Full List Flashcards

1
Q

CIA

A
  • Confidentiality: prevent unauthorized information disclosure.
  • Integrity: data remains unaltered
  • Availability: information is accessible to authorized users
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

AAA

A
  • Authentication: prove your identity, e.g. password
  • Authorization: what resources you have access to.
  • Accounting: record of the resources used, e.g. login time, logout time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

PKI

A

Public Key Infrastructure: A system of policies, procedures, and technology for managing digital certificates to securely link public keys to people or devices, enabling trusted communication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

TPM

A

Trusted Platform Module: a microprocessor that provides cryptographic functions for a single device, e.g. storing BitLocker keys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

HSM

A

Hardware Security Module: a dedicated device for storing and managing encryption keys for many devices, typically used in large environments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CA

A

Certificate Authority: A trusted organization that issues and manages digital certificates to verify the identity of entities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CRL

A

Certificate Revocation List: list of invalidated certificates that’s maintained by the Certificate Authority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

OCSP

A

Online Certificate Status Protocol: real-time certificate validity checks through browser.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CSR

A

Certificate Signing Request: request the Certificate Authority to issue a digital certificate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

SMS

A

Short Message Service: a text messaging service that allows the exchange of short text messages between mobile devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

IM

A

Instant Messaging: the exchange of near-real-time messages through online software.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MSP

A

Managed Service Providers: A company that manages IT infrastructure and services for organizations remotely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

TOC/TOU

A

Time-of-check to Time-of-use: exploiting the gap between verification and execution in race conditions. A race condition is exploiting processes running simultaneously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

SQLi

A

Structured Query Language injection: injecting malicious SQL commands into a database query.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

XSS

A

Cross Site Scripting: injecting scripts into web pages viewed by users.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

VM escape

A

Virtual Machine escape: gaining access to a host from a virtual machine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

RFID cloning

A

Radio Frequency Identification cloning: duplicating RFID cards or tags.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DDoS

A

Distributed Denial of Service: flooding a service with requests from several computers to cause downtime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DNS attack

A

Domain Name System: exploiting vulnerabilities in DNS to redirect traffic from a website.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

IoT

A

Internet of Things: A network of interconnected devices that communicate and exchange data over the internet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

VLAN

A

Virtual Local Area Network: a network segmentation technique that groups devices logically to improve performance and security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ACL

A

Access Control List: a list of rules that lists access permissions based on an allow/deny list.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HIPS

A

Host-based Intrusion Prevention System: a security software that detects and prevents unauthorized access to a system on a host.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

IaC

A

Infrastructure as Code: Managing and provisioning infrastructure through code, useful in software development to build, test, and deploy applications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

SDN

A

Software-defined Networking: network infrastructure that enables the network to be centrally controlled using software applications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ICS/SCADA

A

Industrial Control Systems & Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition System: systems used to monitor and control industrial processes, e.g. power generation, energy, manufacturing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

RTOS

A

Real-time Operating System: low-latency systems with high security demands, an OS with deterministic processing schedule, e.g. military environments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

IPS/IDS

A

Intrusion Prevention/Detection System: designed to monitor and alert (IDS) or actively block (IPS) malicious activities in a network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

PSK

A

Pre-shared Key: A shared password used for authentication in wireless networks like WPA2/WPA3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

EAP

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol: authentication framework for secure communication, can be used withan authentication database like RADIUS, LDAP, or TACACS+.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

802.1X

A

IEEE 802.1X: port-based network access control that authenticates users using EAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

WAF

A

Web Application Firewall: a firewall that protects against web threats like SQL injection, it applies rules to HTTP/HTTPS conversations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

UTM

A

Unified Threat Management: all-in-one security appliance in one device, can contain IDS/IPS, URL filter, spam filter, etc.

34
Q

NGFW

A

Next-generation Firewall: advanced firewall with application-layer filtering, has deep packet inspection.

35
Q

VPN

A

Virtual Private Network: encrypting data going through a public network for secure remote access.

36
Q

TLS

A

Transport Layer Security: encrypting data communication over a network through port 443 (HTTPS) at the application layer.

37
Q

IPSec

A

Internet Protocol Security: secures internet communications by encrypting and authenticating data packets at the network layer.

38
Q

SD-WAN

A

Software-defined Wide Area Network: a WAN built for the cloud giving efficient access to public cloud applications.

39
Q

SASE

A

Secure Access Service Edge: a next-generation VPN that allows you to connect securely from different locations, or anywhere.

40
Q

UPS

A

Uninterruptible Power Supply: battery backup to keep systems running temporarily during power loss.

41
Q

MDM

A

Mobile Device Management: software for managing and securing mobile devices within an organization.

42
Q

BYOD

A

Bring Your Own Device: employees using personal devices at work.

43
Q

COPE

A

Corporate-owned, personally enabled: company provides the device with limited personal use.

44
Q

CYOD

A

Choose Your Own Device: employees choose from pre-approved devices.

45
Q

WPA3

A

Wi-Fi Protected Access 3: advanced encryption for web networks.

46
Q

RADIUS

A

Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service: protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) for users accessing a network.

47
Q

OSINT

A

Open-Source Intelligence: the process of gathering publicly available information to assess threats.

48
Q

CVSS

A

Common Vulnerability Scoring System: evaluate and rank reported vulnerabilities in a standardized way.

49
Q

CVE

A

Common Vulnerability Enumeration: identifying and cataloging known vulnerabilities, maintained by MITRE.

50
Q

SCAP

A

Security Content Automation Protocol: framework for managing security policies and compliance.

51
Q

SIEM

A

Security Information and Event Management: centralised logging and analysis tool used to detect, analyze, and respond to security threats.

52
Q

DLP

A

Data Loss Protection: protecting sensitive data from unauthorized sharing or data exflitration.

53
Q

SNMP traps

A

Simple Network Management Protocol traps: alerts sent by devices to monitor systems.

54
Q

URL scanning

A

Uniform Resource Locator scanning: analysis of URLs for malicious content.

55
Q

DMARC

A

Domain-based Message Authentication Reporting and Conformance: builds on SPF and DKIM, letting domain owners set policies for handling unauthenticated emails and receive compliance reports.

56
Q

DKIM

A

DomainKeys Identified Mail: digitally signs outgoing emails, validated by receivers using a public key in DNS.

57
Q

SPF

A

Sender Policy Framework: list of all servers authorized to send emails for a domain.

58
Q

NAC

A

Network Access Controls: controls and restricts device access to a network based on policies.

59
Q

EDR/XDR

A

Endpoint Detection and Response/Extended Detection and Response: advanced tools for detecting and responding to endpoint or network based threats.

60
Q

SSO

A

Single Sign On: enables users to authenticate on several sites with one set of credentials.

61
Q

LDAP

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol: protocol for reading and writing directories over an internet network.

62
Q

OAuth

A

Open Authorization: an authorization framework that determines what resource a user will be able to access.

63
Q

SAML

A

Security Assertions Markup Language: open standard for authentication and authorization, not originally designed for mobile.

64
Q

RBAC

A

Role-based Access Control: a security model where access permissions are assigned based on user roles within an organization.

65
Q

PDACERL (Incident Response Phases)

A
  • Preparation
  • Detection
  • Analysis
  • Containment
  • Eradication
  • Recovery
  • Lessons Learned
66
Q

AUP

A

Acceptable Use Policy: defines acceptable usage of company resources.

67
Q

SDLC

A

Software Development Life Cycle: the development process involved to build a software application, security must be applied at every stage.

68
Q

SLE

A

Single Loss Expectancy: cost of a single incident

69
Q

ALE

A

Annualized Loss Expectancy: yearly cost of a risk, ARO x SLE

70
Q

ARO

A

Annualized Rate of Occurrence: frequency of incidents per year.

71
Q

RTO

A

Recovery Time Objective: time to restore services after an incident.

72
Q

RPO

A

Recovery Point Objective: maximum tolerable data loss measured in time.

73
Q

MTTR

A

Mean Time to Repair: average time requested to fix issue.

74
Q

MTBF

A

Mean Time Between Failures: time between outages, e.g. total uptime, number of breakdowns

75
Q

SLA

A

Service Level Agreement: minumum terms for services provided, e.g. uptime, response time agreement.

76
Q

MOA

A

Memorandum of Agreement: documenting mutual obligations, usually a formal or legal document.

77
Q

MOU

A

Memorandum of Understanding: outlining informal agreements, states common goals.

78
Q

MSA

A

Master Service Agreement: legal contract and agreement of terms, governs long term relationships.

79
Q

WO/SOW

A

Work Order/Statement of Work: specific list of items to be completed, specific project terms.

80
Q

NDA

A

Non-disclosure Agreement: protecting shared sensitive information, confidentiality agreement.

81
Q

BPA

A

Business Partners Agreement: guidelines for business partnerships, lists specific individuals and scope.

82
Q

MFA

A

Multifactor Authentication: A security method requiring multiple forms of verification, such as something you know (password), have (token), or are (biometric).