Full Study Deck Flashcards
Which of the following defines job-related competencies?
a) Employee job-related assessments
b) Job-related knowledge, skills, and abilities
c) Job-related performance criteria
d) Job-related responsibilities
The answer is: b. Job-related knowledge, skills, and abilities
A bargaining style that engages an adversarial approach is known as:
a) Integrative bargaining
b) Distributive bargaining
c) Mutual gains bargaining
d) Interest-based bargaining
The answer is: b. Distributive bargaining
Distributive Bargaining or Positional Bargaining
- Adversarial.
- Focuses on one’s position.
- Two parties compete over the distribution of fixedresources.
- Both sides strive for maximum personal gain at theexpense of the other, resulting in a zero sum game.
- Assumes inherent conflict of interest betweenmanagement and the union.
- Can result in win lose outcomes.
- Control over communication is critical.
- One spokesperson for each party.
Interest Based, Integrative, or Mutual Gains Bargaining
- Collaborative Positive sum Game.
- Focus is on each other’s interests.
- Results in win win outcomes.
- Sharing of information is key to the process.
- Willingness to share information can be a test ofcommitment to this joint problem solving approach.
- Issues are often resolved through a joint committeestructure.
- Many voices and an array of possible solutionscharacterize this process
On which class of fire should dry powder be used to extinguish?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Answer D
Class A Fires
involve common combustibles such as wood, paper, cloth, rubber, trash and plastics.
Class B Fires
involve flammable liquids, solvents, oil, gasoline, paints, lacquers and other oil-based products.
Class C Fires
involve energized electrical equipment such as wiring, controls, motors, machinery, or appliances.
Class D Fires
involve combustible metals such as magnesium, lithium and titanium.
Class K Fires
involve combustible cooking media such as oils and grease commonly found in commercial kitchens
At what stage in the Instructional Systems Design Process would the unit quizzes of a training program be developed?
a) Needs analysis stage
b) Evaluation stage
c) Delivery stage
d) Design stage
The answer is: d. Design stage
ADDIE (Analyze, Design, Develop, Implement, Evaluate):
Analyze (Needs Analysis) Phase: Defines the need, solutions to performance gap,type of training required, audience, learning objectives, criteria for evaluation
Design and Development Phase: The design phase deals with training objectives, content, methods of delivery, and learning principles.
Implement: The instructor’s blueprint or roadmap
Evaluation: Summative or formative evaluation
What process is used to rethink and radically redesign the way in which work is performed?
a) Six Sigma
b) Re-engineering
c) Job analysis
d) Restructuring
The answer is b. Re-engineering
Functional Area: OE
What type of career plateau can occur when an employee has learned a job completely and is bored with their day-to-day activities?
a) Structural
b) Job
c) Content
d) Motivation
The answer is c. Content
A career plateau is a situation in which, for either organizational or personal reasons, the probability of moving up the career ladder is low. There are three types of plateaus: structural, content, and life.
A structural plateau marks the end of promotions.
A content plateau occurs when a person has learned a job too well and is bored with day-to-day activities.
A life plateau is more profound and may feel like a midlife crisis. People who experience life plateaus often have allowed work or some other major factor to become the most significant aspect of their lives, and they experience a loss of identity and self-esteem when they are no longer advancing in their careers.
Functional Area: WP&TM
What union security clause requires a candidate to be a member of the union before being hired?
a) Union Shop
b) Closed Shop
c) Agency Shop
d) Restricted Shop
The correct answer is b. Closed Shop
An example of a closed shop security clause is the requirement of an electrician to be a member of the electrician’s union before he or she can be employed at a construction site that employs only union members.
Which of the following statements is true about a broadband base pay structure?
a) It is most appropriate for unionized environments.
b) It is less flexible than a standard pay structure.
c) It has fewer pay bands than a standard pay structure.
d) It results in a higher incidence of promotions.
The answer is: c. It has fewer pay bands than a standard pay structure.
A broadbanding pay structure uses a small number of large salary pay ranges, instead of many different pay grades within an organization. broadband is to reduce salary ranges within a certain level but introduce broader pay ranges within a job level or family.
Functional Area: TR
What process is used in organizations for reinforcing the organization’s values, goals, and priorities?
a) Orientation process
b) On-boarding process
c) Performance management process
d) Socialization process
The answer is: d. Socialization process
Keeping Employees =
Socialization - Ongoing process of reinforcing the organization’s values, goals and priorities
On-boarding - Helping new employees fit in to the organization’s culture
Orientation - Providing standard information about who,what and where
When assessing HR practices, measuring horizontal fit will ensure:
a) Alignment with the organization’s strategic plan
b) Alignment between HR programs
c) Alignment with other departments’ priorities
d) Alignment with employee value proposition
The answer is: b. Alignment between HR programs
What are the four designated groups protected in Canada under the Employment Equity Act?
Women
Aboriginal people
Visible minorities
People with disabilities
HR professionals are responsible for:
a) Serving the interests of their employers
b) Serving the interests of their employees
c) Serving the interests of their profession
d) Serving the the interests of multiple stakeholders
The correct answer is: d.Serving the the interests of multiple stakeholders
One of the challenges HR professionals face is balancing the interests of both their organization and its employees, while also building productive relationships with other external stakeholders.
Which of the following is true of compensation market pricing?
a) Market pricing addresses internal equity.
b) Market pricing links pay to company strategy.
c) Market pricing is not suitable for unique jobs.
d) Market pricing reduces the gender pay gap.
The answer is c. Market pricing is not suitable for unique jobs.
Functional Area: TR
Which of the following statements is FALSE about compa-ratio?
a) Compa-ratio will go up if an early retirement program for long-term employees is introduced.
b) Compa-ratio will go up if a downsizing is done by reverse seniority.
c) Compa-ratio will go down with the hiring of many new grads.
d) Compa-ratios less than 1 are acceptable.
The answer is:
a. Compa-ratio will go up if an early retirement program for long-term employees is introduced.
Functional Area: TR
If you wanted to measure gross noise levels in decibels, what meter would you use?
a) Sound pressure level meter
b) Octave band analyzer
c) Dosimeter
d) Audiometer
The answer is:a. Sound pressure level meter
Equipment used to measure noise conditions:
- Sound Pressure Level Meter – measure gross noise levels in decibels
- Octave Band Analyser – measures noise frequency range
- Dosimeter – measure employee exposure as a percentage of work time
- Audiometer – measures employee hearing sensitivity
Which of the following represents the correlation between training and productivity?
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 75%
d) 1:2
The answer is b. 0.5
Functional Area: HRMR&FM
When is it acceptable to discriminate against a protected group outlined in provincial human rights legislation?
a) When customer preferences justify it.
b) When a Canadian operation is American owned and the American law is different.
c) When hiring the protected individual would disrupt the workplace.
d) When a physical characteristic is required to ensure a safe work environment
The correct answer is d.
Discrimination is illegal unless there is a Bona Fide Occupational Qualification (BFOQ) that is essential to perform the job particularly if safety is a concern. For example, an organization would not hire a blind pilot.
Which of the following is the simplest job evaluation process?
a) Factor comparison method
b) Ranking method
c) Classification method
d) Point factor method
The answer is: b. Ranking method
Non-Quantitative Methods
- Ranking: Raters examine job descriptions and arrange jobs according to their value to the company.
- Job Classification / Grading: Generic job descriptions are used to anchor a job-grading structure against which all jobs are compared.
Quantitative Methods
- Factor Comparison: Dollar values are assigned to job “factors” and added to determine the job’s worth in dollars.
- Point-Factor: Numerical values (points) are assigned to job “factors’ and added to determine the job’s worth in points.
What is the term for a worker’s role being expanded to include additional responsibilities over which they have some decision-making power?
a) Job enlargement
b) Job expansion
c) Job enrichment
d) Job extension
The answer is c. Job enrichment
Key word from the question is “decision-making power”
JOB ENRICHMENT
- Task Identity – doing the whole job
- Task Significance – social value
- Skill Variety – utilizing many skills
- Job Autonomy – freedom to act
- Job Feedback – self monitoring
Functional Area: OE
The job analysis approach that focuses on job responsibilities and the processes for carrying out the work is called:
a) Functional job analysis
b) Competency-based job analysis
c) Critical Incident job analysis
d) Task inventory job analysis
The correct answer is a.
Functional job analysis focuses on the following components: who performs what; with what tools, equipment or processes; to achieve what outcome.
Competency-based job analysis means describing the job in terms of the measurable, observable, behavioral competencies (Knowledge, skills and/or behaviors) that an employee doing that job must exhibit to do the job well.
Critical Incidents Technique of job analysis is the recording of behaviours by the worker that are specific to successful or unsuccessful job performance.
A task inventory is a job analysis approach. Hiring managers or human resource managers create an initial itemized list of all of the tasks, or specific activities, that make up the performance of a specific job at a particular organization.
A team that sets their own priorities, solves problems, and receives strategic direction from a manager is a:
a) Self-managing team
b) Self-designing team
c) Employee involvement team
d) Semi-autonomous team
The answer is: d. Semi-autonomous team
Types of teams:
Traditional work groups – execute tasks
Employee involvement teams – make suggestions
Semi-autonomous work groups – make decisions and solve problems concerning work processes
Self-managing teams – make decisions and solve problems concerning work production
Self-designing teams – self-managing teams that also control team design and membership
Cross-functional teams – involve employees from different functional areas within the organization
Project teams – involve employees in completing a specific project
Virtual teams – involve employees from different geographies or who rarely meet face to face
Which of the following is a design consideration when designing profit-sharing plans?
a) Establishing the share price
b) Establishing the vesting period
c) The size of base pay reductions needed to fund the pool
d) Employee eligibility
The answer is: d. Employee eligibility
What would a power failure that causes an accident be classified as?
a) A situational factor.
b) A human factor.
c) An environmental factor.
d) A chance occurrence.
The answer is a. A situational factor.
Situational Factors (also known as External Factors) are influences that do not occur from within the individual but from elsewhere like the environment and others around you.
Environmental factors include temperature, food, pollutants, population density, sound, light, and parasites.
Functional Area: HW&SW
Which of the following statements about flexible benefit plans is true?
a) They cost less to provide than standard plans.
b) Employee choices are limited by a budget or point allocation.
c) Employees do not understand the plan as well as they do a standard plan.
d) Their psychological value is lower than that of standard plans.
The answer is b. Employee choices are limited by a budget or point allocation.
Flexible benefit plans (also called cafeteria plans) offer employees multiple choices of benefits that are paid for by salary contributions on a pretax basis. These plans give employees a choice of which benefits they would prefer to take, and they also give employees the choice to forgo the benefit and take a cash option instead.
A fixed benefit health plan is one where a fixed amount of funds (the sum insured) is paid out to cover expenses for a predetermined illness or condition that has been insured. The fixed benefit plan can be used as a supplement to a regular health insurance plan that provides an additional source of funds during a pre-insured health incident
Functional Area: TR
What is a Class B fire?
A. A fire that involves combustible metals
B. A fire that involves ordinary combustibles as well as wiring or electrical appliances
C. A fire that involves ordinary combustible liquids, flammable gases, greases, and similar materials such as gas, oil, paint or propane gases
D. None of the above
Answer: (C) A fire that involves ordinary combustible liquids, flammable gases, greases, and similar materials such as gas, oil, paint or propane gases
Class A Fires
involve common combustibles such as wood, paper, cloth, rubber, trash and plastics.
Class B Fires
involve flammable liquids, solvents, oil, gasoline, paints, lacquers and other oil-based products.
Class C Fires
involve energized electrical equipment such as wiring, controls, motors, machinery, or appliances.
Class D Fires
involve combustible metals such as magnesium, lithium and titanium.
Class K Fires
involve combustible cooking media such as oils and grease commonly found in commercial kitchens
Which of the following statements about unionization is false?
a) Organizations can decertify their union if the union has violated the collective agreement.
b) Organizations must not intimidate employees who are union supporters.
c) Labour Relations Boards oversee the certification process.
d) Employees unionize in order to have a collective voice.
The correct answer is a.
Organization’s can not decertify a union. Only employees can decertify the union that is representing them, and their organization must in no way be involved in that process.
The first step in the preparation of delivering a training program is:
a) Choosing the trainer
b) Scheduling the training program
c) Developing a lesson plan
d) Determining the equipment required
The answer is: c. Developing a lesson plan
The policy to remove a reprimand from an employee file after six months as a result of good behaviour is an example of:
a) Positive reinforcement
b) Negative reinforcement
c) Extinction
d) Natural justice
The correct answer is b.
Negative reinforcement occurs when negative outcomes are removed as a result of positive behaviour. Another example would be if a supervisor stopped nagging an employee when he/she met deadlines.
What labour relations strategy will counteract the chilling effect?
a) Final offer arbitration
b) Expedited grievance hearings
c) Distributive bargaining
d) Open-door policy
The answer is a. Final offer arbitration
Chilling Effect = In a legal context, a chilling effect is the inhibition or discouragement of the legitimate exercise of natural and legal rights by the threat of legal sanction.
Functional Area: L&ER
Which of the following is part of the management by objectives approach to performance management?
a) Assessing competency achievement.
b) Using critical incidents to define performance expectations.
c) Establishing SMART goals.
d) Developing behaviourally anchored rating scales.
The answer is c. Establishing SMART goals.
- The objectives should be quantifiable and measurable and accompanied by a description of how they will be accomplished.
- The results that are expected must be under the employee’s control. Managers must be willing to empower employees to accomplish their goals on their own, giving them discretion over the methods they use (but holding them accountable for the outcomes).
- The firm’s goals and objectives must be consistent, or aligned, with the goals of employees at all levels, including a firm’s top managers.
- Time frames for when the goals are to be reviewed and evaluated need to be established.
Functional Area: WP&TM
What type of performance management method would be used for management by objectives?
a) Behavioural
b) Trait
c) BARS
d) Results
The answer is d. Results method
Trait Method
- Graphic Rating Scales – uses ratings like poor, good, excellent or does not meet, meets, exceeds. It’s a linear skill with tick boxes.
- Mixed-Standard Scales – descriptive rating definitions are customized and randomized for each trait, describing multiple levels of performance. Managers indicate whether the employee’s performance is less than, the same as, or more than described.
- Forced-Choice Method – the manager chooses between two statements that best describe trait.
- Essay Method – open-ended comments.
Behavioural Methods
• Critical Incident Method – describes the incidents that define successful and unsuccessful behaviour.
- Behavioural Checklist Method – includes a list of desired behaviours/competencies.
- Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) – multilevel performance descriptions are created for each competency/behaviour.
- Behaviour Observation Scale (BOS) – uses a frequency scale against a behavioural checklist.
Results Methods
• Productivity Measures – number of units produced, positions filled, candidates interviewed, etc.
• Management by Objectives – the achievement of preestablished
goals.
• S - Specific
• M - Measurable
• A - Achievable
• R - Relevant
• T - Timely
• Balanced Scorecard – a blend of financial, customer, process and learning targets.
The direct employer-employee relationship is referred to as:
a) Employee relations
b) Labour relations
c) Industrial Relations
d) Employee-management relations
The correct answer is a. - Employee relations
Essentially, employee relations is a two person relationship between employee and employer. The focus is on how to effectively manage and strengthen this relationship. Industrial Relations on the other hand, is a three person relationship between the organisation, the union and the workforce that the union represents.
Labor relations are relations between the union(s) and the company. Employee relations are relations between the employer (management) and the employees.
When a training program includes repetitive exercises with a goal to reinforce automatic behaviour, this is referred to as:
a) An overlearning strategy
b) A massed practice strategy
c) A whole learning strategy
d) A distributed practice strategy
The correct answer is a. An overlearning strategy
Overlearning is particularly desirable when it is important for employees to react quickly without even thinking. For example, this is desired when responding to a machinery malfunction where safety is at risk.
Which of the following describes a cognitive conflict within a team?
a) The overlap of responsiblities between team members
b) Lack of trust between individuals
c) The perception that one member has taken over the group
d) A disagreement about the interpretation of a policy
The correct answer is d. A disagreement about the interpretation of a policy
Cognitive conflict focuses on issue-related differences, whereas affective conflict focuses on differences of a personal nature that undermines trust and respect.
What is the purpose of creating a chart that consists of individuals who have the competencies required to fill senior management positions?
a) Training needs analysis
b) Succession planning
c) Job rotation program
d) Executive mentoring program
The answer is: b. Succession planning
Which of the following contributes directly to an organization’s bottom line?
a) Line function
b) Staff function
c) Support function
d) Overhead function
The answer is a. Line function
Functional Area: OE
Which of the following would be considered a violation of professional standards?
a) Collect interest on unpaid consulting fees
b) Represent more than one side of a dispute
c) Refuse services to a client wishing to engage in unethical practices
d) Refrain from intervening in the personal matters of employers or clients
The answer is: b. Represent more than one side of a dispute
What are the 3 basic occupational health and safety rights of all employees?
a) The right to know, the right to participate, and the right to refuse unsafe work.
b) The right to training, the right to safe conditions, and the right to personal protective equipment.
c) The right to know, the right to communicate, and the right to question unsafe conditions.
d) The right to safety policies, the right to participate, and the right to established procedures.
The answer is a. The right to know, the right to participate, and the right to refuse unsafe work.
Functional Area: HW&SW
A job applicant applied twice to the same organization. The first time, the applicant did very poorly on the selection test, but then scored very high 4 weeks later. What can be concluded about the selection test?
a) It has low validity.
b) It has low reliability.
c) It has range restriction.
d) It has test-retest bias
The answer is b. It has low reliability.
Functional Area: HRMR&FM
Validity ensures the measure is accurately assessing what it is supposed to measure
Reliability ensures the consistency of the measure
Which of the following does NOT necessarily require an internet or intranet connection?
a) Employee portals
b) Cloud computing
c) Social media
d) HRIS
The answer is: d. HRIS
If employees are picketing, what dispute resolution process is the employer undertaking?
a) Interest arbitration
b) Rights arbitration
c) Policy grievance arbitration
d) Expedited arbitration
The answer is a. Interest arbitration
Interest arbitration is a mechanism used to resolve disputes in the collective bargaining process. In binding interest arbitration, disputing parties agree in advance to accept the terms of a deal as decided by a neutral third party
Rights arbitration decides a dispute over the interpretation of a provision in a collective agreement, or if there is an allegation by one party that the other has violated the terms of the agreement. The arbitrator’s decision in both interest and rights arbitration is binding on both parties.
Expedited arbitrations are fixed fee arbitrations with strict time frames and limitations on number of documents, length of briefs and time for the hearing. The process takes less than 90 days from the appointment of the arbitrator to the issuance of the award, and there is only one hearing day.
Functional Area: L&ER
The quantitative plan that distributes funds to various functional areas is referred to as:
a) A balance sheet
b) A critical path
c) A budget
d) A cash flow statement
The answer is: c. A budget
A balance sheet is: Assets=Liabilities + Shareholders’ Equity
A cash flow statement is a financial statement that provides aggregate data regarding all cash inflows a company receives from its ongoing operations and external investment sources.
A critical path method (CPM), or critical path analysis (CPA), is an algorithm for scheduling a set of project activities. It is commonly used in conjunction with the program evaluation and review technique (PERT).
A critical path is determined by identifying the longest stretch of dependent activities and measuring the time required to complete them from start to finish.
Which of the following is true of conciliation?
a) It results in an enforceable resolution.
b) It is a form of arbitration.
c) It is a non-binding voluntary process.
d) It is required before a Step 4 grievance can be settled.
The answer is c. It is a non-binding voluntary process.
Conciliation = Mediation = non binding and does not always result in a settlement.
Functional Area: L&ER
When is the four-fifths rule applied?
a) When measuring adverse impact in employment selection rates.
b) When assessing annual employee attendance rates.
c) When measuring forced distribution ratings in performance evaluations.
d) When counting employee votes during a union certification process.
The answer is a. When measuring adverse impact in employment selection rates.
Functional Area: HRMR&FM
Which of the following is an example of a risk transfer strategy?
a) Ensuring compliance with safety standards.
b) Discontinuing a discriminatory bonus program.
c) Providing health benefits through an insurer.
d) Providing risk management training for managers.
The answer is c. Providing health benefits through an insurer.
• Avoidance=Stop providing the service or doing the activity.
• Acceptance=An organization will choose to accept the risks.
• Modification=Change the activity to reduce the likelihood of the risk
occurring or to reduce the severity of the consequences.
• Transfer or Sharing=Transfer the risk to another organization through
signing a contractual agreement.
Functional Area: PP
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an Adult Learner?
A. Adult learners need to understand why they are learning something.
B. Adult learners learn best in voluntary learning environments.
C. Adult learners tend to require little to no self direction in order to excel within the learning environment.
D. Prefer task oriented, life experience oriented learning.
Answer: (C) Adult learners tend to require little to no self direction in order to excel within the learning environment.
In order for Adult Learners to excel within a learning environment they require self direction.
What do you mean by ‘adult learning principles’?
Knowles identified the six principles of adult learning outlined below.
- Adults are internally motivated and self-directed
- Adults bring life experiences and knowledge to learning experiences
- Adults are goal oriented
- Adults are relevancy oriented
- Adults are practical
- Adult learners like to be respected
In labour relations, the purpose of an authorization card is to:
a) Approve the deduction of union dues from employee wages
b) Indicate an employee’s willingness to be represented by the union
c) File a grievance against management by a union member
d) Vote in a secret ballot for or against a renewed collective agreement
The answer is: b. Indicate an employee’s willingness to be represented by the union
When making HR decisions, HR professionals must apply which of the following approaches?
a) Evidence-based Approach
b) Outcome Popularity Approach
c) Collegial Approach
d) Timeliness Approach
The answer is a. Evidence-based Approach
Functional Area: PP
What is Discretionary Effort?
Motivation + Satisfaction + Commitment to the Organization
Which of the following interview methods is used to assess a managerial applicant’s problem solving skills?
a) Situational Interview
b) Case-based Interviews
c) Stress Interviews
d) Serial Interviews
The correct answer is b.
Business cases that present challenging situations are used to assess problem solving and analytical skills.
Which of the following is not a mechanism for identifying hazards?
a) Task inventory
b) Safety sampling
c) Risk assessment
d) Walk-through survey
The answer is: c. Risk assessment
Methods for identifying hazards include:
- Walk-through surveys
- Safety sampling
- Task and job inventories
- Historical safety records
- Incident investigations
- Safety audits
- Employee complaints
Which of the following is a metric of HR program effectiveness?
a) Employee engagement survey results.
b) Number of open positions in a business unit.
c) Average cost per hire.
d) Number of positions filled per month.
The answer is a. Employee engagement survey results.
Functional Area: HRMR&FM
Which of the following is the cornerstone of equity legislation?
a) Human Rights Codes/Acts
b) Pay Equity Act
c) Employment Equity Act
d) Charter of Rights and Freedoms
The answer is: d. Charter of Rights and Freedoms
The Human Rights Code is a statute in the Canadian province of Ontario that guarantees equality before the law and prohibits discrimination in specific social areas such as housing or employment. The Code’s goal specifically prohibits discrimination based on race , colour , gender identity or expression , sex , sexual orientation , disability , creed , age and other grounds.
Ontario’s Pay Equity Act:“pay equity” requires an assessment of all jobs in an organization and an unbiased comparison of the work done by women to the work done by men in order to determine whether the women are being compensated equitably.
The Employment Equity Act requires federal jurisdiction employers to engage in proactive employment practices to increase the representation of four designated groups: women, people with disabilities, Aboriginal peoples, and visible minorities. The act requires that employers remove barriers to employment that disadvantage members of the four designated groups. The term reasonable accommodation is often used for the removal of such barriers to employment. Examples of employment barriers are wheelchair inaccessible buildings, or practices that make members of a designated group uncomfortable. Employers are also required to institute positive policies for the hiring, training, retention, and promotion of members of the designated groups.
The Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms guarantees the rights and freedoms set out in it subject only to such reasonable limits prescribed by law as can be demonstrably justified in a free and democratic society. These freedoms include: fundamental, democratic, mobility, legal, equality.
The Employment Standards Act, 2000 ( ESA) provides the minimum standards for most employees working in Ontario. It sets out the rights and responsibilities of employees and employers in most Ontario workplaces.
Which of the following is NOT a key performance category in a balanced scorecard?
a) Financial
b) Customer
c) Key Stakeholder
d) Process
The answer is: c. Key Stakeholder
Balanced Scorecard – a blend of financial, customer, process and learning targets.
Functional Area: WP&TM
Why would an organization’s overall average compa ratio be below 1?
a) The organization is underpaying its employees.
b) The organization’s employee compensation is not competitive.
c) The organization has many new employees.
d) The organization’s pay ranges are narrow.
The answer is c. The organization has many new employees.
A compa-ratio divides an individual’s pay rate by the midpoint of a predetermined salary range. A compa-ratio of 1.0 means that the employee is paid at the exact midpoint of the range, whereas values higher or lower than 1.0 indicate how they are paid relative to the midpoint.
Functional Area: TR
Which of the following is not one of the factors that defines ‘employee engagement’?
a) Empowerment
b) Motivation
c) Satisfaction
d) Commitment
The correct answer is a. Empowerment
Engagement is an intrinsic motivation. Engaged employees are motivated to do their best, have high levels of job satisfaction, and are committed to an organization.
Empowerment may contribute to employees being engaged, but it does not define the intrinsic state of engagement.
Assigning a group of emerging managers a supply chain problem to solve is an example of what type of development activity?
a) Succession planning
b) Case study method
c) Action learning
d) Organizational learning
The answer is c. Action learning
Functional Area: L&D
What is the term for a collection of tables that allows connections between the information in each table?
a) Relational database
b) Hierarchical database
c) Networked database
d) Central server database
The answer is a. Relational database
A relational database is a type of database that stores and provides access to data points that are related to one another. Relational databases are based on the relational model, an intuitive, straightforward way of representing data in tables.
A hierarchical database model is a data model in which the data are organized into a tree-like structure. The data are stored as records which are connected to one another through links.
A network database is a type of database model wherein multiple member records or files can be linked to multiple owner files and vice versa. The model can be viewed as an upside-down tree where each member information is the branch linked to the owner, which is the bottom of the tree.
A centralized database (sometimes abbreviated CDB) is a database that is located, stored, and maintained in a single location.
Functional Area: HRMR&FM
Which of the following is an example of “indirect pay”?
a) Progression adjustment
b) Merit adjustment
c) Base Pay
d) Vacation pay
The answer is: d. Vacation pay
Monetary Rewards / Direct Pay
- Base Pay
- Performance Pay
- Merit pay
- Short-term Incentives
- Long-term Incentives
Indirect Pay
- Health & Welfare Benefits
- Retirement Plans
- Time off with Pay (vacation)
- Perquisites & Employee Services (e.g., cars, clubs, education reimbursement)
- Working Conditions
- Supervisor Behaviour
- Co-workers
Functional Area: TR
When a training program is said to have “horizontal transfer,” this means that:
a) The training can be applied to new and different situations.
b) The training can be applied in different settings.
c) The training has impacted the performance of the organization.
d) Employees who did not attend the training are able to learn from those who did.
The correct answer is b. The training can be applied in different settings.
The transfer of training refers to the ability of the participant to apply the learning outside the classroom. Three types of trainng transfer include far transfer, horizontal transfer, and vertical transfer.
What is constructive dismissal?
a) Employee termination with cause
b) Just cause dismissal
c) A fundamental breach of the employment contract by the employer
d) A temporary layoff of a group of employees
The answer is: c. A fundamental breach of the employment contract by the employer
A constructive dismissal in Ontario is defined as follows: if an employer makes a substantial change to the terms of an employee’s employment without the employee’s consent or demonstrates an intention to no longer be bound by the terms of the employment contract the employee has the option of treating his or her employment as having been terminated
Which of the following types of interview question tests for a candidate’s ability to make appropriate decisions under tight deadlines?
a) Stress-based question
b) Situational-based question
c) Knowledge-based question
d) Factual-based question
The answer is: b. Situational-based question
The main difference between behavioral and situational interview questions is that behavioral questions are focused on the past and situational questions are focused on the future.
Situational interviews = allows interviewers to get their subjects away from canned generalities and prepackaged answers, forcing job candidates to offer specific examples of how they used job-related skills to solve real-life problems in the past.
Behavioural interviews = In a behavioral interview, job candidates are asked to provide examples of how they’ve handled work-related situations.
Case-based interviews = A case interview is part of the job interview process in consulting in which you as the candidate have to analyze and solve a problematic business scenario while interacting with the interviewer.
Stress interviews = Stress interview questions rarely have a right answer. The interviewer is not looking for a polished response, they are looking at how you deal with the pressure of the question. Demonstrate your problem-solving skills by providing detail on how you would or have approached a situation, instead of searching for what you think they want to hear.
**Structured interviews better than unstructured interviews.
Which of the following is false about salary survey data?
a) The median is the salary value where 50% of companies fall below and above.
b) The salary at the 75th percentile of the marketplace is 25% higher than the salary at the 50th percentile.
c) The mean competitive salary can be skewed by unusually high or low data.
d) The weighted average market salary considers the number of employees within each company.
The correct answer is b.
The 75th percentile is the value under which 75% of companies pay. The 50th percentile is the value under with 50% of the companies pay.
They could be 10% apart, 5% apart, or any percentage value apart - it will depend on the value paid at the 75th and 50th percentile.
What shows the relationship between target pay and the pay structure?
a) Pay Bands
b) Pay Grades
c) Wage Curve
d) Market Compa-ratio
The correct answer is c.
The Wage Curve shows the minimum, target, and maximum rates of pay for successive pay bands or grades.
What type of interview asks all candidates the same job-related questions?
a) Fixed interview
b) Standard interview
c) Structured interview
d) Screening interview
The answer is c. Structured interview
Functional Area: WP&TM
When one is learning about a concept through the delivery of lectures, they are gaining:
a) Declarative knowledge
b) Procedural knowledge
c) Tacit knowledge
d) Experiential knowledge
The correct answer is a.Declarative knowledge
Declarative knowledge focuses on learning facts and informaton, where as the others mentioned include some element of experience.
Anderson’s Adaptive Character of Thought is a general
theory of cognition that distinguishes between three
stages of learning:
- Declarative Knowledge
• The learning of knowledge, facts and information.
• The learner is still resource dependent. - Knowledge Compilation
• Integrating tasks into sequences.
• Learner’s performance may still be fragmented. - Procedural Knowledge
• The task or skill is mastered.
• Performance is automatic.
Having a risk management process enables your organization to do all of the following except:
a) Understand what can go wrong
b) Reduce the liabilities arising from risks that are realized
c) Identify what can be done to prevent risk
d) Reinforce the importance of risk management
The correct answer is: b. Reduce the liabilities arising from risks that are realized
The goal of a risk management program is to reduce or eliminate risk. If a risk was realized, any resulting liability would not be impacted by whether a risk management process was implemented.
Which of the following is not included on the labels required under WHMIS?
a) A product identifier
b) The supplier identity
c) The harmful ingredients
d) Any hazard Symbols
The correct answer is c.
Labels must include a reference to the Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) which include the harmful ingredients and the guidelines for use, storage, disposal, and treatment.
What type of rating scale is used to assess an employees behaviour frequency?
a) Critical Incident Method
b) Behaviour Observation
c) Behavioural Checklist
d) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale
The correct answer is b. Behaviour Observation
A behaviour observation scale (think scale 1-5) includes a behavioural statement and a scale indicating the frequency with which the employee engages in that behaviour (for example, never, sometimes, often, or always).
The critical incident method of performance appraisal involved identifying and describing specific events (or incidents) where the employee did something really well or something that needs improvement
Behavioural Checklist Method (think checklist boxes)– includes a list of desired behaviours/competencies.
Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) (think 1-2 fails, 3-5 meets, 6-7 exceeds) – multilevel performance descriptions are created for each competency/behaviour.
Job analysis is sometimes called the cornerstone of human resources management. Which of the following is not an objective accomplished through job analysis?
A. Assisting managers and employees to develop performance appraisal criteria.
B. Helping corporate trainers design the content of training programs.
C. Facilitating compensation analysts in eliminating wage rate compression.
D. Assisting recruiters to establish the job-relatedness of selection requirements.
Answer: (C) Facilitating compensation analysts in eliminating wage rate compression.
Job analysis and resulting job descriptions and specifications do help HR and the organization perform certain functions and duties more effectively. Above examples include the determination of performance standards, ensuring job selection criteria is job-specific, and developing training programs focused on the requirements of specific jobs. C is not an objective because wage compression is the reduction of pay differences between job classes that must be addressed with compensation policies and decisions, not job analysis.
What are the 8 drivers of Engagement?
MSC = CMS AE RVO
- Clarity of Expectations (Motivation)
- Meaningfulness (Task significance aka Line of Sight) (Motivation)
- Self-Efficacy (Motivation)
- Autonomy (Satisfaction)
- Effective Feedback (Satisfaction)
- Rewarding Relationships (Commitment)
- Values of Organization and Leading (Commitment)
- Opportunity to Grow (Commitment)
Which of the following metrics is not used to assess the success of succession management initiatives?
a) An increased ratio of internal to external hires
b) A reduced number of positions without identified successors
c) The increased retention of key talent
d) The increased attraction of competitor’s high performers
The correct answer is d.
Succession management focuses on the development and retention of internal talent. An increased attraction of a competitor’s high performers would indicate that the organization’s external recruitment program was effective.
Beliefs, symbols, artifacts, and rituals all represent an organization’s:
a) Mood
b) Climate
c) Values
d) Culture
The correct answer is d. Culture
Organization culture represents the norms of an organization that are impacted by organizational values, beliefs, symbols and rituals.
Which of the following statements is false about reinforcement theory?
a) Positive reinforcement increases positive behaviour.
b) Extinction decreases negative behaviour.
c) Negative reinforcement decreases positive behaviour.
d) Punishment decreases negative behaviour.
The answer is: c. Negative reinforcement decreases positive behaviour.
Reinforcement Theory:
Positive Reinforcement
- Positive outcomes are provided for positive behaviour
- Increases positive behaviour
Negative Reinforcement
- Negative outcomes are removed for positive behaviour
- Increases positive behaviour
Punishment
- Negative outcomes are providedfor negative behaviour
- Decreases negative behaviour
Extinction
- Positive outcomes are removedfor negative behaviour
- Decreases negative behaviour
Organizations can respond to unionization by the following except:
a) Negotiate
b) Promise
c) Meet
d) Inivite
The correct answer is b. Promise
An organization cannot do the following, called TIPS:
T hreaten
•Suggest the organization will close down if it becomes
unionized
I ntimidate
•Seek retaliation against those employees in favour of the union
P romise
•Offer to pay better wages or benefits if they remain union free
S py
•Send secret representative in to attend union/employee
meetings
Which of the following organization structures has centralized control?
a) Functional Departmentalization
b) Product Departmentalization
c) Customer Departmentalization
d) Geographic Departmentalization
The answer is: a. Functional Departmentalization
Functional Departmentalization - centralized control is more efficient, specialty focus increases expertise, mentoring is available, internal communication is easy, decision making may take longer, collaboration requires compromise
Product Departmentalization - responsible for whole process, easy to implement cross-functional process improvement, decision making is faster, duplication of effort, more expensive
Customer Departmentalization - focus on customer satisfaction, easy access to resources, decision making is faster, duplication of efforts and more expensive
Geographic Departmentalization - physically close to the customer, more in tune with customer needs, decision making is faster, duplication of efforts, less cross-geographic collaboration
Which of the following is an indirect pay strategy?
a) Time off with Pay
b) Short-term Incentives
c) Base Pay
d) Long-term Incentives
The correct answer is a.
Cash compensation, such as base pay and short- and long-term performance pay, are considered to be “direct” compensation. Time off with or without pay, such as vacation or leaves of absense, are considered to be “in-direct” pay as it doesn’t add more cash value to one’s total annual compensation.
The Five-Factor Model of personality includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Extraversion
b) Emotional stability
c) Assertiveness
d) Conscientiousness
The answer is: c. Assertiveness
Personality can be a predictor of performance, here are the big five:
- Openness
- Conscientiousness
- Emotional stability
- Agreeableness
- ExtraversioN
According to the 2-factor theory of motivation, which of the following affects an employee’s job satisfaction?
a) Relationships with peers.
b) Pay level.
c) Quality of supervision.
d) Job content.
The answer is d. Job content.
The two-factor theory states that there are certain factors in the workplace that cause job satisfaction while a separate set of factors cause dissatisfaction, all of which act independently of each other. It was developed by psychologist Frederick Herzberg.
Functional Area: OE
Which of the following can be initiated by either the union or the employer during the negotiation of a collective agreement?
a) Work to rule
b) Strike
c) Lock out
d) Cease and desist action
The answer is d. Cease and desist action
Functional Area: L&ER
Information for a training needs analysis can be collected through all of the following methods except:
a) Pre-post training assessment
b) Questionnaires
c) Tests
d) Work Samples
a. The correct answer is a.
A pre-post training assessment is an evaluation tool, not a needs analysis tool.
Which of the following statements is false about workforce analytics?
a) Workforce analytics focuses on efficiency metrics
b) Workforce analytics correlates business and people data
c) Workforce analytics uncovers unique performance drivers within an organization
d) Workforce analytics measures HR’s impact on the organization
The answer is: a. Workforce analytics focuses on efficiency metrics
What is a complex mathematically model for determining the best supply mix solution to minimize costs?
a) Linear programming
b) Replacement management
c) Succession management
d) Markov model
The answer is a. Linear programming
The Markov Model produces a series of matrices that detail the patterns of movement to and from the various jobs in the organization. This quantitative model requires the use of transitional probabilities, or the likelihood that an individual will exhibit movement behaviours.
Linear Programming
• A complex mathematical procedure.
- It can determine the best supply mix solution to minimize costs or other constraints, such as desired staffing ratios.
- The internal/external mix of candidates can be programmed into the equation for determining HR supply.
- It enables HR planners to calculate “what if ” scenarios by changing or relaxing various model assumptions.
Management Inventory
An individualized record for managerial, professional, or technical personnel that includes all elements in the skills inventory with the addition of information on specialized duties, responsibilities, and accountabilities. This is the starrting point for taking an inventory of who you have internally.
Replacement management is the process of finding employees for key managerial positions.
Replacement planning is focused narrowly on identifying specific back-up candidates for given senior management positions.
Succession management is the process of ensuring that pools
of skilled employees are trained and available to meet the organization’s strategic objectives.
Movement Analysis
• Analyzes personnel supply, specifically the chain or ripple effect that promotions or job losses have on the movements of other personnel in organizations.
• Identifies the total number of vacant or open positions in the organization or department, as well as the total number of personnel movements that are caused by replacing and filling these positions.
• Planning time is typically one year, where we identify the number of people within a department or authority level.
Vacancy Model
• Analyzes flows of personnel throughout the organization by examining inputs and outputs at each hierarchical or compensation level.
• Time frame is one year into the future.
• Identifies the specific number of external and internal personnel required at each level and for the organization as a whole.
• Calculates personnel supply requirements from the top down, beginning at the highest authority level, because the normal direction of movement in an organization is from the bottom to the top.
When a job is designed to enable the employee to perform the complete cycle of job activities, the employee will enjoy __________ the job provides.
a) High task significance
b) High skill variety
c) High job autonomy
d) High task identity
The answer is: d. High task identity
Job Enrichment
- Task Identity – doing the whole job
- Task Significance – social value
- Skill Variety – utilizing many skills
- Job Autonomy – freedom to act
- Job Feedback – self monitoring
Which of the following describes a “real” wage increase?
a) An increase greater than the cost of living.
b) An increase tied to performance.
c) An increase provided annually to all employees.
d) An increase that affects the compensation structure.
The answer is a. An increase greater than the cost of living.
Functional Area: HRMR&FM
Goal-setting theory is based on what premise?
a) People’s intentions are a good predictor of their behaviour.
b) People’s needs drive their motivation.
c) People’s expectations about outcomes impact their motivation.
d) Positive feedback and rewards increase people’s motivation
The answer is a. People’s intentions are a good predictor of their behaviour.
Functional Area: OE
During the implementation phase of training, what type of transfer is it when it can be effectively applied to different settings?
a) Zero transfer
b) Far transfer
c) Horizontal transfer
d) Vertical transfer
The answer is: c. Horizontal transfer
Horizontal transfer = training can be effectively applied to different settings
Far transfer = training can be effectively applied to new and different situations
Vertical transfer = training is applied and organization performance improves
Positive transfer = training is applied and employee performance improves
Zero transfer = training is not applied and employee performance does not change
Negative transfer = training is applied and employee performance worsens
Which of the following teams have the highest degree of empowerment?
a) Self-designing team
b) Employee involvement team
c) Self-managing team
d) Semi-autonomous work group
The answer is: a. Self-designing team
Traditional work groups – execute tasks
Employee involvement teams – make suggestions
Semi-autonomous work groups – make decisions and solve problems concerning work processes
Self-managing teams – make decisions and solve problems concerning work productionSelf-designing teams – self-managing teams that also control team design and membership
Cross-functional teams – involve employees from different functional areas within the organization
Project teams – involve employees in completing a specific project
Virtual teams – involve employees from different geographies or who rarely meet face to face
Which of the following is not one of the five core job characteristics in the Job Characteristics theory that was created by Hackman and Oldham?
A. Skill Variety
B. Autonomy
C. Task importance
D. Feedback from the job itself
Answer: (C) Task importance
Hackman and Oldman created the Job Characteristic Theory, which categorized five core job characteristics or dimensions. Those five core job characteristics or dimensions are:
Skill Variety - the number of different skills required
Task Identity - the extent the job is seen as involving a whole, identifiable task
Task Significance - the perceived value of your job vis-à-vis others
Autonomy-control of how to approach the
job Feedback from the job itself - can you see the quality and/or quantity?
Which of the following is true of a positive discipline model?
a) It strengthens the connection between the misconduct and the discipline.
b) It involves a multi-step approach ending in termination.
c) It ensures proper investigation occurs prior to any discipline.
d) It relies on encouragement techniques rather than punitive action.
The answer is d. It relies on encouragement techniques rather than punitive action.
Positive Discipline or PD is a discipline model used by schools and in parenting that focuses on the positive points of behavior. It is based on the idea that there are no bad children, just good and bad behaviors.
Functional Area: L&ER
Which of the following would be an example of a criterion-referenced assessment?
a) Measuring an employee’s performance against specific performance standards
b) Measuring an employee’s performance against the performance of team members
c) Measuring an employee’s performance relative to a normal curve
d) Measuring an employee’s performance against the employee’s own previous performance
The answer is: a. Measuring an employee’s performance against specific performance standards
A criterion-referenced test is a style of test which uses test scores to generate a statement about the behavior that can be expected of a person with that score. Most tests and quizzes that are written by school teachers can be considered criterion-referenced tests.
Which of the following theories states that stimulus leads to response that leads to consequence?
a) Punishment
b) Consequence
c) Reinforcement
d) Equity
The answer is: c. Reinforcement
Reinforcement Theory:
Positive Reinforcement
- Positive outcomes areprovided for positive behaviour
- Increases positive behaviour
Negative Reinforcement
- Negative outcomes are removed for positive behaviour
- Increases positive behaviour
Punishment
- Negative outcomes are provided for negative behaviour
- Decreases negative behaviour
Extinction
- Positive outcomes are removed for negative behaviour
- Decreases negative behaviour
A major disadvantage of a Matrix structure is that it can result in:
a) Duplication of effort
b) Less cross-departmental collaboration
c) Bureaucracy
d) Confusion
The answer is:d. Confusion
ADVANTAGES of Matrix structure:Efficient management of large organizationsGreater collaboration across areasCentralized controlAvoids duplication
DISADVANTAGESConflictConfusionHigher level of management skill requiredFunctional Area: OE
After many employees of an organization go on maternity leave, the manager at the organization decides to stop interviewing female job candidates of childbearing age. What type of discrimination is this?
a) Direct discrimination
b) Adverse effect discrimination
c) Bona fide discrimination
d) Systemic discrimination
The answer is a. Direct discrimination
Direct discrimination is the legal term that applies if you treat someone less favourably than someone else has been treated (or would be treated) because the person belongs to one of the protected groups. Unless there is a statutory exception, direct discrimination cannot be excused or defended.
Adverse effect discrimination is a situation in which a policy that seems on its face to treat everyone equally actually has an adverse impact on a protected group.
A bona fide occupational qualification, also known as BFOQ, is a characteristic or attribute required for a job that could be considered discrimination if it were not necessary to perform the job in question, or if the job were unsafe for one category of people but not another (i.e. blind pilot)
Systemic discrimination, also known as institutionalised discrimination, is a culture of discrimination that pervades the workplace, where discrimination is a regular feature of interactions and processes or happens over a long period of time.
Functional Area: PP
What is the first step in designing a management development training program?
a) Conduct an organizational analysis.
b) Conduct a management task analysis.
c) Conduct a management team analysis.
d) Conduct a management best practice analysis.
The answer is a. Conduct an organizational analysis.
Functional Area: L&D
Statistics can be broken down into two types: Inferential Statistics and Descriptive Statistics. Which of the following is a “descriptive” statistical term?
a) Correlation
b) Mean
c) Analysis of Variance
d) Regression
The answer is: b. Mean
There are 3 main types of descriptive statistics:
The distribution concerns the frequency of each value.
The central tendency concerns the averages of the values.
The variability or dispersion concerns how spread out the values are.
Descriptive statistics describe what is going on in a population or data set.
Inferential statistics, by contrast, allow scientists to take findings from a sample group and generalize them to a larger population. The two types of statistics have some important differences.
Inferential Statistics include:
Regression
Correlation
Analysis of Variance, or ANOVA for short, is a statistical test that looks for significant differences between means on a particular measure
Functional Area: PP
Which of the following will increase the cost of benefits to employers?
a) Encouraging employees to live healthy lifestyles.
b) Keeping employees informed about the cost of benefits.
c) Moving to a defined-benefit pension plan.
d) Increasing the deductibles on prescriptions.
The answer is c. Moving to a defined-benefit pension plan.
Functional Area: HRMR&FM
When we want to compare current practice with past practice we use:
a) Benchmarking
b) HR Audits
c) Baselines
d) Forecasting
The correct answer is c. Baselines
Baselines are used to assess the changes in the efficiency or effectiveness of an HR program at different points in time.
Which of the following statements is false about an HR Consultant’s professional responsibility
a) Competing with other HR Consultants is not acceptable.
b) Being guided by greed is not acceptable.
c) Intervening in the personal matters of clients on issues that are not related to the profession is not acceptable.
d) Prohibiting a client from consulting with another HR consultant is not acceptable.
The correct answer is: a.HR Consultants often compete with each other when they bid for projects.
If, on a benefit survey, you wanted to ask employees to select from a list of benefits those that were most important to them, what rating scale would you use?
a) Ordinal scale
b) Interval scale
c) Ratio scale
d) Nominal Scale
The correct answer is d. Nominal Scale
A nominal scale includes a list of variables that have no value; in this case, a list of benefits.
Four types of measurement scales:
1.Nominal Scales a list of variables that have no “value” (e.g.,
department name).
2.Ordinal Scales a list of variables that have an order (e.g., what
employees like best or least; or what the want most, etc.).
3.Interval Scales a scale that tells us the mathematical difference
between two responses (e.g., the Likert Scale).
4.Ratio Scales show the relationship between two variables (e.g.,
sales per employee).
Adaptive Character of Thought theory highlights three stages of learning. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
a) Procedural knowledge
b) Declarative knowledge
c) Knowledge compilation
d) Experiential knowledge
The answer is: d. Experiential knowledge
Anderson’s Adaptive Character of Thought (ACT Theory) is a general theory of cognition that distinguishes between three stages of learning:
1. Declarative Knowledge
- The learning of knowledge, facts and information.
- The learner is still resource dependent.
2. Knowledge Compilation
- Integrating tasks into sequences.
- Learner’s performance may still be fragmented.
3. Procedural Knowledge
- The task or skill is mastered.
- Performance is automatic.
Programs that would effectively address a Human Resource deficit would include:
a) Job Sharing
b) Worksharing program
c) Re-hiring retirees
d) Hiring frreeze
The correct answer is c.
An HR deficit results in a shortage of workers. All options except for re-hiring retirees address a Human Resource surplus.
What should employees expect under an employee stock bonus plan?
a) Employees receive shares at no cost.
b) Employees are able to purchase company shares based on performance.
c) Employees receive a bonus equivalent to the increase in company share value.
d) Employees receive the cash value of phantom shares.
The answer is: a. Employees receive shares at no cost.
A training program includes a review of the concepts learned 1 week after the training session. What is this session called?
a) Post-training goal setting
b) Relapse prevention
c) Program refresher
d) Booster session
The answer is d. Booster session
Functional Area: L&D
What federal legislation governs the collection and distribution of employee information?
a) PIPEDA
b) Human Rights Code
c) Employment Standards Act
d) Labour Relations Act
The answer is: a. PIPEDA
PIPEDA = The Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents ActUnder PIPEDA, personal information includes any factual or subjective information, recorded or not, about an identifiable individual.
This includes information in any form, such as:-age, name, ID numbers, income, ethnic origin, or blood type; opinions, evaluations, comments, social status, or disciplinary actions; and employee files, credit records, loan records, medical records, existence of a dispute between a consumer and a merchant, intentions (for example, to acquire goods or services, or change jobs).
What is not covered by PIPEDA?There are some instances where PIPEDA does not apply. Some examples include:-Personal information handled by federal government organizations listed under the
Privacy Act
Provincial or territorial governments and their agents-Business contact information such as an employee’s name, title, business address, telephone number or email addresses that is collected, used or disclosed solely for the purpose of communicating with that person in relation to their employment or profession-An individual’s collection, use or disclosure of personal information strictly for personal purposes (e.g. personal greeting card list)-An organization’s collection, use or disclosure of personal information solely for journalistic, artistic or literary purposes
Businesses must follow the 10 fair information principles to protect personal information, which are set out in Schedule 1 of PIPEDA.
The principles are:1. Accountability2. Identifying Purposes3. Consent4. Limiting Collection5. Limiting Use, Disclosure, and Retention6. Accuracy7. Safeguards8. Openness9. Individual Access10. Challenging Compliance
There are a number of data collection designs for evaluating HR initiatives. Which type of design is necessary in order to assess causal relationships?
a) Qualitative designs
b) Quantitative designs
c) Experimental designs
d) Time series designs
The answer is: c. Experimental designs
Experimental designs are highly structured like descriptive research and is also known for use of control procedures used during experimental designs related to tests of causal relationships.
A time series is a series of data points indexed (or listed or graphed) in time order. Most commonly, a time series is a sequence taken at successive equally spaced points in time. Thus it is a sequence of discrete-time data. Examples of time series are heights of ocean tides, counts of sunspots, and the daily closing value of the Dow Jones Industrial Average
Which of the following is important when participating in a third-party compensation survey?
a) Matching job title to job title.
b) Reporting the average pay the organization provides per job.
c) Reporting employee earnings from T4 statements.
d) Ensuring the survey job descriptions are relevant.
The answer is d. Ensuring the survey job descriptions are relevant.
Functional Area: TR
Which of the following individuals is NOT a focus of employment equity legislation?
a) Women
b) Immigrants
c) Visible minorities
d) Aboriginals
The answer is: b. Immigrants
The Four Designated Groups:
- Women
- Aboriginal peoples Indian, Inuit or Métis.
- Persons with disabilities long term or recurring physical, mental, sensory, psychiatric or learning impairment who consider themselves to be disadvantaged in employment by reason of that impairment.
- Members of visible minorities people, other than Aboriginal peoples, who are non Caucasian in race or non white in colour.
Functional Area: L&ER
What type of work schedule allows employees to choose their daily start and end times?
a) Job sharing
b) Job shifting
c) Compressed workweek
d) Flextime
The answer is d. Flextime
Functional Area: WP&TM
When confronted with an allegation of systemic discrimination, which of the following is not a possible defence strategy?
A. Business necessity.
B. Bona fide occupational requirement.
C. Systems of seniority.
D. Non-malicious intent.
Answer: (D) Non-malicious intent.
Business necessity allows certain employment requirements that discriminate if they are reasonably needed to meet the normal and safe operation of an organization. Bona fide occupational requirements are similar and refer to certain discriminatory practices. Systems of seniority that are well established and consistently applied have also been used as defense strategies.
Although these three options are available as defense strategies, each is subject to great scrutiny and often limited in their use. For option D, although it may not have been the intention to discriminate, if the practice or requirement does discriminate, the complaint will be upheld and must be settled.
How do you calculate the return on investment of a training program?
a) Divide the net benefit of the program by the program cost
b) Subtract the program’s cost from the program’s benefit
c) Divide the benefits of the program by the cost of the program
d) Compare the monetary cost of the program to its non-monetary benefits
The answer is: a. Divide the net benefit of the program by the program cost
What are an organization’s knowledge, experience, process discoveries, innovations, market presence, and community influence collectively known as?
a) Intellectual capital
b) Tacit capital
c) Structural capital
d) Operating capital
The answer is a. Intellectual capital
Functional Area: S
What does WHMIS stand for?
a) Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System
b) Workers’ Hazardous Materials Information System
c) Workers’ Health Monitoring Information System
d) Workplace Health Maintenance Information System
The answer is a. Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System
Functional Area: HW&SW
Which of the following is true of adult learning?
a) Adults are social learners and prefer to learn in groups.
b) Adults have life experience and always welcome change.
c) Adults are problem-centred, as opposed to subject-centred.
d) Adults need to be motivated by extrinsic rewards such as bonuses.
The answer is c. Adults are problem-centred, as opposed to subject-centred.
Functional Area: L&D
Which of the following is a duty of most professional regulatory bodies?
a) Fulfill a duty of care to the public.
b) Ensure only competent individuals enter the profession.
c) Ensure membership in the profession reflects population diversity.
d) Report any member misconduct to the appropriate government authority.
The answer is b. Ensure only competent individuals enter the profession.
Functional Area: PP
When delivering a workshop designed to update one’s Excel spreadsheet skills, how would you set up the room?
a) U-shape
b) Round tables
c) Classroom
d) Team seating
The answer is: c. Classroom
Seating Arrangements:
Classroom = Low participant involvement
U Shape = Moderate Participant Involvement
Round Tables = High Participant Involvement
Functional Area: L&D
Which of the following is an organizational environmental factor?
a) The economy
b) Competition
c) Legislation
d) Stakeholders
The answer is d. Stakeholders
Because…
Major environmental factors include:
• Economic Climate
• Globalization
• Political and Legislative Factors
• Technological Factors
• Demographic Factors
• Social/Cultural Factors
Functional Area: S
For drivers of engagement, which is part of Motivation?
a) Rewarding Relationships
b) Effective Feedback
c) Self-Efficacy
d) Opportunity to grow
The answer is c. Self-Efficacy
Engagement = Motivation + Satisfacation + Commitment
Clarity of expectations, meaningfulness, and self-efficacy are part of motivation
- Clarity of Expectations (Motivation)
- Meaningfulness (Task significance aka Line of Sight) (Motivation)
- Self-Efficacy (Motivation)
- Autonomy (Satisfaction)
- Effective Feedback (Satisfaction)
- Rewarding Relationships (Commitment)
- Values of Organization and Leading (Commitment)
- Opportunity to Grow (Commitment)
A pay grade is:
A. Pay classes or steps assigned to jobs for pay purposes
B. The final salary allocated to a job based on the job descriptions
C. The minimum and the maximum rate for a job
D. The beginning of the job evaluation process
Answer: (A) Pay grades are classes, rates or steps that are assigned to jobs of approximately the same value or level of difficulty.
Measures of central tendency include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Median
b) Quartile
c) Mean
d) Mode
The answer is: b. Quartile
Median. Think Middle.
Mean. When you think of averaging, you are most likely to think of finding the mean
Mode. Mode refers to the number in a list that occurs most often.
Which term refers to a method used to analyze whether a lead, lag, or match compensation-level strategy is most efficient for a given organization?
A. Utility analysis.
B. Merit pay grid.
C. Graphic rating scale.
D. Compa-ratio.
Answer (A) Utility analysis.
For Human Resource Management, utility analysis refers to a specific tool designed to estimate the institutional gain or loss anticipated to a company from various HR interventions designed to enhance the value of the workforce
Merit pay grid is a tool for allocating merit raises based on the performance level of the employee and the pay grade quartile in which they fall.
Graphic rating scale is a performance appraisal method in which appraisers use a numerical scale to rate employees on a series of characteristics.
Compa-ratio is a measure of distribution of employees within their pay range calculated by dividing the mean base pay by the mid-point of the pay range.
An internal HR professional awarding a contract to an external provider in return for a confidential commission would be an example of:
a) Immoral behaviour
b) Entrepreneurialism
c) Conflict of Interest
d) Violation of Privacy Laws
The correct answer is: c.
A conflict of interest occurs when a person who is making a decision on behalf of his or her employer is influenced as a result of receiving s personal gain.
Professional self-regulation legislation that limits the use of the professional designation to those who have met all designation criteria is referred to as:
a) Right to practice legislation
b) Right to title legislation
c) Restricted practice legislation
d) Professional privilege legislation
The answer is: b. Right to title legislation
Functional Area: PP
What is the bargaining zone?
a) It is the difference between the employer’s lowest and highest wage offer.
b) It defines the list of collective agreement clauses that the union and management agree are to be covered by the negotiations.
c) It is the difference between the union’s lowest demand and the employer’s highest offer.
d) It is the difference between the union’s and management’s highest wage offer.
The correct answer is c.
The Bargaining Zone defines the overlap between the union’s and management’s bargaining positions. If management’s highest wage offer is higher than the lowest offer the union is willing to accept, then there is a zone within which successful bargaining can occur.
Which of the following is NOT included in our professional scope of practice?
a) Teaching HR
b) Developing policies
c) Providing legal advice
d) Conducting HR research
The answer is: c. Providing legal advice
A Health and Safety Representative’s responsiblities include all of the following except:
a) Investigating work refusals
b) Identifying workplace hazards
c) Approving safety policy
d) Inspecting the workplace
The correct answer is c.Approving safety policy
Health and Safety representatives recommend policy but management is accountable for approving company policies.
What is the study of population statistics called?
a) Econometrics
b) HR planning
c) Demographics
d) Markov analysis
The answer is c. Demographics
Functional Area: PP
Which of the following is not a type of flexible benefit program?
A. Cafeteria-style benefits plan.
B. Cost-plus benefits plan.
C. Modular benefits plan.
D. Core-plus-options benefits plan.
Answer: (B) Cost-plus benefits plan.
A cafeteria-style benefits plan enables employees to choose the benefits that are best suited to their particular needs; a modular approach is where employees can select from among a number of pre-packaged sets of benefits; and a core plus-options plan is where employees can choose from among a variety of options to augment a basic level of protection. Option (B) is not a recognized flexible benefits program.
Outline the Practice of Human Resources - there are nine total but it is not a conclusive list
The Practice of Human Resources Management includes, but is not limited to, one or more of the following:
- The development and implementation of human resources policies and procedures;
- Consultation in the area of human resources management;
- Providing advice to clients, managers, and employees in matters pertaining to management of human resources;
- The representation of clients and organizations in proceedings related to human resources management;
- Program development and evaluation in the area of human resources management;
- The supervision of other Human Resources professionals whether registered or non‐registered;
- Coaching of employees, managers, and other individuals in matters relating to work and employment;
- The conduct of research in the area of human resources management; and
- Teaching in the area of human resources management.
What does it imply when the performance measures fail to assess all the competencies required to perform a job?
a) A criterion deficiency occurs.
b) A criterion contamination occurs
c) A low criterion relevancy occurs
d) The criterion assessment is unreliable.
The answer is: a. A criterion deficiency occurs.
Functional Area: WP&TM
Almost every phase of HR management uses data generated by what process?
a) Performance evaluation
b) Workforce planning
c) Job analysis
d) Job evaluation
The answer is c. Job analysis
Workforce planning determines the human capital needed, analyzes what is avaiablle, and identifies the action required.
Job analysis is the process of gathering, examining and interpreting data about a job’s tasks and responsibilities. It generally includes tracking an employee’s duties and the duration of each task, observing the employee performing his or her job, interviewing the employee, managers and others who interact with the employee, and comparing the job to other jobs in the same department and job grade or job family.
A job evaluation is a systematic way of determining the value/worth of a job in relation to other jobs in an organization. It tries to make a systematic comparison between jobs to assess their relative worth for the purpose of establishing a rational pay structure.
Functional Area: OE
What are the four reactions to change and their steps?
- Denial - “it wont happen!” (defence mechanism based on fear)
- Resistance - “No way!”
- Exploration - “Let me learn more!”
- Accceptance - “OK!:
Which of the following is NOT a step in a succession planning process?
a) Provide employees with developmental opportunities
b) Identify high-performing employees
c) Identify the skills needed to meet strategic objectives
d) Identify performance goals
The answer is: d. Identify performance goals
The process involves five steps:
- Align Succession Management Plans with Strategy
- Identify the Skills and Competencies Needed to Meet Strategic Objectives
- Identify High-Potential Employees
- Provide Developmental Opportunities and Experiences
- Monitor Succession Management
Which of the following is NOT a type of corporate strategy?
a) Growth Strategy
b) Stability Strategy
c) Restructuring Strategy
d) Cost leadership strategy
The answer is: d. Cost leadership strategy
Functional Area: S
The duty to accommodate pertains to which of the following stakeholders?
a) Expatriates
b) Laid-off workers
c) Telecommuting workers
d) Disabled workers
The answer is d. Disabled workers
Functional Area: PP
Which of the following should an organization do if it wants to strength the training transfer climate of its management development program?
a) Ensure the program is interactive.
b) Include role-playing exercises.
c) Provide post-training coaching on the job.
d) Tailor the program to the learning styles of the employees.
The answer is c. Provide post-training coaching on the job.
Functional Area: L&D
The selection rate for a protected group identified in human rights legislation is lower than the selection rate for the comparison group. What problem is occurring in this situation?
a) Adverse impact
b) Discrimination
c) Selection bias
d) Wrongful hiring
The answer is a. Adverse impact
Adverse impact refers to employment practices that appear neutral but have a discriminatory effect on a protected group.
Adverse impact occurs when a decision, practice or policy has a disproportionately negative effect on a protected group, even though the adverse impact may be unintentional.
Adverse impact is often used interchangeably with “disparate impact”
Functional Area: WP&TM
What type of performance management method would be used to indicate whether an employee does not meet, meet, or exceeds, espectations?
a) Behavioural
b) Trait
c) BARS
d) Results
The answer is b. Trait method
Trait Method
- Graphic Rating Scales – uses ratings like poor, good, excellent or does not meet, meets, exceeds. It’s a linear skill with tick boxes.
- Mixed-Standard Scales – descriptive rating definitions are customized and randomized for each trait, describing multiple levels of performance. Managers indicate whether the employee’s performance is less than, the same as, or more than described.
- Forced-Choice Method – the manager chooses between two statements that best describe trait.
- Essay Method – open-ended comments.
Behavioural Methods
• Critical Incident Method – describes the incidents that define successful and unsuccessful behaviour.
- Behavioural Checklist Method – includes a list of desired behaviours/competencies.
- Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) – multilevel performance descriptions are created for each competency/behaviour.
- Behaviour Observation Scale (BOS) – uses a frequency scale against a behavioural checklist.
Results Methods
• Productivity Measures – number of units produced, positions filled, candidates interviewed, etc.
• Management by Objectives – the achievement of preestablished
goals.
• S - Specific
• M - Measurable
• A - Achievable
• R - Relevant
• T - Timely
• Balanced Scorecard – a blend of financial, customer, process and learning targets.
Which of the following statements is false about learning organizations?
a) They encourage systems thinking.
b) They support team learning.
c) They learn through formal training.
d) They promote the understanding of mental models.
The correct answer is c.
A learning organization is an organization that encourages learning through every day operations and interactions in addition to a variety of other ways.
An HR program that increases the talent pool of promotable employees is:
a) Job skill training
b) Succession Management
c) Performance Management
d) Diversity Management
The correct answer is b.
The main purpose of succession management is to identify high performing individuals and prepare them for future career growth in line with the organization’s needs.
What is narrowly focusing on identifying specific back-up candidates for senior management postions?
a) Markov model
b) Management inventory
c) Succession planning
d) Replacement planning
The answer is d. Replacement planning
The Markov Model produces a series of matrices that detail the patterns of movement to and from the various jobs in the organization. This quantitative model requires the use of transitional probabilities, or the likelihood that an individual will exhibit movement behaviours.
Linear Programming
• A complex mathematical procedure.
- It can determine the best supply mix solution to minimize costs or other constraints, such as desired staffing ratios.
- The internal/external mix of candidates can be programmed into the equation for determining HR supply.
- It enables HR planners to calculate “what if ” scenarios by changing or relaxing various model assumptions.
Management Inventory
An individualized record for managerial, professional, or technical personnel that includes all elements in the skills inventory with the addition of information on specialized duties, responsibilities, and accountabilities. This is the starrting point for taking an inventory of who you have internally.
Replacement management is the process of finding employees for key managerial positions.
Replacement planning is focused narrowly on identifying specific back-up candidates for given senior management positions.
Succession management is the process of ensuring that pools
of skilled employees are trained and available to meet the organization’s strategic objectives.
Movement Analysis
• Analyzes personnel supply, specifically the chain or ripple effect that promotions or job losses have on the movements of other personnel in organizations.
• Identifies the total number of vacant or open positions in the organization or department, as well as the total number of personnel movements that are caused by replacing and filling these positions.
• Planning time is typically one year, where we identify the number of people within a department or authority level.
Vacancy Model
• Analyzes flows of personnel throughout the organization by examining inputs and outputs at each hierarchical or compensation level.
• Time frame is one year into the future.
• Identifies the specific number of external and internal personnel required at each level and for the organization as a whole.
• Calculates personnel supply requirements from the top down, beginning at the highest authority level, because the normal direction of movement in an organization is from the bottom to the top.
What type of candidate screening can verify a candidate’s credit rating?
a) Reference check
b) Criminal check
c) Background check
d) Resume screening
The answer is c. Background check
Functional Area: WP&TM
A non-governmental organization is comparing jobs for the purpose of complying with pay equity legislation. The organization has no equivalent male job classes. What method of comparison should it use?
a) Job-to-job
b) Proportional value
c) Proxy comparison
d) Hybrid comparison
The answer is b. Proportional value
Compare jobs
- *• Job to Job Method**
- *• Proportional Value Method -** The proportional value of job comparison is also known as the indirect comparison. It is a method of comparing male and female job classes. It ensures that pay equity is given on a job-to-job approach. This method allows companies to look at the manner in which male job classes are paid within the organization through a thorough examination of the relationship between compensation and the value of work performance.
- *• Proxy Comparison Method (used in the government sector)**
Functional Area: TR
Which of the following statements about group dynamics is true?
a) Members of larger groups are more satisfied with their group membership.
b) Group norms make group behaviour unpredictable.
c) Effective groups do not assign roles to foster a climate of group empowerment.
d) More diverse groups have greater difficultly becoming cohesive.
The answer is d. More diverse groups have greater difficultly becoming cohesive.
Functional Area: OE
When training employees on complex machinery requiring a number of sequential steps, which of the following learning methods should be used?
a) A whole-learning approach involving massed practice
b) A part-learning approach involving distributed practice
c) A part-learning approach involving massed practice
d) A whole-learning approach involving distributed practice
The answer is: b. A part-learning approach involving distributed practice
Functional Area: L&D
Which supply forecasting technique is used to identify the specific number of external and internal personnel required?
a) Markov model
b) Management inventory
c) Vacancy model
d) Replacement planning
The answer is c. Vacancy model
The Markov Model produces a series of matrices that detail the patterns of movement to and from the various jobs in the organization. This quantitative model requires the use of transitional probabilities, or the likelihood that an individual will exhibit movement behaviours.
Linear Programming
• A complex mathematical procedure.
- It can determine the best supply mix solution to minimize costs or other constraints, such as desired staffing ratios.
- The internal/external mix of candidates can be programmed into the equation for determining HR supply.
- It enables HR planners to calculate “what if ” scenarios by changing or relaxing various model assumptions.
Management Inventory
An individualized record for managerial, professional, or technical personnel that includes all elements in the skills inventory with the addition of information on specialized duties, responsibilities, and accountabilities. This is the starrting point for taking an inventory of who you have internally.
Replacement management is the process of finding employees for key managerial positions.
Replacement planning is focused narrowly on identifying specific back-up candidates for given senior management positions.
Succession management is the process of ensuring that pools
of skilled employees are trained and available to meet the organization’s strategic objectives.
Movement Analysis
• Analyzes personnel supply, specifically the chain or ripple effect that promotions or job losses have on the movements of other personnel in organizations.
• Identifies the total number of vacant or open positions in the organization or department, as well as the total number of personnel movements that are caused by replacing and filling these positions.
• Planning time is typically one year, where we identify the number of people within a department or authority level.
Vacancy Model
• Analyzes flows of personnel throughout the organization by examining inputs and outputs at each hierarchical or compensation level.
• Time frame is one year into the future.
• Identifies the specific number of external and internal personnel required at each level and for the organization as a whole.
• Calculates personnel supply requirements from the top down, beginning at the highest authority level, because the normal direction of movement in an organization is from the bottom to the top.
What type of controls are employee training, employee rotation, environmental sampling, and medical surveillance to protect workers from hazards?
a) Engineering controls
b) Hygiene controls
c) Administrative controls
d) Work practice controls
The answer is c. Administrative controls
Functional Area: HW&SW
Which of the following offers helps retain top-talent Millennials?
a) Flexible work schedules
b) High-ticket perks
c) Challenging tasks
d) Compatible values
The answer is d. Compatible values
Functional Area: PP
Which of the following is NOT an element of job enrichment?
a) Job autonomy
b) Job enlargement
c) Task identity
d) Skill variety
The answer is: b. Job enlargement
Name some symptoms of organization design problems
- Bad job design
- Bad structural design
- Ineffective spans of control
- Insufficient sharing of information
- Duplication of effort
- Conflict between departments
- Too many committees
*Slow Response Times*
Which of the following describes SMART goals?
a) Specific, Meaningful, Actionable, Realistic, Timely
b) Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Timely
c) Systems, Methods, Authority, Responsibility, Tactics
d) Strategic, Manageable, Accurate, Responsible, Tangible
The answer is: b. Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Timely
The candidate with the highest score on a selection assessment was hired, but was ultimately unsuccessful on the job. What type of error likely occurred in the selection assessment?
a) False negative
b) False positive
c) Wrongful hiring
d) Negligent hiring
The answer is b. False positive
Functional Area: WP&TM
Which of the following control methods is best for preventing poor air quality from becoming worse?
a) Pre-contact control
b) Point-of-contact control
c) Post-contact control
d) Hazard control
The answer is b. Point-of-contact control
Functional Area: HW&SW
What is the formula for determining the return on investment?
a) Benefits minus cost
b) Benefits minus cost divided by the benefits
c) Benefits minus cost divided by the cost
d) Benefits minus cost divided by the budget
The correct answer is c. Benefits minus cost divided by the cost
The benefits minus the cost indicates the monetary value of the program. In order to express the value as a percentage of the cost, it is then divided by the cost. A positive return on investment should result in a number greater than .1 or 100%
What is a single numerical estimate of HR requirements associated with a sepcific time horizon and a set of assumptions?
a) Projection
b) Prediction
c) Scenario
d) Contingency Planning
The correct answer is b. Prediction
Prediction
A single numerical estimate of HR requirements associated with a specific time horizon and a set of assumptions.
Projection
Incorporates several HR estimates based on a variety of assumptions.
Envelope
An analogy in which one can easily visualize the corners of an envelope containing the upper and lower limits, or “bounds,” of the various HR projections extending into the future.
Scenario
A proposed sequence of events with its own set of assumptions and associated program details.
Contingency Planning
Plans to be implemented when unanticipated changes to organizational or environmental factors which may negate the usefulness of the existing HR forecasting predictions or projections.
Which of the following is NOT an unfair labour practice?
a) Promising to improve benefits during a union certification drive
b) Providing union employees with a Christmas bonus that was not negotiated
c) Engaging in pattern bargaining
d) Hiring professional strike breakers
The answer is: c. Engaging in pattern bargaining
All of the following support an injured employee’s safe return to work EXCEPT:
a) Light duties
b) Performance incentives
c) Work trial
d) Sheltered work
The answer is:b. Performance incentives
The statement “every incident is a result of a series of events” demonstrates which analysis model?
a) Domino theory
b) Critical path analysis
c) Bowtie analysis
d) Swiss cheese model
The answer is a. Domino theory
Functional Area: HW&SW
What are the 4 categories of stress-induced strain reaction?
a) Interpersonal, responsibility, performance, and cognitive.
b) Acute, chronic, temporary, and catastrophic.
c) Psychological, physical, behavioural, and organizational.
d) Internal, external, vertical, and horizontal.
The answer is c. Psychological, physical, behavioural, and organizational.
Functional Area: HW&SW
You and the department manager have just terminated an employee. The employee asks to be able to go back to his office to get “a few things off his desk” and to “clean up some personal things on his email”. Your reply should be:
A. “Yes, as long as it’s personal things.”
B. “Yes, your email is your private business so that should be ok”
C. “No, your things will be packed up and mailed to you”
D. “Not at this time.”
D. “Not at this time”
What is andragogy?
a) A type of training evaluation
b) Simulation training
c) An approach to executive development
d) Adult-oriented training
The correct answer is d.
Andragogy is an adult-oriented approach to learning and development that recognizes that adults are goal oriented, want to participate in their learning, draw upon their experiences, and prefer to learn independently.
Which four variables does the COMA model of training evaluation measure?
a) Cognitive Variables, Organizational Environment, Motivation, Attitudes
b) Cognitive Variables, Openness to Learning, Methods of delivery, Aptitude
c) Classroom Set-up, Organization of Materials, Methods of Instruction, Assessment of Participants’ Reactions
d) Content, Organization of Lessons, Materials, Attendance
The answer is: a. Cognitive Variables, Organizational Environment, Motivation, Attitudes
Functional Area: L&D
If an HR manager personally benefited from awarding a training contract to a good friend, this could be considered:
a) An inappropriate incentive
b) A conflict of Interest
c) An illegal act
d) An expression of interest
The answer is: b. A conflict of Interest
What compensable factors are required in a job evaluation process for it to be compliant with the pay equity legislation?
a) Education, experience, authority, performance
b) Skill, effort, responsibility, working conditions
c) Knowledge, skill, experience, working conditions
d) Job class, gender dominance, career level, internal equity
The answer is: b. Skill, effort, responsibility, working conditions
Pay Equity, Universal Compensable Factors• Skill• Effort• Responsibility• Working Conditions
Which of the following is a situational interview question?
a) Think back to a time when you had to meet an unrealistic deadline. How did you approach it?
b) On a scale of 1 to 5, with 1 being never and 5 being always, how would you describe your track record in resolving employee grievances?
c) Where do you see yourself in 5 years?
d) How would you go about designing an employee orientation program?
The answer is d. How would you go about designing an employee orientation program?
Situational interview questions present the candidate with a hypothetical situation and ask them how they would handle it. “What would you do if…”
Behavioral interview questions ask the candidate to recall a past experience and describe how they did handle in.
Functional Area: WP&TM
Which of the following is true about a matrix organization structure?
a) Employees can receive conflicting directions.
b) It is easy to manage.
c) Resources are shared across boundaries.
d) Functional experts work closely together.
The correct answer is a. - Employees can receive conflicting directions.
Dual reporting relationships are characteristic of a matrix organization, often resulting in confusion or conflict.
Who must participate in an incident investigation?
a) Safety Officer
b) Safety Committee Representative
c) Technical advisors
d) The supervisor
The answer is: b. Safety Committee Representative
The main purpose of Human Resource planning is to:
a) Determine human capital needs
b) Develop HR programs
c) Identify recruitment strategies
d) Enable company growth
The correct answer is a.
Through HR Planning, the supply and demand of human capital is determined so that appropriate initiatives can be implemented to address gaps in talent.
Outline the Five Steps to the Risk Management process:
Remember “IA-DIM”
Risk Management Steps
Step 1 - Identify the Risks
Step 2 - Assess the Risks
Step 3- Develop Strategies
Step 4 – Implement Strategies and Communicate
Step 5 - Monitor the Results
Which of the following is true of the Rand formula?
a) Bargaining unit employees who choose not to join the union still pay union dues.
b) It quantifies the bargaining zone during collective bargaining.
c) It determines the individual incentives provided through a productivity gain-sharing plan.
d) It is used in occupational health and safety to establish an organization’s safety record.
The answer is a. Bargaining unit employees who choose not to join the union still pay union dues.
Functional Area: L&ER
How many employees does an organization need to have before it is covered by the Employment Equity Act?
a) 25
b) 50
c) 100
d) 150
The answer is: c. 100
When training evaluation indicates that there has been zero transfer, this means that the training is:
a) Applied and employee performance improves
b) Applied and employee performance does not improve
c) Not applied and employee performance does not change
d) Not applied and employee performance worsens
The correct answer is c.Not applied and employee performance does not change
Zero transfer occurs when the training is not applied and employee performance does not change.
Negative transfer occurs when training is applied and employee performance worsens, and positive transfer occurs when training is applied and employee performance improves.
Which of the following statements is true about a ‘management by objectives’ style of performance evaluation process?
a) It does a good job of assessing employee skills.
b) It provides a balanced approach to evaluating the lead and lag indicators of performance success.
c) It focuses on the achievement of results
d) It includes multiple raters in the process
The correct answer is c.
Management by Objectives, or MBO, evaluates employees against pre-established SMART goals. It does not necessarily evaluate the skills required to achieve those goals.
Which of the following is important for determining the composition of a bargaining unit?
a) Community of interests.
b) Frequency of grievances.
c) Availability of shop stewards.
d) Duration of the collective agreement.
The answer is a. Community of interests.
Functional Area: L&ER
What does a position analysis questionnaire document?
a) Job tasks
b) Job competencies
c) Critical incidents
d) Job Value
The answer is a. Job tasks
Position analysis questionnaire is a job analysis questionnaire that evaluates job skill level and basic characteristics of applicants for a set match of employment opportunity.
Functional Area: OE
What approach to recruitment decision-making is based on subjective human judgment?
a) Clinical
b) Statistical
c) Compensatory
d) Multiple cutoff
The answer is a. Clinical
Functional Area: WP&TM
Exit interviews are used for all of the following except:
a) Collecting company property
b) Receiving feedback
c) Providing information about benefit termination
d) Determining severance obligations
The correct answer is d.
Exit interviews are most often held with employees that have resigned for the purposes of concluding the employment relationship, receiving feedback, and collecting any company property that the employee has in their possession.
Which of the following is not one of the main personalities that can predict performance:
a) Emotional stability
b) Conscientiousness
c) Introversion
d) Agreeableness
The correct answer is c: Introversion
Personality can be a predictor of performance:
• Openness to new experiences
• Conscientiousness
• Emotional stability
• Agreeableness
• ExtraversioN
When establishing job worth through compensable factor job evaluation, which of the following factors is not considered?
a) Skill
b) Effort
c) Career Level
d) Working Conditions
The correct answer is c. Career Level
Skill, effort, responsibility, and working conditions are the factors commonly considered in compensable factor job evaluation. In many job evaluation plans, they can be further broken into sub-factors as well
Which of the following is NOT one of the duties HR professionals have when acting as an independent practitioner?
a) To account for project progress
b) To terminate the contract if it is running over budget
c) To cease providing services when the client terminates the contract
d) To clearly define the nature and scope of the project
The answer is: b. To terminate the contract if it is running over budget
Functional Area: PP
When do employees have the right to picket their employer?
a) During a legal strike.
b) During a collective agreement negotiation.
c) During a collective agreement policy grievance.
d) During a rights arbitration.
The answer is a. During a legal strike.
Functional Area: L&ER
A trade apprentice seeking to work across Canada would be advised to select a trade recognized with:
A. National Occupation Classification (NOC) list
B. The Red Seal Program
C. The White Seal Program
D. The Ellis chart
Answer: (B) The Red Seal Program
The Inter-provincial Standards Red Seal Program (also known as the Red Seal Program) was established more than 45 years ago to provide greater ease for mobility of skilled workers throughout Canada.
Which of the following is mandated by provincial Acts when the profession is regulated?
a) Rules of professional conduct
b) HR’s role as a business partner
c) Membership fees
d) Professional exam criteria
The answer is: a. Rules of professional conduct
Which of the following HR programs would effectively address a human resource surplus?
a) Worksharing
b) Hiring part-time workers
c) Contracting work out
d) Re-hiring retirees
The answer is: a. Worksharing
Surplus Programs include:
- Employee lay-offs or terminations;
- Job sharing and Work-Sharing;
- Hiring freeze and natural attrition.
Deficit Programs include:
- Hiring part-time, full-time or temporary employees;
- Promoting or transferring staff to where they areneeded;
- Recalling laid off workers or retirees;
- Contracting out.
Which of the following initiatives facilitates the identification of best practices?
a) Setting baselines
b) Conducting benchmarking
c) Establishing balanced scorecards
d) Creating dashboards
The answer is: b. Conducting benchmarking
Benchmarking is a way of discovering what is the best performance being achieved – whether in a particular company, by a competitor or by an entirely different industry. This information can then be used to identify gaps in an organization’s processes in order to achieve a competitive advantage.
Which of the following statements is false about the Human Relations Movement?
a) It aligns well with Scientific Management
b) It was born out of the Hawthorne Studies
c) It involves a more participative style of management
d) It suggests that strict specialization is incompatible with human needs.
The answer is: a. It aligns well with Scientific Management.
Human relations movement refers to the researchers of organizational development who study the behaviour of people in groups, particularly in workplace groups and other related concepts in fields such as industrial and organizational psychology. It originated in the 1930s’ Hawthorne studies, which examined the effects of social relations, motivation and employee satisfaction on factory productivity. The movement viewed workers in terms of their psychology and fit with companies, rather than as interchangeable parts, and it resulted in the creation of the discipline of human relations management.
Area: OE
Which of the following is true about boundaryless career model?
a) It enables employees to explore more than one career.
b) It can effectively address employees experiencing content career plateaus.
c) It allows employees to be “self-directed free agents”.
d) It enables non-management employees to earn as much as management employees.
The answer is: c. It allows employees to be “self-directed free agents”.
Which of the following does Maslow’s hierarchy of needs suggest?
a) Pay inequities will cause demotivation.
b) Positive reinforcement will enhance performance.
c) Higher task variety leads to greater job satisfaction.
d) Employees want to feel they belong.
The answer is d. Employees want to feel they belong.
Functional Area: OE
Which of the following are considered direct accident costs?
A. Overtime pay.
B. Medical treatment costs.
C. Clean-up expense.
D. Overtime to get production back on track.
Answer: (B) Medical treatment costs.
The correct answer is “B”. The other costs in the question are considered to be indirect costs.
Which of the following is NOT a training delivery issue?
a) Participant fear
b) Instructor credibility
c) Quizzes
d) Seating arrangements
The answer is: c. Quizzes
From the following list of actions organizations can take to maximize the human resources represented by women, which is false?
A. Give talented women the same opportunities as talented men to grow, develop, and contribute to company profitability.
B. Identify women as potential managers early in their careers, and help them advance through training and other development activities.
C. Encourage company management support systems and networks comprised of female managers.
D. Accelerate the development of qualified women through fast-track programs.
Answer is C. Encourage company management support systems and networks comprised of female managers.
► A, B and D are only a few examples of a number of specific actions organizations can take to maximize the human resources of female managers. However, limiting management support systems and networks to only female managers as indicated in (C), limits the opportunities to share experiences and information and gain invaluable support from male peers. It also limits the opportunity for women to meet and learn from men in more advanced stages of their careers and identify potential future mentors and role models.
ABC restaurant has decided to bottle its special sauces and, as a result, will need to expand, open up a bottling plant, and hire new staff with different skills. What kind of forecasting will it engage to assess the number and type of people needed?
a) Event-based forecasting
b) Process-based forecasting
c) Transaction-based forecasting
d) Expansion-based forecasting
The answer is: c. Transaction-based forecasting
What is the process of ensuring that pools of skill employees are trained and avaialble to meet the organization’s strategic objectives?
a) Linear programming
b) Replacement management
c) Succession management
d) Markov model
The answer is d. Replacement planning
The Markov Model produces a series of matrices that detail the patterns of movement to and from the various jobs in the organization. This quantitative model requires the use of transitional probabilities, or the likelihood that an individual will exhibit movement behaviours.
Linear Programming
• A complex mathematical procedure.
- It can determine the best supply mix solution to minimize costs or other constraints, such as desired staffing ratios.
- The internal/external mix of candidates can be programmed into the equation for determining HR supply.
- It enables HR planners to calculate “what if ” scenarios by changing or relaxing various model assumptions.
Management Inventory
An individualized record for managerial, professional, or technical personnel that includes all elements in the skills inventory with the addition of information on specialized duties, responsibilities, and accountabilities. This is the starrting point for taking an inventory of who you have internally.
Replacement management is the process of finding employees for key managerial positions.
Replacement planning is focused narrowly on identifying specific back-up candidates for given senior management positions.
Succession management is the process of ensuring that pools
of skilled employees are trained and available to meet the organization’s strategic objectives.
Movement Analysis
• Analyzes personnel supply, specifically the chain or ripple effect that promotions or job losses have on the movements of other personnel in organizations.
• Identifies the total number of vacant or open positions in the organization or department, as well as the total number of personnel movements that are caused by replacing and filling these positions.
• Planning time is typically one year, where we identify the number of people within a department or authority level.
Vacancy Model
• Analyzes flows of personnel throughout the organization by examining inputs and outputs at each hierarchical or compensation level.
• Time frame is one year into the future.
• Identifies the specific number of external and internal personnel required at each level and for the organization as a whole.
• Calculates personnel supply requirements from the top down, beginning at the highest authority level, because the normal direction of movement in an organization is from the bottom to the top.
An acquiescence response on an employee survey occurs when:
a) An employee gives the same favorable response to every question.
b) An employee gives the answer they think the employer wants to receive.
c) An employee has to guess the answer.
d) A significant number of employees give the same response.
The correct answer is a. An employee gives the same favorable response to every question.
When an employee indicates they strongly agree with every statement on an employee survey, it is likely that they are not answering truthfully.
___________ is considered the next evolution of HRIM systems
a) Client-Server Technolgoy
b) Employee Portals
c) Software as a Service
d) Mainframe Technology
The answer is c. SAAS
Software as a service or SAAS let’s you pay as you go, versus purchasing full licensing agreements on the software
The Five-Factor Model of personality includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Extraversion
b) Emotional stability
c) Assertiveness
d) Conscientiousness
The answer is: c. Assertiveness
Personality can be a predictor of performance, here are the big five:
- Openness
- Conscientiousness
- Emotional stability
- Agreeableness
- ExtraversioN
What type of interview questions ask a candidate hypotehtical questions to determine how they would handle situations?
a) Case-based interviews
b) Behavioural interviews
c) Stress interviews
d) Situational interviews
The correct answer is c. Situational interviews
Panel intreview - interviewed by a group of people at the same time
Serial interview - A serial interview involves a group of people, but not all at once. You are handed off from person to person.
Situational interviews - During the situational interview candidates are asked specific questions about how they would handle certain circumstances at their job. The candidate is asked to assess a situation and to provide solutions on how they would handle it.
Behavioural interviews - based interviewing is interviewing based on discovering how the interviewee acted in specific employment-related situations. The logic is that how you behaved in the past will predict how you will behave in the future, i.e., past behavior predicts future performance.
Situational interview questions present the candidate with a hypothetical situation and ask them how they would handle it. … Behavioral interview questions ask the candidate to recall a past experience and describe how they did handle in.
Case-based interviews - is a type of job interview in which the candidate must analyze and solve a problematic business scenario (“case study”).
Stress interviews - A stress interview is an interviewing style that companies use to gauge a candidate’s response to stress. The idea is that it’ll give the hiring team an idea of how you’ll respond when juggling various high-priority tasks, dealing with challenging clients, or facing a difficult co-worker or manager.
Mass interviews - is defined as where a panel interviews several candidates simultaneously. The panel poses a problem, and then watches to see which candidate takes the lead in formulating an answer.
Which of the following is an example of systemic discrimination:
A. Physical access that restricts those who are mobility impaired.
B. Asking only female candidates how they will accommodate family commitments to meet the travel requirements of the position.
C. Requesting only Aboriginals to undergo pre-employment medicals.
D. All of the above are examples of systemic discrimination.
Answer: (A) Physical access that restricts those who are mobility impaired.
► Again, B and C are examples of discriminatory employment practices based on sex and race, and are in violation of human rights legislation. A is systemic discrimination because it excludes the possible hiring and employment of individuals who are mobility impaired due to the maintenance of inaccessible workplace facilities.
Which of the following statements reflects a participant’s opinion about the utility of a training program?
a) I enjoyed the training.
b) I learned something from the training.
c) I found the training useful.
d) I appreciated the training.
The answer is c. I found the training useful.
Functional Area: L&D
It is important to instill the need for change at which stage of Lewin’s Change Management process?
a) Transition stage
b) Unfreeze stage
c) Refreeze stage
d) Resistance stage
The answer is: b. Unfreeze stage
UNFREEZE
- Instill belief in the change
- Give reasons
- Empathize
TRANSITION
- Shift
- Explain WIFM
- Empower champions
- Gather input
- Involve
- Train
- Pace the change
REFREEZE
- Make it Stick
- Senior management commitment
- Celebrate
- Reinforce
Which of the following is true about employment contracts?
a) A contract must be in writing and signed by both parties to be binding.
b) A contract requires mutual consideration to be valid.
c) A contract and a letter of offer often contain different terms.
d) An indefinite-term contract is valid for the duration of the employment
The answer is b. A contract requires mutual consideration to be valid.
Functional Area: PP
Which of the following is a reason for outsourcing?
a) To access specialized expertise
b) To gain access to foreign markets
c) To eliminate labour unions
d) To serve as a wake-up call for employees
The answer is: a. To access specialized expertise
Which of the following could reduce the risk of repetitive strain injuries?
a) Strain management
b) Stress management
c) Industrial engineering
d) Ergonomics
The answer is d. Ergonomics
Functional Area: HW&SW
Our professional obligation to balance interests means:
a) Balancing right and wrong
b) Balancing all parties’ needs and interests
c) Balancing costs and quality
d) Balancing timelines and priorities
The answer is: b. Balancing all parties’ needs and interests
Which of the following is a key effect that an HR Information System has on an organization?
a) It changes the way organizational processes are designed and executed.
b) It connects people with the organization’s objectives.
c) It improves the organization’s overall productivity.
d) It streamlines processes and refocuses HR efforts on organizational strategy.
The answer is d. It streamlines processes and refocuses HR efforts on organizational strategy.
Functional Area: HRMR&FM
A fault tree is used for what purpose?
a) To identify safety hazards
b) To assign responsibility
c) To justify disciplinary action
d) To classify stress in the workplace
The answer is: a. To identify safety hazards
A workplace hazard that can cause decalcification is:
a) Vibration
b) Noise
c) Thermal Stress
d) Asbestos
The answer is: a. Vibration
Regarding the purposes and uses of the interview in the recruitment and selection process, which of the following is true?
A. Interviews are usually conducted early in the selection process to screen out unqualified applicants, thereby reducing the need to administer other selection instruments.
B. Interviews are often used to sell the job to the applicant.
C. The main purpose of the interview is to review and validate information provided in the resume and application form.
D. Interviews are best suited to assess job knowledge and cognitive ability.
Answer: (B) Interviews are often used to sell the job to the applicant.
Option B is correct; interviews provide applicants with the opportunity to ask questions about the job and organization to help make a decision whether both are appropriate for him or her
Option A is incorrect because interviews are often conducted later in the process after unqualified candidates have been screened out by tests, work samples, etc., thereby reducing number of interviews needed (interviews are costly and time-consuming).
Option C is incorrect because interviews are often used to collect information not provided in the resume or application form.
Option D is incorrect because interviews are better suited to assess non cognitive attributes such as social skills, initiation, teamwork, etc.; job samples, tests, etc. are better suited for knowledge and cognitive assessment.
Which of the following is a form of indirect pay?
a) Profit sharing
b) Employee perquisites
c) Team bonus
d) Lump sum merit increase
The answer is b. Employee perquisites
Functional Area: TR
Which of the following is a long-term compensation plan?
a) Goal-sharing plan
b) Competitive bonus plan
c) Gain-sharing plan
d) Share purchase plan
The answer is: d. Share purchase plan
Long-Term Rewards
- Employee Stock Bonus Plans
- Employee Share Purchase Plans
- Employee Stock Option Plans
- Phantom Shares
Performance Pay Plans
Gain-Sharing:
- Scanlon - Scanlon Plan is cost-saving, gain-sharing, productivity-incentive plan in which any saving (agreed upon standard labour cost per unit of output subtracted from actual labour cost per unit of output) is shared equally between the workers and the organization
- Rucker - The Rucker Plan is based on the premise that the ratio of labor costs to production value (actual net sales plus or minus inventory changes, minus outside purchased materials and services) is historically stable in the manufacturing industry.
- Improshare - Improshare, which stands for Improved Productivity through Sharing. Improshare was created by Mitchell Fein, an industrial engineer. The Improshare plan is a form of gainsharing that focuses on sharing physical productivity gains with employees.
- Family of Measures - A combination of performance measures/metrics which, when taken together, provide multiple perspectives on an organization’s achievement of its desired end state.
Functional Area: TR
Personality clashes in a team can cause:
a) C-type conflict
b) A-type conflict
c) Role conflict
d) Process conflict
The answer is: b. A-type conflict
C-type conflicts (cognitive conflicts)
• C-type is a clash of opinions, experiences, values• typically, they can be easily resolved with further discussion
A-type conflicts (affective conflicts)
- Often have a long-lasting impact on team dynamics
- Disagreements become personal rather than professional
- Focusing on the individual, and not the issue or idea
- Language is often leaves feelings of disrespect, distrust, and dislike
Role Ambiguity
• Goals and assigned responsibilities are unclear
Role Conflict
- Incompatible role expectation due to a lack of role clarity, they might miss the unspoken expectations
- Inter-role conflict – conflicting responsibilities that make an employee unable to fulfill the responsibilities for multiple duties
- Inter-sender conflict – occurs if competing expectations are coming from two different stakeholders
- Intra-sender conflict – The same person gives two conflicting directivesStatus
- The differences between various team members positions, titles, and responsibilitiesSocial Loafing
- Team members are relying on others and not work as hard as they normally would be if they worked by themselves
Bill C-45 is an important health and safety legislation that:
a) Regulates the provision of regular safety training to employees
b) Enables the criminal prosecution of organizations whose negligence results in employee injury, illness, or death.
c) Provides wage insurance for workers who experience wage loss due to work-related accidents or illness
d) Regulates the transportation of dangerous goods and materials
The correct answer is b.Enables the criminal prosecution of organizations whose negligence results in employee injury, illness, or death.
Bill C-45 is an amendment to the Criminal Code of Canada arising from the Westray Mine fatalities.
What forecasting methodology involves a group of experts in face-to-face meetings?
a) Nominal Group Technique
b) Delphi Technique
c) Regression Analysis
d) Markov Analysis
The answer is: a. Nominal Group Technique
Nominal group technique is a structured meeting format designed to elicit participation from all members of the group in order to arrive at the best possible solution.
The Delphi Technique is based on the principle that forecasts (or decisions) from a structured group of individuals are more accurate than those from unstructured groups. The experts answer questionnaires in two or more rounds. After each round, a facilitator or change agent provides an anonymised summary of the experts’ forecasts from the previous round as well as the reasons they provided for their judgments.
A Regression analysis is a set of statistical processes for estimating the relationships between a dependent variable and one or more independent variables.
The Markov analysis is a method used to forecast the value of a variable whose predicted value is influenced only by its current state, and not by any prior activity. In essence, it predicts a random variable based solely upon the current circumstances surrounding the variable
What type of interview process is used to guage a candidates ability to handle difficult situations?
a) Case-based interviews
b) Behavioural interviews
c) Stress interviews
d) Situational interviews
The correct answer is c. Stress interviews
Panel intreview - interviewed by a group of people at the same time
Serial interview - A serial interview involves a group of people, but not all at once. You are handed off from person to person.
Situational interviews - During the situational interview candidates are asked specific questions about how they would handle certain circumstances at their job. The candidate is asked to assess a situation and to provide solutions on how they would handle it.
Behavioural interviews - based interviewing is interviewing based on discovering how the interviewee acted in specific employment-related situations. The logic is that how you behaved in the past will predict how you will behave in the future, i.e., past behavior predicts future performance.
Case-based interviews - is a type of job interview in which the candidate must analyze and solve a problematic business scenario (“case study”).
Stress interviews - A stress interview is an interviewing style that companies use to gauge a candidate’s response to stress. The idea is that it’ll give the hiring team an idea of how you’ll respond when juggling various high-priority tasks, dealing with challenging clients, or facing a difficult co-worker or manager.
Mass interviews - is defined as where a panel interviews several candidates simultaneously. The panel poses a problem, and then watches to see which candidate takes the lead in formulating an answer.
A hazard analysis identifies:
a) The accidents that have occurred in the workplace
b) The hazardous materials present in the workplace
c) The probability and consequences of safety risks in the workplace
d) The severity and frequency of lost-time injuries
The answer is:c. The probability and consequences of safety risks in the workplace
A hazard analysis is used as the first step in a process used to assess risk. The result of a hazard analysis is the identification of different type of hazards. A hazard is a potential condition and exists or not.
What is the best method for keeping employees?
a) On-boarding
b) Orientation
c) Sociliazation
d) Growth opportunities
The correct answer is a. Socialization
Socialization - Ongoing process of reinforcing the organization’s values, goals, and priorities
On-boarding - Helping new employeees fit in to the organization’s culture
Orientation - Providing standard information about who, what, and where
Which of the following is false about the Employment Standards Act?
a) Terms that are lower than the minimum standards set out in the Act can be negotiated through collective bargaining.
b) The Act stipulates overtime payments for non-management employees.
c) Some occupations are excluded from the Act.
d) Employment Standards Act is a provincial legislation.
The answer is: a. Terms that are lower than the minimum standards set out in the Act can be negotiated through collective bargaining.
Which of the following employee sourcing methods can lead to discriminatory hiring practices?
a) Direct mail advertising
b) Job fairs
c) Advertising on job boards
d) Employee referral
The answer is: d. Employee referral
Which of the following is a long-term incentive plan?
a) Profit-sharing
b) Piece rate
c) Commission
d) Stock options
The correct answer is d.
Stock options are equity plans that vest over time. They can be a good retention strategy that encourage employees to take a long-term focus on bottom-line performance.
Which of the following is true of a deferred profit-sharing plan?
a) Money paid into the plan must vest over 2 years and is paid out on a prorated basis annually.
b) Money paid into the plan is held in a trust and paid out when the employee leaves the organization.
c) Money paid into the plan is taxed for the year in which it is earned.
d) Money paid into the plan includes a combination of immediate cash and future stock based on company profit.
The answer is b. Money paid into the plan is held in a trust and paid out when the employee leaves the organization.
Employees who participate in a deferred profit sharing plan see their contributions grow tax-free, which can lead to bigger investment gains over time, due to the compounding effect. They can access the funds prior to retirement; funds may be withdrawn partly or in their entirety within the first two years of membership. Taxes are then paid upon withdrawal
Functional Area: TR
McDonald’s strives to “be the best quick service restaurant experience”. This is its __________ statement.
a) Mission
b) Vision
c) Competitive position
d) Operational goal
The answer is: b. Vision
The Vision Statement: A clear and compelling statement about the future that serves to unite an organization’s efforts.
The Mission Statement: An articulation of a view of a realistic, credible and attractive future for the organization.
The Values Statement: Conveys a sense of identity for employees.
Name the three most popular non-academic engagement models
Gallop - Q12
Aon Hewit
Towers Watson
What is the formula for employee turnover?
a) (Resignations + retirements + involundary terminations) divided by headcount
b) The headcount at the beginning of the year minus the headcount at the end of the year
c) FTE at the beginning of the year minus FTE at the end of the year
d) (# of employees at the beginning of the year minus # employees at the end of the year) divided by # employees at the beginning of the year
The correct answer is a. (Resignations + retirements + involundary terminations) divided by headcount
It is necessary to track every incident of an employee exiting the company in order to measure turnover.
The foundational law that governs the ability of people to participate in all aspects of society, including employment in Canada is:
a) Employment Equity
b) Charter of Rights and Freedoms
c) Human Rights
d) Employment Standards
The correct answer is: b.
As part of the Canadian Constitution, The Charter of Rights and Freedoms is a law that underpins all other laws in Canada.
All of the following are post-training initiatives used to enhance the transfer of training EXCEPT:
a) Booster sessions
b) Debriefs
c) Feedback
d) Attentional advice
The answer is: d. Attentional advice
In industrial relations, what is the strategic choice perspective?
a) Minimizing the role of unionization in the workplace.
b) Voluntary recognition of the union by the employer.
c) Empowering employees to choose unionization.
d) Recognizing the role of multiple stakeholders in the employment relationship.
The answer is a. Minimizing the role of unionization in the workplace.
Industrial Relations
•Includes all the employment issues and relationships governing the workplace.
For example:
•The organization of the work environment
•Employment contracts
•Human resource management
•Employment relations
•Conflict management
•Employee attitudes and behaviours at work
Functional Area: S
All of the following statements are true about a large team, EXCEPT
a) It has a more difficult time to becoming and staying cohesive.
b) The larger the group, the more likely social loafing will occur.
c) Team productivity rises as the number of members increases.
d) Individuals tend to identify less with team accomplishments.
The answer is: c. Team productivity rises as the number of members increases.
Which of the following is true of labour boards?
a) They oversee the collective bargaining process.
b) They hear claims of illegal strikes and lockouts.
c) They enforce employment standards.
d) They refer unfair labour practices to the Ministry of Labour.
The answer is b. They hear claims of illegal strikes and lockouts.
Functional Area: L&ER
Which of the following could lead to a constructive dismissal claim by an employee?
a) Demotion
b) Discharge
c) Suspension with pay
d) Poor performance evaluation
The answer is a. Demotion
A constructive dismissal in Ontario is defined as follows: if an employer makes a substantial change to the terms of an employee’s employment without the employee’s consent or demonstrates an intention to no longer be bound by the terms of the employment contract
Functional Area: L&ER
Which of the following is NOT considered when conducting a training needs analysis?
a) The performance needs of the employee
b) The task requirements of the job
c) The return on investment of the training
d) The organization’s strategic priorities
The answer is: c. The return on investment of the training
Needs Analysis:
- Organization analysis assesses strategy, priorities,environment, training transfer culture.
- Task analysis assesses the job requirements.
- Person analysis assesses the desired performance,performance gaps, and obstacles.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five disciplines of “the learning organization”?
a) Mental models
b) Strategic thinking
c) Personal mastery
d) Team learning
The answer is: b. Strategic thinking
The Five Disciplines/Characteristics of a LearningOrganization:
- Systems thinking
- Personal mastery
- Mental models
- Shared vision
- Team learning
Which of the following measures an organization’s demand for labour?
a) Management forecasts
b) Skills and management inventories
c) Markov analysis
d) Replacement charts
The answer is a. Management forecasts
Functional Area: HRMR&FM
Compa-ratio is a metric that measures:
a) Compensation effectiveness
b) Salary distribution
c) Company performance curve
d) Compliance with legal requirements
The answer is: b. Salary distribution
Compa-ratio (comparison ratio) is a compensation metric that compares the salary an employee is paid to the midpoint of the salary range for their position or similar positions at other companies.
Compa-ratios reveal how far an employee’s pay is from the market midpoint - in other words salary distribution.
The electrical wires in a photocopier catch fire. What class of fire is this?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
You have entered c. The answer is c. Class C
Class A - fires are fires in ordinary combustibles such as wood, paper, cloth, rubber, and many plastics.
Class B - fires are fires in flammable liquids such as gasoline, petroleum greases, tars, oils, oil-based paints, solvents, alcohols. Class B fires also include flammable gases such as propane and butane. Class B fires do not include fires involving cooking oils and grease.
Class C - C fires are fires involving energized electical equipment such as computers, servers, motors, transformers, and appliances. Remove the power and the Class C fire becomes one of the other classes of fire.
Class D - fires are fires in combustible metals such as magnesium, titanium, zirconium, sodium, lithium, and potassium.
Class K - fires are fires in cooking oils and greases such as animal and vegetable fats.
Functional Area: HW&SW
How frequently must Material Safety Data Sheets be updated?
a) Every year
b) Every 2 years
c) Every 3 years
d) Every 5 years
The answer is c. Every 3 years
Functional Area: HW&SW
When unsure about the ethical implications of an activity or a decision, what should an HR Professional do?
a) Consult with his/her supervisor.
b) Consult with other HR practitioners.
c) Consult with the individual impacted.
d) Consult industry standards
The answer is a. Consult with his/her supervisor.
Functional Area: PP
When designing a benefit plan, what is the first question an organization should answer?
a) What benefits can we afford?
b) What is the competition providing?
c) What benefits do employees want to receive?
d) What is the role of benefits in our compensation strategy?
The answer is d. What is the role of benefits in our compensation strategy?
Functional Area: TR
During a union certification drive, what does voluntary recognition mean?
a) Employees voluntarily accept the union as their representative.
b) The labour relations board recognizes the status of the union without holding a vote.
c) The employer voluntarily recognizes the union as its employees’ representative.
d) The union and employer voluntarily recognize the composition of the bargaining unit.
The answer is c. The employer voluntarily recognizes the union as its employees’ representative.
The Certification Process
•Contact between employees and a union representative
•Organizing meeting
•Formation of an in house organizing committee
•Application to the Labour Relations Board
•Determination of the bargaining unit
•Recognition or employee vote
•Contract negotiations
What is job analysis?
Job analysis is the process of obtaining information about jobs by determining the duties, tasks, or activities of those jobs.
The procedure involves systematically investigating jobs by following a number of predetermined steps specified in advance of the study.
When completed, job analysis results in a written report summarizing the information obtained from the analysis of 20 or 30 individual job tasks or activities.
HR managers use these data to develop job descriptions and job specifications. These documents, in turn, are used to perform and enhance the different HR functions, such as the development of performance appraisal criteria or the content of training classes.
The ultimate purpose of job analysis is to improve organizational performance and productivity
This can be conducted through interviews, questionnaires, observations, diaries.
When performance expectations are clear but incompatible, this results in:
a) Role ambiguity
b) Job overloading
c) Affective conflict
d) Role conflict
The answer is: d. Role conflict
Risk Management has two main questions when thinking about the process - what are they?
- What can go wrong?
- What can be done to “prevent” or “respond to”the risk.
Name the Four Risk Management Management strategies that organizations use to deal with risk
Remember “AAMT”
Avoidance - Stop providing the service or doing the activity.
Acceptance - An organization will choose to accept the risks.
Modification - Change the activity to reduce the likelihood of the risk occurring or to reduce the severity of the consequences.
Transfer or Sharing - Transfer the risk to another organization through signing a contractual agreement.
What is the purpose of establishing an employee value proposition?
a) To articulate the employer brand.
b) To evaluate employee engagement.
c) To establish a total rewards program.
d) To support employee socialization.
The answer is a. To articulate the employer brand.
Functional Area: S
The instructional systems design model starts with:
a) Establishing training objectives
b) Designing training content
c) Identifying learning methods
d) Conducting a needs anlaysis
The correct answer is d.Conducting a needs anlaysis
Training needs analysis includes an organization, task and person analysis, and identifies what and whether training is required.
When managing risks associated with HR practices, which of the following is not a risk management strategy?
a) Avoid
b) Accept
c) Transfer
d) Escalate
The correct answer: is d. Escalate
Risks are either avoided through safeguards, transferred to a third party (for example an insurance company through the purchase of insurance), or accepted as a result of them being minor.
What is the first step in Kotter’s 8-step model of change?
a) Create a vision.
b) Form a guiding coalition.
c) Establish a sense of urgency.
d) Unfreeze the status quo.
The answer is c. Establish a sense of urgency.
- *Kotter’s Eight-Step Change Model:**
1. Create a Sense of Urgency
2. Create a Guiding Coalition
3. Develop a Vision and Strategy
4. Communicate the Vision and Strategy
5. Empower Broad-Based Action
6. Generate Short-term Wins
7. Consolidate Gains and Produce More Change
8. Anchor the Change in the Culture of the Organization
An organization that has a functional structure, is bottom-line driven, and focuses on providing excellent customer service is said to have what kind of culture?
a) Clan culture
b) Market culture
c) Hierarchical culture
d) Adhocracy culture
The correct answer is b. A Market culture is characterized as having a stable structure with an external focus.
Name one of the following that is NOT part of an employee demand program
a) Work sharing
b) Contracting out
c) Promotions
d) Recalling laid off workers
The answer is a. Work sharing is part of the surplus program
Four Stages of Forecasting:
Step 1 - Determining demand
Step 2 - Ascertain supply
Step 3 - Calculate net requirements
Step 4 - Institute deficit or surplus programs
Deficit Programs include:
• Hiring part-time, full-time or temporary employees;
• Promoting or transferring staff to where they are
needed;
• Recalling laid off workers or retirees;
• Contracting out.
Surplus Programs include:
• Employee lay-offs or terminations;
• Job sharing and Work-Sharing;
• Hiring freeze and natural attrition.
According to the Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System, which type of hazard is represented by a symbol depicting a cylinder inside a circle?
a) Class A – Compressed gas
b) Class C – Oxidizing material
c) Class D – Poisonous and infectious material
d) Class E – Corrosive material
The answer is a. Class A – Compressed gas
What are the 3 major steps that form the instructional systems design model of training?
a) Budget approval, training objectives, and design and delivery.
b) Management approval, design and delivery, and evaluation.
c) Cost-benefit analysis, learner assessment, and design and delivery.
d) Needs analysis, design and delivery, and evaluation.
The answer is d. Needs analysis, design and delivery, and evaluation.
Which of the following sequences demonstrates conditioning theory?
a) Stimulus–consequence–behaviour
b) Stimulus–behaviour–consequence
c) Consequence–stimulus–behaviour
d) Behaviour–stimulus–consequence
The answer is b. Stimulus–behaviour–consequence
Stimlus (events) –>
Behaviour (repsonse) –>
Consequences (positive/negative reinforcement)
Shaping = the reinforcement of each step in a process until it is mastered
Chaining = the reinformcent of entire sequences of a task
Generalization = the conditioned response occurs in circumstances different from those during learning
