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CDR Exam Domain 3 > Functions of Management > Flashcards

Functions of Management Flashcards

1
Q

Systems approach to management

A

Uses functional subsystems and the transformation of inputs to outputs

Works to link processes

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2
Q

Functional subsystems within the food service system (5)

A 
Procurement
Production
Distribution and Service
Sanitation
Maintenance
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3
Q

Management functions

A 
Planning
Organization
Staffing
Directing 
Controlling
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4
Q

Three types of resources core to all management principles are:

A

Human resources
Physical resources
Financial resources

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5
Q

________ is a management function that uses problem solving and decision making to ensure proper utilization of all resources

A

Planning

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6
Q

_____ is the primary function of management

A

Planning

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7
Q

Planning includes…(3)

A

Planning by objective
Facilitating coordination and controlling
Minimizing uncertainty

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8
Q

As a function, planning is (3)

A

Goal oriented
Continuous process
Pervasive

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9
Q

Human resource planning serves to…

A

Ensure an organization’s labor requirements are met

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10
Q

Strategic planning is (6)

A 
Continuous 
Systematic
Future thinking
Based on accomplishing outcomes
Analyzes an organization in the context of its environment
Evaluates progress towards outcomes
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11
Q

Organization involves

A

Assigning duties, delegating authority, and creating responsibility

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12
Q

Organization is key to maintaining a ____ work environment

A

safe

important to reduce use of workman’s compensation, reduce lost workdays, and to demonstrate care for employees

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13
Q

________________ is considered to be a traditional management approach in which each employee is accountable to only one supervisor

A

unity of command

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14
Q

___________ is a management rule where each employee reports directly to their higher up and no one else

A

Scalar principle

A chain of command system

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15
Q

Line authority

A

Multiple employees report to a single administrator

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16
Q

Synergy

A

When the outcome of multiple employees working together is greater than the sum of them working alone

Managers can foster this by creating teams of people who complement each other, facilitate collaboration through open work spaces, and set common objectives that allow team members to overcome individual differences

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17
Q

In a _______________ decision making authority is centralized in upper management

A

Centralized organization

Good for established details and processes, close control of operation, and to establish uniformity

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18
Q

In a ___________ decision making authority is delegated down to the lower levels of management

A

Decentralized organization

Good for adaptability and innovation, quick decision making, training experience for future promotions, diverse businesses, and geographically dispersed companies

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19
Q

___________ is a manager’s ability to efficiently and effectively supervise all work sites and workers

A

Span of control

Reduced by complicated work, geographical or departmental dispersion of workers, and through vague policies

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20
Q

Line of organization

A

Authority flows down from top to bottom and responsibility flows up from bottom to top

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21
Q

In a ___________ units are divided based on specific functions and within each unit there are levels of authority

A

Functional organization

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22
Q

___________ is a combination of line organization with shoot-offs where staff report to various levels of management and may have more than one supervisor to report to

A

Line and staff organization

Can combined efficiency of line organization and the effectiveness of functional organization

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23
Q

Pilfering

A

To steal things of relatively little value

aka petty theft

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24
Q

___________ is a theory of management that analyzes and synthesizes workflows with the objective of improving economic efficiency, especially labor productivity

A

Scientific Management aka Taylorism

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25
Q

4 main principles of Scientific Management

A
  1. Replace standard procedures with a rule of thumb or simple habit
  2. Match workers based on capability and motivation instead of random assignment
  3. Monitor work performance and provide instructions
  4. Allocate the work between managers and workers so managers spend their time planning and training
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26
Q

___________ involves communication from the bottom of an organization hierarchy to the top for various reasons

A

Upward communication

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27
Q

In _________________ the manager works with employees to review organization objectives, formulate goals, and to track and monitor goals that are in place

A

Management by objective

Focuses on participative decision making

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28
Q 
The management process:
1. 
2. 
3.
4.
A
  1. Establish objectives
  2. Identify functions required to achieve objectives
  3. Determine tasks/responsibilities that must be described and assigned
  4. Delegate
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29
Q

Directing

A

Using leadership and management styles
Using motivation and communication
Where the work in management starts to actually get done

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30
Q

According to ________________ humans are motivated by a hierarchy of needs in that lower needs on a hierarchy must be met before achieve the needs higher up on the hierarchy

A

Maslow’s Theory

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31
Q

Maslow’s theory- basic needs include

A

Physiological needs- food, water, warmth, rest

Safety needs- security and safety

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32
Q

Motivation _________ as basic needs are met while motivation __________ as the duration of deficiency of these needs increases

A

decreases; increases

also known as D-needs

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33
Q

Psychological needs (Maslow’s Theory)

A

Belongingness and love needs- intimate relationships, friends
Esteem needs- prestige, feeling of accomplishment

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34
Q

Motivation for __________ increases as needs lower on the hierarchy are met

A

self-actualization

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35
Q

______________ assumes that employees must be controlled, directed, and coerced

A

McGregor’s Theory X

Employees have little ambition, dislike work, are irresponsible, and will avoid work if possible
Primary employee motivation is monetary

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36
Q

_________ management approaches include coercion, implicit threats, micromanagement, and tight controls

A

Hard

May result in hostility, employees producing poor work on purpose, and extreme demands from labor unions

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37
Q

________ management approaches are permissive in hopes that employees will cooperate

A

Soft

May result in workers wanting greater reward for less work

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38
Q

______________ assumes that most people seek responsibility and that exerting physical and mental effort at work is as natural as play or rest

A

McGregor Theory Y

Most people will exercise self control to achieve an organizational objective
Builds on the esteem and self-actualization needs

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39
Q

____________ is a Japanese management style in which employees are empowered and productive

A

Theory Z of Ouchi

Leads to high quality products at low prices

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40
Q

Benefits of Theory Z of Ouchi managerial style

A

Stable employment (low turn over)
High productivity
High morale
High employee satisfaction

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41
Q

___________ includes establishing standards for performance, evaluating actual performance, and implementing corrective action

A

Controlling

Serves to facilitate coordination and help in planning

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42
Q

5 characteristics of controlling:

A
  1. End function- comes into play when performances are made with plans
  2. Pervasive- includes all managers, all levels, all types of concerns
  3. Forward looking
  4. Dynamic
  5. Related to planning- without planning, controlling is meaningless
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43
Q

Steps in controlling:

A
  1. Establish standards (targets to achieve
  2. Measure performance
  3. Compare actual and standard performance- identify cause and extent of deviation
  4. Take remedial actions
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44
Q

Quality improvement would occur during ________ and ________

A

planning, controlling

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45
Q

________ discipline is a graduated range of responses to employee performance problems or conduct problems

A

progressive

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46
Q

Three skills needed to be a successful manager are:

A

Technical skills
Human/Interpersonal skills
Conceptual skills

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47
Q

___________ serve as an authority figure and source of inspiration

A

Figureheads

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48
Q

In __________ leadership the focus is on supervisions, organization, and performance. The goal is to maintain the status quo.

A

Transactional

Effective in a crisis and when project shave very specific parameters

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49
Q

__________ leadership connects with employees’ sense of identity and dedication to the mission and organization

A

Transformation

Goal is to change the future. Effective in smaller businesses.

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50
Q

___________ leadership changes leadership approach depending on the situation

A

Contingency/Situational

Used when tasks and environment vary or when organizations are open systems requiring careful management

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51
Q

The _______________________ Model focuses on situations rather than leadership styles.

A

Hersey, Blanchard, and Johnson Leadership Effectiveness Model

An adaptive and flexible model

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52
Q

A ____ leader gives precise and firm instructions and deadlines while closely monitoring progress

A

S1 (Telling)

Characterized by instruction, direction, and autocratic
HBL Model

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53
Q

A _______ leader explains goals, tasks, methods, and reasons and remains available to followers to provide support

A

S2 (selling)

Characterized by persuasion, encouragement, and incentive
HBL Model

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54
Q

A ________ leader works with followers, involving the group, seeking inout, and encouraging efforts

A

S3 (Participating)

Characterized by involvement, consultation, and teamwork
HBL Model

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55
Q

A __________ leader gives responsibility to followers to set goals, plan, and execute the plan

A

S4 (Delegating)

Characterized by trust, empowerment, and responsibility
HBL Model

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56
Q

An _____ employee may be unexperienced or simply lack the necessary skills to do a task

A

M1 (least experienced workers)

Will required high level of direction from leader at every step

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57
Q

An _____ employee is inexperienced but is interested in learning

A

M2

The leader should adapt their style to provide more supportive behavior to match the employee’s enthusiasm

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58
Q

A ______ employee will have most of the skills and knowledge necessary to get the job done correctly and will require little guidance on the task from the leader

A

M3

Will benefit from supportive behavior to enhance their confidence

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59
Q

A ______ employee is confident in their ability to complete a task and can do so independently without direct support from a leader

A

M4

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60
Q

_______________ is the degree of directive behavior required by the leader for the employees to understand and carry out a task correctly

A

Task behavior

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61
Q

______________ is the degree of supportive behavior required by the leader for the employee to appropriately carry out a task

A

Relationship behavior

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62
Q

Leaders can use the ___________ style with employees that require low relationship behavior and low directive (task) behavior

A

delegating

leader will spend most of their time observing and monitoring the employee

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63
Q

A leader can use ______________ style with employees that require high relationship behavior and low task behavior

A

participating

leader will spend most of their time encouraging and problem solving

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64
Q

A leader can use the ____________ style with employees that require high directive behavior (task) and high relationship behavior

A

selling

Leader will spend most of their time explaining and persuading

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65
Q

A leader can use _____________ style with employees that require high directive behavior (task) and low relationship behavior

A

telling

leader will spend most of their time guiding and directing

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66
Q

____________ decision making style accepts decisions made by a group majority

A

Democratic

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67
Q

_____________ decision making style takes total control, makes decisions, and assumes full responsibility

A

autocratic

68
Q

_____________ decision making style requires the entire group to make an agreement

A

consensus

69
Q

____________ is a decision making style in which the leader seeks input from others before making a decision

A

Participative

70
Q

A _______________ is a group of employees with clear and identifiable common interests

A

bargaining unit

71
Q

In _____________ only union members can be hired for positions covered by a bargaining unit

A

closed shops

Outlawed by the Taft Hartley Act (Labor Management Relationship Act)

72
Q

______________ refers to situations where an employee doesn’t need to be a union member to be hired but must join the union within a certain time period after beginning work

A

Union shops

Illegal in some states

73
Q

In ______________ you do not need to be a union member to hold a bargaining unit position but you have to pay union dues and fees

A

agency shops

the money you pay only covers union activities that you benefit from

74
Q

In an _____________ no one can be compelled to join or not join a union or to pay dues but is still considered a part of the bargaining unit and benefits from union activities on behalf of the bargaining unit

A

Open shops

75
Q

A ______________ is a legal employer strategy in which management prevents union employees from entering the premises.

A

lockout

rarely used due to risk of negative publicity

76
Q

What are the 5 major strategies that employers can legal use to undo/prevent union work

A

Lock out
Sell and close- threat of job loss from company being sold
Strikebreakers- non-union workers brought in until striking employees come to terms
Management-run operations- administrative personnel perform jobs typically done by union members when they are striking
Supervisors can communicate to employees preference that they don’t unionize

77
Q

What are the 4 major strategies that employers use to prevent/undo union work that are not legal?

A

Blacklist- circulate a list of union members to discriminate against them
Yellow dog contract- having employees sign an agreement that they wont join a union
Hot cargo agreement- agreement between an employer and a union where the employer agrees to stop doing business with another employer
Refusal to participate in collective bargaining

78
Q

What are the 4 major strategies used by unions to achieve their agenda that are legal?

A

Strike
Picket
Boycott
Collective bargaining

79
Q

What are the 4 major strategies used by unions to achieve their agenda that are illegal?

A

Featherbedding- attempting to have employers pay for work that is not performed
Hot cargo agreement
Collective work stoppage at health care institutions without providing required notice
Refusals to participate in collective bargaining

80
Q

The _____________ was passed in 1935 and guarantees the rights of private sector employees to organize and join labor/trade unions, engage in collective bargaining, select their representation, and to strike

A

National Labor Relations Act (aka Wagner Act)

81
Q

The ______________ was passed in 1947 and added a list of “unfair labor practices” on part of unions to the NLRA

A

Taft Hartley Act (Labor Management Relationship Act)

Outlawed closed shops

82
Q

The _______________ established a federal minimum wage, overtime pay eligibility, and child labor standards

A

Fair Labor Standards Act

83
Q

The _________ model is a performance improvement model that helps you identify the problem and is often used together with the ___________ model which cycles you through the process of implementing a solution

A

FOCUS, PDSA

84
Q

What do each of the letters in FOCUS stand for?

A 
Find the problem
Organize a team
Clarify the problem
Understand the problem
Select a solution
85
Q

What do each of the letters in PDSA stand for?

A

Plan
Do
Study
Act

86
Q

_________________ is a performance improvement model that focuses on improving the process in response to the customer’s needs

A

Total Quality Management

Company culture and attitude are driven by satisfying customers via products and services

87
Q

What are the key aspects of the Total Quality Improvement (TQM) performance improvement model? (7)

A 
Customer focussed
Strategic approaches
Total employee involvement
Continuous improvement 
Process centered 
Integrated system
Communication
88
Q

List the 6 domains of health care quality targeted by the IOM Framework for Health Care Quality

A 
Safe
Effective
Patient centered
Timely 
Efficient
Equitable
89
Q

The _______________ performance improvement model serves to identify problems, implement corrective action, and study the effectiveness of the solution

A

Continuous Quality Improvement

Ongoing cycle of collecting data and using the data to make decisions for gradual and continuous improvement

90
Q

The key tenets of Continuous Quality Improvement are:

A

Customer satisfaction
Data collection via the scientific method
Team involvement

91
Q

____________ is a Japanese business philosophy regarding processes that continuously improve operations and involve all employees

A

Kaizen

92
Q

The 5 Principles of Kaizen are:

A 
Know your customer
Let it flow
Go to gemba- value is created where things actually happen so you should follow the action (gemba refers to workplace)
Empower people
Be transparent
93
Q

The Kaizen change model has 4 pillars:

A

Daily Kaizen- change Gemba behaviors and culture
Breakthrough Kaizen- to implement new paradigms and processes
Leaders Kaizen- to build long term capability with steering and infrastructure

94
Q

The FADE QI model stands for:

A

Focus
Analyze
Develop
Execute

the FADE QI was established to improve health care quality

95
Q

Under the FADE QI model, there are 4 key aspects to effective quality improvement initiatives which are:

A

Considered both systems and processes
Focuses on the patients
Focuses on being part of the team
Focuses on the use of data

96
Q

The ______________ is an individualized model that can be used as a manager to engage the team with the change

A

RUMBA model

97
Q

RUMBA stands for:

A 
Reasonable
Understandable
Measurable
Believable
Achievable
98
Q

_________ is a systematic approach to eliminate activities that don’t add value to a process with the goal of high quality and customer satisfaction

A

Lean

99
Q

5 Principles of Lean:

A 
Identify your customers and what they value 
Map the value stream
Create flow to the customer
Establish pull based on customer demand 
Seek continuous improvement
100
Q

_____________ measures compliance against certain necessary standards, typically focusing on individuals

A

Quality assurance

101
Q

The ____________ is a planning process used to arrive at a group opinion or decision by surveying a panel of experts

A

Delphi method

Experts respond to several rounds of questionnaires and the responses are aggregated and shared with the group after each round

102
Q

_________________ is a planning process in which structured small groups are used to reach a consensus. The moderator presents a question of interest, each group member writes down their idea separately, and then everyone shares their idea. The group discusses each idea, revises them, and votes for the best one.

A

Delbecq’s nominal group techniquen

103
Q

_____________ is a collaborative planning process that harnesses the talent of all invested parties

A

Charrette

104
Q

In _____________ the goal is to create an effective process using a problem solving methodology that uses data and the DMAIC framework

A

Six sigma

105
Q

What does DMAIC stand for?

A 
Define
Measure 
Analyze
Improve 
Control

Used during planning processes

106
Q

A ___________ budget is prepared by upper management and given to operating units

A

top down

107
Q

______________ is a type of top down budget where the company sets targets or outputs and then determines the activities necessary to meet the target and the cost of carrying out those activities

A

Activity Based Budgeting

108
Q

When using a _______________ each unit prepares a budget that is then sent to upper management

A

Bottom up budget

109
Q

In a _______________ you start with the previous year’s budget and adjust for current conidiions

A

Baseline budget

110
Q

In a _______________ you determine the cost, outlay, and inflows without a baseline budget

A

zero based budget

The manager has to justify every expensive with nothing automatically approved
May eliminate unnecessary expenditures but can be very time consuming

111
Q

A _______________ does not change based off of business variations

A

Fixed budget aka status budget

112
Q

A _______________ changes with business activity because the budget is contracted with a rate per unit activity rather than a fixed amount

A

Flexible budget

Used for measuring efficiency- if

113
Q

An _______________ uses existing budget numbers as a base and adds incremental amounts relative to the current budget

A

incremental budget

one of the most common budgeting methods due to simplicity

114
Q

_________________ is a budget building mindset

A

Value proposition budgeting

115
Q

______________ use numbers from a company’s financial system to describe the financial state of the company

A

finance rations

116
Q

Assets to liabilities ratio

A

The percentage of assets divided by the debt

117
Q

Debt equity ratio

A

the percentage of assets funded by shareholder’s equity and debt

118
Q

Inventory turn over rate

A

Assess if there is efficient use of assets

119
Q

Probability ratio

A

Ability to generate excess income relative to sales

120
Q

Solvency ratio

A

Ability to meet long term debts

121
Q

Liquidity ratio

A

Ability to meet short term debts

122
Q

Activity ratio

A

Ability to transfer non-cash assets to cash assets

123
Q

Current ratio

A

Divide the current assets by the current liabilities

Represents an organization’s ability to meet current financial obligations

124
Q

A current ratio of _______ indicates an ability to pay bills when bills are due and over the next 12 months

A

> 1

125
Q

_______________ is the money owed to the company that will be fulfilled shortly such as pending card payments

A

Accounts receivable

126
Q

The _________________ is the total depreciation of an asset up to a given date, subtracted from the original cost at time of purchase

A

accumulated depreciation

127
Q

_______________ include an organization’s accounts payable and accrued expenses that must be paid within 12 months

A

Current liabilities

128
Q

______________ is the monetary value of property beyond debts, including retained earnings

A

Owner’s equity

129
Q

_______________ is the income set aside by the company instead of being distributed to shareholders

A

Retained earnings

130
Q

_______________ is the total sales minus the cost of goods sold

A

Gross profit

131
Q

A _______________ estimates the total monetary value of benefits that will be derived from a project and compares that value to the cost of the project

A

cost benefit analysis

helps decide if a planned project is financially worthwhile

132
Q

A ______________ is the systematic assessment of every feature of a product to ensure its cost is no greater than is require to achieve its function

A

value analysis

133
Q

The five factors that affect the quality of a product are:

A 
Money
Materials
Management
People
Market
134
Q

______________ is when a business adds something extra to a generic product that gives a greater perception of the value

A

Value added

ex is pre-cut product at the grocery store

135
Q

The _______________ is when expenses and revenue are equal

A

Break even point

136
Q

Total costs includes two types of costs, which are:

A

fixed costs

variable costs

137
Q

______________ are the same over a period of time and aren’t relevant to output decisions

A

Fixed cost

ex. rent. equipment, insurance

138
Q

_______________ vary with output and typically increase at a constant rate relative to labor costs and capital

A

Variable costs

139
Q

Formula to determine the break even point

A
140
Q

There are 4 broad ways to segment the market, which are:

A

Geographic- physical location
Psychographic- personality, interests, beliefs
Behavioristic- consumer behavior towards products
Demographic- age, sex, race, ethnicity, income, education, and occupation

141
Q

_____________________ describe how psychographic traits and demographics drive consume behavior

A

Values and Lifestyles (VALS) Segments of American Adult Consumers

142
Q

Primary motivators

A

ideals, achievement, and self expression

143
Q

Resources

A

income, energy, self-confidence, intellectualism. novelty seeking, innovativeness, impulsiveness, leadership and vanity

144
Q

8 VALS

A 
Innovators
Survivors
Makers
Experiencers
Strivers
Achievers
Believers
Thinkers
145
Q

_______________ have high income and high self esteem, are successful and sophisticated, and take charge

A

Innovators

146
Q

___________ live narrowly focused lives, believe the world is changing too quickly as they have few resources with which to cope. Are comfortable with the familiar and concerned with safety and security

A

Survivors

147
Q

______________ have lower income, focus on self-sufficiency and family, express themselves and experience the world by working on it, have the skills and energy to carry out their projects

A

Makers

148
Q

______________ are young and impulsive, seek variety, excitement, and risky activities

A

Experiencers

149
Q

_____________ are trendy, fun-loving, motivated by achievement and concerned about the opinions and approvals of others

A

Strivers

Define their success by money

150
Q

___________ are successful individuals, typically have high income, are motivated by a desire for achievement, have goal oriented lifestyles, and have a deep commitment to career and family

A

Achievers

151
Q

____________ are motivated by ideals, are conservative and conventional, and have concrete beliefs based on traditional codes

A

Believers

152
Q

___________ are motivated by ideals, are mature, satisfied, comfortable, and reflective. They value order, knowledge, and responsibility

A

Thinkers

153
Q

________________ is the process by which an impartial organization reviews a company’s operation to ensure the company conducts business in a manner consistent with national standards

A

Accreditation

154
Q

________________ is an independent non-profit organization that accredits and certifies hospitals, home care organizations, rehabilitation centers, longer term and nursing facilities, behavioral health organizations, addiction treatment and recovery programs, ambulatory care providers, clinical laboratories

A

The Joint Commission

155
Q

Hospital accrediting agencies must acquire _____________ from the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) per the Social Security

A

deeming status

156
Q

Standards by the Joint Commission ___________ the stands of the CMS Conditions of Participation

A

CoPs

157
Q

______________ is a corporation that has deeming authority for hospitals in the US since 2008.

A

DNVGL Healthcare

Accreditation requirements related to the CMS CoPs with a focus on continuous improvement processes

158
Q

_____________________ is a non-profit established in 1990 to improve healthcare through evidence based methods and identifying organizations that are run in ways which improve care

A

The National Committee for Quality Assurance

159
Q

The National Committee for Quality Assurance measures the quality of medical providers using ________________

A

Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Sets (HEDIS)

160
Q

If a hospital is accredited by an organization with deeming authority it is also certified by _________. because it has met or exceeded those standards

A

CMS

161
Q

The ACA created a new division in CMS called the _____________ to develop and test Alternative Payment Models (APMs)

A

Center for Medicare and Medicaid Innovation

162
Q

_______________ is one of the first APMs and is a group of healthcare professionals and/or hospitals who come together to coordinate high quality care to Medicare patients

A

Accountable Care Organizations

The goals is to prevent medical errors and avoid unnecessary health care duplication

163
Q

Figureheads, leaders, and liaisons can be classified as ______________ managerial role which results form a manager’s authority and status

A

Interpersonal

164
Q

Monitors, disseminators, and spokespersons can be classified as ______________ managerial role which characterize the manager as the central focus for receiving and sending non-routine information

A

Informational

165
Q

Entrepreneurs/initiators, disturbance handlers, resource allocators, and negotiators can be classified as ______________ managerial role

A

decisional

CDR Exam Domain 3 (1 decks)

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