Fundamentals of Estate Planning Flashcards
Which of the following is not an estate-planning goal?
A) Maximizing the gross estate
B) Minimizing transfer taxes
C) Providing for liquidity at death
D) Fulfilling client’s healthcare decisions
The correct answer is (A).
Minimizing transfer costs, not maximizing the gross estate, is a common estate-planning goal. All of the other answers are common estate planning goals.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding probate property?
A) An LLC passed to a key employee when the business owner retires will be considered probate property when the business owner dies.
B) Assets through a testamentary trust are probate property.
C) Property held as tenants in common is probate property.
D) Property passed through a revocable trust is not probate property.
The answer is (A).
Property passed at retirement is not considered estate property because it is out of the estate when the decedent passes away, therefore it is not probate or non-probate property.
Which of the following statements regarding the probate process is not correct?
A) The probate process can cause delays during which the heirs will be waiting to receive their assets.
B) One advantage of the probate process is that it provides clear title to the heirs and beneficiaries.
C) The probate process ensures that creditors are given proper notice to make claims against the estate, and that heirs are protected from late claims by creditors.
D) The probate process ensures the proceedings are kept private and confidential.
The answer is (D).
The probate process is available as public record and is not private.
What are the 5 types of wills (explain them)?
- Statutory Will - drafted by an attorney and complies with the statutes of the domiciliary state. Must be witnessed and signed by the testator.
- Holographic Will - hgeneraly handwritten by the testator. Must be signed and dated by the testor but does not usually require a witness. Valid in most states.
- Noncupative Wills - Oral, dying declarations made before a sufficient number of witnesses. Generally not valid in most states and only apply to tangible property.
- Mutual or Reciprocal Will - involves two identical wills leaving all assets to the other. “Sweetheart Will”. Surviving party is not bound to the will and can change it.
- Joint Will - For two people, at the death of the first person, the survivor is contractually bound by the joint will. Uncommon.
Per Stirpes
Equal distribution among each branch of the family tree
Per Capita
Equal distribution among each individual
Per Capita At Each Generation
Equal distribution among heirs of the same generation.
Zuri gives Omani a power of appointment. Which of the following powers would be deemed a general power of appointment?
A) The power to use Zuri’s money to pay Zuris’ creditors
B) The power to sell and buy property on Zuri’s behalf
C) The power to use Zuri’s money to pay Omani’s creditors
D) The power to make gifts to Zuri’s heirs and charities
The correct answer is (C).
The power to pay the powerholder’s own creditors creates a general power of appointment over the assets. The other powers do not benefit the power holder and thus do not create a general power of appointment.
Zuri gives Omani a power of appointment. Which of the following powers would be deemed a general power of appointment?
A) The power to use Zuri’s money to pay Zuris’ creditors
B) The power to sell and buy property on Zuri’s behalf
C) The power to use Zuri’s money to pay Omani’s creditors
D) The power to make gifts to Zuri’s heirs and charities
The correct answer is (C).
The power to pay the power holder’s own creditors creates a general power of appointment over the assets. The other powers do not benefit the power holder and thus do not create a general power of appointment.
Barry is 55 years old and he is creating his estate planning documents. He wants his assets to pass to his spouse, and then to his children if his spouse pre-deceases him. Which of the following fiduciary selections is the best choice?
A) Barry should name his father as his executor.
B) Barry should name his spouse as the custodian of the assets that will pass to his minor children.
C) Barry should choose a trustworthy family member or friend to serve as his primary or alternate financial power of attorney.
D) Barry does not need to create a medical power of attorney because in his state, this power defaults to his spouse, who he would have named anyway.
The correct answer is (C).
Barry should chose a trustworthy individual to serve as his financial power of attorney because this person will have access to all of his assets.
Which of the following is the most effective way to revoke a will?
A) Physically destroy all copies of the current will.
B) Send an email notifying the attorney and beneficiaries that the will is revoked.
C) Notify the attorney that the will is revoked and a new will is needed.
D) Write a letter to the executor instructing them to ignore the old will and to follow the instructions in the letter instead.
The answer is (A).
Physically destroying all copies of a will is the most effective revocation method. All of the other statements leave the possibility that a copy of the old will will surface, causing uncertainty.
Which of the following statements is true regarding tenancy in common?
A) The creditors of one tenant can seize 100% of the property.
B) The creditors of one tenant can seize the portion of the property owned by the tenant that is liable to the creditor.
C) The creditors of one tenant may force the sale of the property.
D) The creditors of one tenant can convert the property into a joint tenancy with survivorship.
The correct answer is (B).
The creditors of one tenant can seize the portion of the property owned by that tenant. None of the other statements are true.
Jack and Jill are not married and own farmland titled as joint tenants with rights of survivorship (JTWROS). Jack originally contributed $90,000 and Jill contributed $60,000 toward the purchase price. The land is currently valued at $800,000 and each of them has a 50 percent interest in the property. If Jack died today, what amount of the value of the farmland would be included in his gross estate?
A) $90,000
B) $400,000
C) $480,000
D) $800,000
The correct answer is (C).
Property owned JTWROS follows the actual contribution rule for non-spouses for inclusion in the gross estate. Therefore, since Jack contributed 60 percent of the property, his estate will include 60 percent of the fair market value (60% × $800,000 = $480,000).
Bob and Charles own a townhouse together and are not married. Charles contributed 30 percent of the purchase price and Bob contributed 70 percent of the purchase price. Each of them has an equal interest in the property. Which of the following are permissible ways they could title the property?
I. Sole ownership
II. Tenancy in common
III. Joint tenancy with rights of survivorship
IV. Tenancy by the entirety
II and III
The property could be titled either as tenancy in common or joint tenancy with rights of survivorship. The property could not be owned as tenancy by the entirety because Bob and Charles are not married. Sole ownership is not an option because there is more than one owner.
Sherri purchased a home many years ago for $100,000. She married Gary five years ago when the house was worth $200,000. Sherri and Gary live in a community property state. Assume Sherri died today and left her entire interest in the property to her son Brody. The property is currently valued at $400,000. What is Brody’s basis in the home after Sherri’s death?
A) $0
B) $100,000
C) $200,000
D) $400,000
The correct answer is (D).
Gary does not own any interest in the property because community ownership has no survivorship rights. Sherri purchased the home before she was married to Gary. At the time of marriage, the property remained Sherri’s separate property. When Sherri died, her interest (100 percent) transferred to Brody. Thus, Gary does not own any of the property and does not have any basis in the property. Brody will have a basis of $400,000 (the step-up basis).
Four people own one piece of property. Which of the following forms of property ownership titling of those listed must they use?
A) Life estate
B) Tenancy by the entirety
C) Community property
D) Tenancy in common
The correct answer is (D).
A life estate is only appropriate if the ownership is split between present interests and future interests. It is not appropriate for four concurrent tenants. Tenancy in common is the only one of the choices that allows four owners. Both tenancy by the entirety and community property are between two spouses.
What is the Crummy Provision and the 5/5 (5 and 5) Lapse Rule?
Crummy Provision/ Power allows trust benes to withdraw some trust assets for a limited period each year. Allows the gift to be a present interest gift even if the benes don’t actually access the assets in the trust.
5/5Lapse Rule requires that if a bene had the power to withdraw more than 5k or 5% of the trust assets and allowed that power to lapse, the bene has made a taxable gift to the other benes of the amount they did not withdraw that exceeds the greater of 5k or 5% of the trust assets.
Dan Donor gifts property with $75,000 fair market value and $100,000 basis to his son, Bill. Dan and Bill report no taxable income upon the transfer. What is the the tax consequence for:
1. Property sold by Bill for $150,000
2. Property sold by Bill for $60,000
3. Property sold by bill for $85,000
- $50,000 gain (basis is $100,000
- $15,000 loss ($75,000 basis
- No gain or loss
Which of the following is not true regarding strategies for gifting?
a. Gift tax paid on gifts within three years of death are included in the decedent’s gross estate only if the gift itself is also included.
b. A donor is responsible for additional tax on property that has appreciated in value prior to gifting the property.
c. It is better to sell property that has decreased in value, rather than gift it.
d. Income producing property should be gifted to family members in lower income tax brackets.
Answer - a
Gift tax paid on gifts made within three years of a decedent’s date of death is included in the decedent’s gross estate, regardless of whether or not the gift is included in the gross estate.
Bernard made a gift of $500,000 cash to his brother last year. At the time of the gift, he paid $200,000 of gift tax. At Bernard’s death this year, what is included in his gross estate?
A) $0
B) $200,000
C) $250,000
D) $500,000
The correct answer is (B).
Gift tax paid within 3 years is included in the gross estate. Therefore, all of the $200,000 will be included in the gross estate.
What is a GRAT?
Grantor Retained annuity Trust
In a GRAT, the grantor’s retained interest is a fixed annuity for the trust term. At the end of the term, the remainder assets are passed to a non-charitable beneficiary.
What is a GRUT?
Grantor Retained Unitrust
In a GRUT, the grantor’s retained interest is a variable annuity for the trust term that is calculated as a stated percentage of the annual value of the trust assets. At the end of the term, the remainder assets are passed to a non-charitable beneficiary.
What is a QPRT?
Qualified Personal Residence Trust
In a Qualified Personal Residence Trust (QPRT), the asset transferred into the trust is a residence. The grantor’s retained interest is not a payment, but rather, it is the right to live in the home for the trust term. At the end of the trust term, the residence is transferred to the beneficiaries.
Which of the following is true of an intentionally defective grantor trust (IDGT)?
a. The grantor is prohibited from exchanging property of equal value with the trust or from controlling the trust investments.
b. The grantor has a reversionary interest in the trust assets.
c. Trust income may be payable to the grantor’s spouse.
d. The grantor may revoke the assets at any time.
C
The first choice is incorrect because if a grantor has the powers to substitute assets or control investments, the trust is an IDGT. The second choice is incorrect because the grantor’s reversionary interest must be greater than 5% of the trust value in order to qualify as an IDGT. The fourth choice is incorrect because an IDGT is an irrevocable trust.
In a FLP, there may be special valuation discounts available to enable wealth to pass to younger generations at a significantly lower tax cost than would otherwise be possible. One of these is the “lack of marketability” discount. What is the other?
A) The “general partner” discount.
B) The “majority interest” discount.
C) The “minority interest” discount.
D) The “management” discount.
The correct answer is (C).
A minority interest discount is available for business property that does not allow the owner to control the entity.
A FLP offers all of the following advantages EXCEPT:
A) Significant discounts in valuing transfers of partnership interests.
B) A convenient way to gift assets that are generally difficult to break into easily giftable pieces.
C) A method of keeping appreciation of the FLP assets taxable to the older generation rather than heirs.
D) A means of giving away property while still maintaining control.
The correct answer is (C).
A FLP provides just the opposite — a method of shifting future appreciation in the value of assets to the next generation, who would likely be in a lower tax bracket.
A niece and uncle agreed to transfer ownership of the uncle’s convenience store to the niece via a self-cancelling installment note (SCIN). Under the terms of the SCIN, she pays $20,000 per year plus interest for 10 years. If the uncle died four years later, what is the niece’s adjusted basis in the home?
A) $0
B) $80,000
C) $120,000
D) $200,000
The correct answer is (D).
The purchaser’s basis in property purchased through an installment note is the full sale price, even if the purchaser didn’t make all of the payments due to a SCIN provision.
Which of the following is not a benefit of an Intentionally Defective Grantor Trust (IDGT)?
A) IDGTs allow the grantor to transfer property free of estate taxation.
B) A grantor can transfer appreciated property into an IDGT without incurring taxable capital gains on the transfer.
C) The grantor is liable for the trust’s income tax.
D) The grantor can reclaim the trust assets once they are transferred into an IDGT.
The correct answer is (D).
IDGT transfers are irrevocable. Therefore, they are free of estate tax, however the grantor is still liable for income tax on income earned by the trust assets because the trust is a grantor trust. In addition, because the trust is a grantor trust, transfers of property into the trust are not subject to capital gains tax.
James bought the family business using a private annuity that would require payments of $30,000 per year plus interest for the remainder of his father’s life, which is expected to be 20 years. His father died 10 years later. James immediately sold the business for $1,000,000. What is James’ capital gain/loss on the transaction?
A) $300,000
B) $1,000,000
C) $700,000
D) $400,000
The correct answer is (C).
James’ basis is $300,000 (10 payments). Therefore, his gain on the sale is $1,000,000 - $300,000 = $700,000.