of uvula

108
Q

What is in view for mallampati classification 3?

A

Soft palate
Base of uvula

109
Q

What is in view for mallampati classification 4?

A

Soft palate only

110
Q

What does a Murphy’s eye do?

A

A side hole in an ET tube to enable ventilation if the bevel becomes occluded

ODP Year One (3 decks)

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