Full Deck of Questions

Question 1

According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, steel I beams will elongate when heated and can push out a load-bearing walls. A 50-foot (15.2m) beam may elongate by as much as ___ inches/mm when heated to about 1,000 degrees F (538 degrees C):
A) 2 inches (50.8 mm)
B) 4 inches (102 mm)
C) 8 inches (203.2 mm)
D) 11 inches (279.4 mm)

Answer 1

B) 4 inches (102 mm)

(Answer B: TS 3-4a)

Question 2

According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, the temperature at which a steel member will depend on many variables. Which of the following is NOT one of those variables:
A) Size
B) Load
C) Composition
D) Age

Answer 2

D) Age

(Answer D: TS 3-4b)

Question 3

According to the training document on Building Construction Materials and Building Collapse located on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT a safety precaution for imminent building collapse:
A. Immediately evacuate personnel within the building
B. Set up a collapse zone around the building perimeter
C. Allow personnel or apparatus to operate within the collapse zone
D. Use only unmanned master streams if fire streams are necessary within the collapse zone

Answer 3

C. Allow personnel or apparatus to operate within the collapse zone

(Answer C: TS 3-12)

Question 4

According to the Personal Note Taking document on HFDnet, under the heading Best Practices, notes are to be completed as events occur, or at the first available opportunity. What is the time frame that notes should be completed within?
A) 12 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 2 days
D) 1 week

Answer 4

B) 24 hours

(Answer B)

Question 5

According to the Personal Note Taking document on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT an advantage of good note taking?
A) Thorough notes make your evidence more credible
B) Cover against civil liability
C) Shows a commitment to quality work
D) Less likely to be subjected to prolonged cross examination

Answer 5

C) Shows a commitment to quality work

(Answer C)

Question 6

According to the Personal Note Taking document on HFDnet, which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of poor note taking?
A) May require you to rewrite your notes
B) Without notes our memories tend fail. It can be embarrassing when court trials are not called until months and years after the even
C) May have to concede under cross examination that recollection may not be as accurate
D) A lack of notes is usually an indicator for the defense to conduct a tenacious cross examination

Answer 6

A) May require you to rewrite your notes

(Answer A)

Question 7

According to Memo 2017 – AP – 110, all personnel will rotate the use of their Bunker Gear:
A) On a monthly cycle or sooner if required and logged into FDM
B) On a biannual cycle in conjunction with deep clean and inspection by an outside contractor and logged into FDM
C) On a three (3) month cycle or sooner if required and logged into FDM
D) On a “as needed” cycle and logged into FDM

Answer 7

C) On a three (3) month cycle or sooner if required and logged into FDM

Answer: C

Question 8

According to AP Memo 2021-AP-676 “Training Tablets and New Training Tablet Policy”, what is the passcode for all the tablets:
A) 123654
B) Passcode
C) H@mi1t0n
D) Summer2012

Answer 8

A) 123654

Answer: A

Question 9

According to AP Memo 2021-AP-676 “Training Tablets and New Training Tablet Policy”, Who will be held accountable for the tablets while in service in the stations?
A) 6.1 Senior Chiefs and Safety Officers will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer
B) 6.1 Station Officers and supervisors will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer.
C) 6.1 Training Officers will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer.
D) 6.1 All firefighters will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer.

Answer 9

B) 6.1 Station Officers and supervisors will ensure that the HFD training tablets and peripheries (Charging stations, accessory cords, etc.) are accounted for in the workplace daily. They will report deficiencies, damage or missing tablets immediately to their supervisor and submit a Loss/Damage Report (437). Supervisors will then inform the Chief Training Officer.

Answer: B

Question 10

The HFDNET Training Index document “Thermal Imaging Camera – General Use and Operation 2017 identifies two modes of operation. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the two modes of operation:
A) High Sense Mode (High temperature, lower image quality) and Low Sense Mode (Low temperatures, higher image quality)
B) High Sense Mode (High image quality, lower temperatures) and Low Sense Mode (Low image quality, higher temperatures)
C) High Sense Mode (High image quality, high temperatures) and Low Sense Mode (Low image quality, low temperatures)
D) High Sense Mode (Low image quality, higher temperatures) and Low Sense Mode (High image quality, lower temperatures)

Answer 10

B) High Sense Mode (High image quality, lower temperatures) and Low Sense Mode (Low image quality, higher temperatures)

Answer: B

Question 11

According to Training Bulletin #271 – “Cold Environments – Working in the Cold”, which temperature range is considered a Moderate risk in wind chill conditions (Table 2)?
A) 0 to – 9 degrees Celsius
B) – 10 to – 27 degrees Celsius
C) – 28 to – 39 degrees Celsius
D) – 40 to – 47 degrees Celsius

Answer 11

B) – 10 to – 27 degrees Celsius

Answer: B

Question 12

According to Memo 2018-AP-157, Workplace Safety & Insurance Board (WSIB)Injury/Exposure Reporting Checklist, it is imperative that all personnel make themselves familiar with the procedures, the completion the Parklane Report is the responsibility of:
A) The highest-ranking officer on scene
B) The individual leading the Training session
C) The Workplace Supervisor
D) The Station Captain

Answer 12

C) The Workplace Supervisor

Answer: C

Question 13

According to Training Bulletin # 270 Blitzfire Portable Ground Monitor, procedures to reduce the risk of unlimited movement do not include:
A) Always keep the hose directly behind the monitor for approximately 10 feet
B) Always loop the hose in front of the monitor
C) Always tie off the monitor
D) Keep personnel out of the potential path of a moving/sliding monitor

Answer 13

B) Always loop the hose in front of the monitor

Answer: B

Question 14

Which of the following construction features is not associated with Center Core Construction according to HFDNET - High Rise Construction:
A) The core of this building contains the necessary pipes and ducts for all building services
B) Balconies act as a fire break in addition to serving as a sage refuge area in the event of a fire.
C) Water, electrical wires, cables, fuel lines etc. along with air supply and exhaust/return ducts are all located within the core
D) All means of vertical travel are located within the core as well

Answer 14

B) Balconies act as a fire break in addition to serving as a sage refuge area in the event of a fire.

Answer: B

Question 15

According to HFDNET - High Rise Construction, the description of “Stratification of Smoke” in high-rise buildings does not include:
A) Because a higher percentage of heat and smoke can accumulate in a confined space (high rise) with little potential for top level ventilation, the sudden admittance of air into the high rise can easily lead to a backdraft potential
B) The creation of layers of smoke and fire gases on floors below the top floor of sealed multi-story buildings is a relatively new phenomenon.
C) Since no normal leakage occurs, all of the smoke and fire gases produced will accumulate at various levels until the building is ventilated.
D) The products of combustion rise through any vertical opening until their temperature is reduced to the temperature of the surrounding air. When this occurs, smoke and fire gases form layers or clouds within the building

Answer 15

A) Because a higher percentage of heat and smoke can accumulate in a confined space (high rise) with little potential for top level ventilation, the sudden admittance of air into the high rise can easily lead to a backdraft potential

Answer: A

Question 16

According to Memorandum 2021-AP-523 – Deployment of Rescue 42 Vehicle Stabilization kits:
A) Rescue 42 struts shall be the preferred equipment utilized during an incident that requires stabilization
B) Z-mag stabilization equipment will remain on apparatus along with Rescue 42 equipment
C) If both Z-Mags and Rescue 42 equipment are available, Z-Mags will be the preferred stabilization device
D) If first arriving apparatus on-scene only have Z-Mags, crews shall delay extrication efforts to wait for Rescue 42 stabilization equipment to arrive

Answer 16

A) Rescue 42 struts shall be the preferred equipment utilized during an incident that requires stabilization

Answer: A

Question 17

According to Memo 2022-AP-011, 45mm Hose High-Rise Bundle, which of the following statement regarding High-rise pack deployment is correct;
A) To accomplish a dry-lay/ Non-tenable deployment, the nozzle bundle is carried into the fire floor hallway and placed at the hinge side of the fire apartment
B) To accomplish a dry-lay/ Tenable deployment, the nozzle bundle is extended up the stairs above the entry point to the fire floor
C) To accomplish a Wet-lay/ Tenable deployment, all three bundles are extended in the stairwell below the entry point to the fire floor
D) To accomplish a Wet-lay/ Non-tenable deployment, the nozzle bundle is extended up the stairs above the entry point to the fire floor

Answer 17

D) To accomplish a Wet-lay/ Non-tenable deployment, the nozzle bundle is extended up the stairs above the entry point to the fire floor

Answer: D

Question 18

According to Memo 2022-AP-011, 45mmHose High-Rise Bundle, which of the following best describes the first steps to accomplish either the Dry-Lay/Tenable or the Wet-Lay/Non-Tenable deployment of the High-rise pack:
A) Shoulder carry all three bundles onto the fire floor, place the bundles coupling-side up, side, by side on the floor, make the appropriate connections and extend hose
B) Shoulder carry all three bundles, place the bundles coupling-side up, side, by side on the floor, make the appropriate connections, move and extend the bundles dependent upon fire floor conditions
C) Shoulder carry two or three bundles to the standpipe nearest the fire, place the bundles coupling-side up, side by side on the floor, and make appropriate connection and extend the hose
D) Shoulder carry all three bundles onto the floor below the fire, place the bundles coupling-side up, side, by side on the floor, make the appropriate connections and fully extend the hose on that floor, proceed up to the fire floor

Answer 18

B) Shoulder carry all three bundles, place the bundles coupling-side up, side, by side on the floor, make the appropriate connections, move and extend the bundles dependent upon fire floor conditions

Answer: B

Question 19

According to Training Bulletin #136, Helicopter Safety, what are the minimum dimensions that should be used for the Landing Zone?
A) 200ft x 200ft
B) 500ft x 500ft
C) 150ft x 150ft
D) 1000ft x 1000ft

Answer 19

C) 150ft x 150ft

(Answer C : Ornge Helicopter Safety Sheet)

Question 20

According to Training Bulletin #136, Helicopter Safety, when on uneven ground, which side should you approach the helicopter from?
A) Uphill side
B) Downhill Side
C) Side doesn’t matter as long as you cover your head
D) None of the above
(Answer B: Point 13 on page 2 and Ornge Helicopter Safety Sheet)

Answer 20

B) Downhill Side

(Answer B: Point 13 on page 2 and Ornge Helicopter Safety Sheet)

Question 21

According to Training Bulletin #136, Helicopter Safety, which of the following is a false statement?
A) Any hose line that has been laid out shall be charged prior to air ambulance arrival
B) Use flares to outline the safe landing zone for the helicopter
C) Ensure that all vehicles remain 150 feet away from the landing zone
D) Ensure that all personnel remain 200 feet clear of the on-ground helicopter

Answer 21

B) Use flares to outline the safe landing zone for the helicopter

(Answer B: Point 6 on page 1 and Ornge Helicopter Safety Sheet)

Question 22

According to Training Bulletin #221, Epi-Pen, which of the following is NOT a symptom of anaphylaxis.
A) Swelling of the throat, lips, tongue, or the area around the eyes
B) Increased blood pressure
C) Difficulty breathing or swallowing
D) Increased heart rate

Answer 22

B) Increased blood pressure

(Answer B: page 1 of bulletin)

Question 23

According to Training Bulletin #221, Epi-Pen, what is the correct Medical Directive for the Hamilton Fire Department?
A) Patients showing signs of anaphylaxis may receive two doses of epinephrine 5-15 minutes apart
B) Patients showing signs of anaphylaxis may receive four doses of epinephrine 3-5 minutes apart
C) Patients showing signs of anaphylaxis may receive two doses of epinephrine 3-5 minutes apart
D) Patients showing signs of anaphylaxis may receive four doses of epinephrine 5-15 minutes apart

Answer 23

(answer A : page 2 of bulletin)

Question 24

According to Training Bulletin #221, Epi-Pen, there are recommendations that should be followed for the safe storage of Epinephrine, which of the following is one of these recommendations?
A) Regularly check the viewing window on your EpiPen Auto-Injector and replace it if the solution is brown, discoloured or cloudy
B) EpiPen should be stored in refrigerator to maintain potency
C) EpiPen should be stored in warm environments to maintain potency
D) Keep EpiPen in your pocket to ensure quick access when needed

Answer 24

A) Regularly check the viewing window on your EpiPen Auto-Injector and replace it if the solution is brown, discoloured or cloudy

(Answer A : bottom of page 2 of bulletin)

Question 25

According to Training Bulletin #224, Narcan Administration, which of the following is NOT listed as a sign or symptom of Opiate Withdrawal?
A) Aggressive or combative behavior
B) Confusion
C) Shortness of breath
D) Complacency

Answer 25

D) Complacency

(Answer D: last paragraph page 6 of bulletin)

Question 26

According to Training Bulletin #224, Narcan Administration, if you encounter a patient who you suspect has overdosed on opioids, and who is Vital Signs Absent, what is your course of action?
A) Administer one dose of Narcan then initiate CPR
B) Defibrillate, initiate CPR, administer Narcan
C) Initiate CPR and administer Narcan concurrent with compressions
D) CPR for 3 minutes, analyse, administer Narcan

Answer 26

C) Initiate CPR and administer Narcan concurrent with compressions

(Answer C: top of page 6 of bulletin)

Question 27

According to Training Bulletin #224, Narcan Administration, the following are true about Narcan with the exception of:
A) It reverses respiratory depression by knocking the opioids off the receptors and restoring breathing
B) It’s fast acting (usually within 5 minutes) and the protective effect lasts for 30 to 90 minutes.
C) Narcan is also effective for non-opioid overdoses (e.g., cocaine, ecstasy, GHB or alcohol).
D) Narcan binds to opioid receptors more tightly than opioids

Answer 27

C) Narcan is also effective for non-opioid overdoses (e.g., cocaine, ecstasy, GHB or alcohol).

(Answer C: In paragraph “how does it work” on page 1 of bulletin)

Question 28

According to Training Bulletin #143, Penetrating Chest Injuries, the correct treatment for an open chest wound is:
A) An occlusive dressing, adding others as dressing becomes saturated
B) An occlusive dressing taped on 3 sides only
C) A non-occlusive dressing, replacing as dressing becomes saturated
D) Pressure dressing

Answer 28

C) A non-occlusive dressing, replacing as dressing becomes saturated

(Answer C: page 3 of bulletin under “Treatment”)

Question 29

According to Training Bulletin #143, Penetrating Chest Injuries, what life-threatening condition can poor treatment for open chest wounds lead to?
A) Stroke
B) Embolism
C) Tension Pneumothorax
D) Flail Chest

Answer 29

C) Tension Pneumothorax

(Answer C: page 3 of bulletin)

Question 30

According to Training Bulletin #158, Heart & Stroke CPR & Hamilton Fire Department SAED Protocol, which statement is true when dealing with a penetrating trauma patient?
A) Continue to reassess and re-analyze frequently until EMS arrival
B) A total of (1) “No Shock Advised” received at any point within the resuscitation ends the protocol
C) A total of (4) “No Shock Advised” received at any point within the resuscitation ends the protocol
D) For all resuscitation events the target compression rate is up to but no more than 100 compressions

Answer 30

B) A total of (1) “No Shock Advised” received at any point within the resuscitation ends the protocol

(Answer B: page 6 of bulletin)

Question 31

According to Training Bulletin #158, Heart & Stroke CPR & Hamilton Fire Department SAED Protocol, Newborns are defined as being less than 24 hours old. What is the correct compression to ventilation ratio for newborns?
A) 15 compressions to 2 ventilations
B) 30 compressions to 1 ventilation
C) 3 compressions to 1 ventilation
D) 30 compressions to 1 ventilation

Answer 31

C) 3 compressions to 1 ventilation

(Answer C: chart on page 8 of bulletin)

Question 32

According to Training Bulletin #158, Heart & Stroke CPR & Hamilton Fire Department SAED Protocol, if you have a newborn patient (less than 24 hours old), whose heart rate is below 60 beats per minute, what is your course of action?
A) Attempt defibrillation
B) Begin chest compressions and ventilations at a rate of 3:1
C) Assist with breathing at a rate of 18 breaths per minute
D) Begin chest compressions and ventilations at a rate of 15:2

Answer 32

B) Begin chest compressions and ventilations at a rate of 3:1

(Answer B: Infant/Neonatal Resuscitation – page 8 of bulletin)

Question 33

According to TB 266, the MSA Premiere Cadet G1 Escape Pack Visual Inspection and Function Test. A Visual Inspection of All Components, including the Facepiece, Regulator, Cylinder and Valve Assembly will be conducted _________.
A) Daily
B) Monthly
C) Weekly
D) Bi-Weekly

Answer 33

C) Weekly

Ans. (C) Weekly

Question 34

According to TB 266, the MSA Premiere Cadet G1 Escape Pack Visual Inspection and Function Test. A
Functional Test will be performed_________.
A) Monthly
B) Weekly
C) Daily
D) Only after use

Answer 34

A) Monthly

Ans. (A) Monthly

Question 35

According to TB 262 Cylinder Tagging. Each cylinder has a colored zip tie secured around the neck of the cylinder. The colors represent_____________.
A) Station Identification
B) District Identification
C) Apparatus Identification
D) A Hydrostatic Testing Schedule

Answer 35

D) A Hydrostatic Testing Schedule

Ans. (D) A Hydrostatic Testing Schedule

Question 36

According to TB 264, Spare MSA G1 Facepieces C73 and C74. Each will carry a compliment of ______ temporary facepieces.
A) 10
B) 12
C) 5
D) 8

Answer 36

C) 5

Ans. (C) 5

Question 37

According to TB 264, Spare MSA G1 Facepieces C73 and C74. If a facepiece is issued to replace a faulty or damaged one, what must be done with the issued replacement when the original personal issued is repaired and returned.
A) The issued replacement is sent to stores
B) The issued replacement is kept in station as a spare
C) The issued replacement is cleaned, sanitized and returned to the original issuing Car73 or Car74
D) None of the above

Answer 37

Ans. (C) The issued replacement is cleaned, sanitized and returned to the original issuing Car73 or Car74

Question 38

According to TB 265 MSA G1 Facepiece and Regulator Cleaning and Disinfecting, what is the minimum recommended contact time for the Facepiece and Regulator using Confidence Plus 2.
A) 20 seconds
B) 30 seconds
C) 60 seconds
D) 45 seconds

Answer 38

Ans. (B) 30 seconds

Question 39

According to Training index files, Elevator Awareness, which of the following is not found in the 3 Golden Rules for Operating an Elevator in Firefighter Emergency Operations (FEO)?
A) Turn the switches ON (Phase I and Phase II)
B) Never leave the elevator car without the key (HOLD)
C) Have the RP (Responsible Person) operate the elevator.
D) If all goes wrong turn the Phase II switch OFF.

Answer 39

C) Have the RP (Responsible Person) operate the elevator.

(Answer C: PPT pg.53)

Question 40

According to Training index files, Elevator Awareness, which of the following is not considered an Elevator classification?
A) Passenger
B) Dumbwaiters
C) Service (which are commonly classified as passenger elevators designed to carry freight)
D) Freight

Answer 40

B) Dumbwaiters

(Answer B: PPT pg.35)

Question 41

According to Training index files, Elevator Awareness, who is the Authority Having Jurisdiction with regards to elevators in Ontario?
A) CSA (Canadian Standards Association)
B) MOL (Ministry of Labor)
C) TC (Transport Canada)
D) TSSA (Technical Standards & Safety Act)

Answer 41

D) TSSA (Technical Standards & Safety Act)

(Answer D: PPT pg.6)

Question 42

According to, Training Bulletin 38, Aerial Ladder Load Limits and Interpreting Load Charts, under what condition can an Aerial Ladder be lowered to rest upon a structure?
A) High Winds
B) Rescue Situation
C) Under no circumstances
D) Full Extension

Answer 42

C) Under no circumstances

(Answer C: Page 1)

Question 43

According to, Training Bulletin 38, Aerial Ladder Load Limits and Interpreting Load Charts, which of these are typically found on an Aerial Ladder Load Limit Chart?
A) Ladder Angle
B) Permissible Loads on each individual section, based on the Ladder’s angle of elevation
C) Permissible Loads on each individual section, based on whether the aerial water tower is flowing water or not. (Wet or Dry)
D) All of the above

Answer 43

D) All of the above

(Answer D: as seen on included charts)

Question 44

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Fire Streams 08: At 212 degrees F/100 Degrees C, water expands approximately how many times its’ original volume as it changes to steam?
A) 500
B) 875
C) 950
D) 1700

Answer 44

D) 1700

(Answer D: Slide 7 of PowerPoint)

Question 45

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Fire Streams 08: Water Hammer, which can cause damage to pumps, hoses, watermains, couplings, nozzles and hydrants, can be prevented by?
A) Operating nozzle controls, hydrants, valves, and hose clamps slowly
B) Listening for sound changes in your pump
C) Monitoring your pump pressure and intake gauges
D) Keeping the pump pressure just below the desired pressure

Answer 45

A) Operating nozzle controls, hydrants, valves, and hose clamps slowly

(Answer A: Slide 15 of PowerPoint)

Question 46

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what is the nozzle pressure / flow rate for the Akron Assault 45mm nozzle?
A) 700 kpa / 360 LPM
B) 350 kpa / 570 LPM
C) 700 kpa / 750 LPM
D) 350 kpa / 950 LPM

Answer 46

B) 350 kpa / 570 LPM

(Answer B: Slide 59 of PowerPoint)

Question 47

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what is the nozzle pressure / flow rate for the Akron Assault 65mm nozzle?
A) 700 kpa / 750 LPM
B) 350 kpa / 360 LPM
C) 350 kpa / 950 LPM
D) 700 kpa / 875 LPM
(Answer C: Slide 59 of PowerPoint)

Answer 47

C) 350 kpa / 950 LPM

(Answer C: Slide 59 of PowerPoint)

Question 48

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what is the friction loss for 15M of the 45mm hose? / 65mm hose?
A) 45mm – 120 kpa / 65mm – 45 kpa
B) 45mm – 170 kpa / 65mm – 60 kpa
C) 45mm – 240 kpa / 65mm – 90 kpa
D) 45mm – 100 kpa/ 65mm – 50 kpa

Answer 48

A) 45mm – 120 kpa / 65mm – 45 kpa

(Answer A: Slide 68 of PowerPoint)

Question 49

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, when does Cavitation occur?
A) When flowing more than 5 lines
B) When discharge tries to exceed the supply to the pump
C) When pumping over 1400 kpa
D) When you haven’t set your relief valve properly

Answer 49

B) When discharge tries to exceed the supply to the pump

(Answer B: Slide 13 of PowerPoint)

Question 50

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what is the minimum residual pressure that should be maintained on the intake gauge when being supplied by a pressurized source?
A) 50 kpa
B) 70 kpa
C) 140 kpa
D) 200 kpa

Answer 50

C) 140 kpa

(Answer C: Slide 68 of PowerPoint at bottom line. Also Slide 70. FYI, Danatec video says 150 kpa)

Question 51

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what is the friction loss ( +/- ) per meter? / per storey?
A) 3 kpa per meter / 10 kpa per storey
B) 6 kpa per meter / 20 kpa per storey
C) 10 kpa per meter / 30 kpa per storey
D) 12 kpa per meter / 40 kpa per storey

Answer 51

C) 10 kpa per meter / 30 kpa per storey

(Answer C: Slide 55 & 70 of PowerPoint)

Question 52

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Pump Operator’s Awareness Course 2020, what is the pressure required at the eductor for the purpose of creating Foam.
A) 1000 kpa
B) 875 kpa
C) 1050 kpa
D) 1400 kpa

Answer 52

D) 1400 kpa

(Answer D: Slide 70 of PowerPoint)

Question 53

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, what “Mode” should a Pressure Governor be in for the purpose of Priming the Pump?
A) Pressure
B) RPM
C) Idle
D) Preset

Answer 53

B) RPM

(Answer B: Slide 27 of PowerPoint)

Question 54

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, what engine RPM should you be at for the purpose of Priming the Pump?
A) 1400
B) 590
C) 800
D) 1000

Answer 54

D) 1000

(Answer D: Slide 27 of PowerPoint)

Question 55

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, what appliance should be installed at the mouth of the Fire Location’s laneway, through which water will be supplied to the 100mm hose, feeding the attack or relay pump?
A) Clappered Siamese Manifold
B) 100 mm Adapter
C) 150 mm Hard Suction
D) Drafting Elbow

Answer 55

A) Clappered Siamese Manifold

(Answer A: Slide 15 of PowerPoint)

Question 56

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, at what pressure should the drafting pump initially set the discharge pressure to the attack/fire or relay pump?
A) 1000 kpa
B) 1400 kpa
C) 500 kpa
D) 750 kpa

Answer 56

C) 500 kpa

(Answer C: Slide 29 of PowerPoint, midway)

Question 57

According to, HFDNet, Training Index, Rural Water Supply Operations 2018, how many portable water tanks will be set up in front of the Drafting Pump?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Answer 57

C) 3

(Answer C: Slide 7 of PowerPoint)

Question 58

According to, Training Bulletin 14, PPV, where should the positive pressure fan be placed?
A) 4’ to 6’ inside of the doorway
B) In the doorway
C) 10’ to 15’ outside of the doorway
D) 4’ to 6’ outside of the doorway

Answer 58

D) 4’ to 6’ outside of the doorway

(Answer D: Page 2 Diagram)

Question 59

According to Training Bulletin 14, PPV, and the use of Positive Pressure Fans with Garage Doors it states?
A) Not use Positive Pressure Fans with Garage Doors
B) Only partially open Garage Doors and use 2 or more fans
C) Open garage doors fully
D) Only partially open Garage Doors and use 1 fan

Answer 59

B) Only partially open Garage Doors and use 2 or more fans

(Answer B: Page 3 Diagram)

Question 60

According to Training Bulletin #259 – Hypothermia Packaging – Patient Wrap, which of the following is NOT a component of the patient wrap a.k.a. the “Thermal Burrito”?
A) Insulated sleeping bag
B) Plastic tarpaulin
C) Thermal Exposure Suit
D) Thermal reflective blanket

Answer 60

C) Thermal Exposure Suit

Answer: C

Question 61

According to Training Bulletin 280 – 2Tinga Rapid Inflation Tunnel (RIT) Craft, what is the operational pressure of the red (side) tunnels of the craft? (Training Bulletin is still being crafted and therefore without a number)
A) 60 kilopascals (kPa)
B) 3 pounds per square inch (PSI)
C) 10 pounds per square inch (PSI)
D) 300 kilopascals (kPa)

Answer 61

B) 3 pounds per square inch (PSI)

Answer: B

Question 62

According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, What are the stages of fire growth in a “Vent Controlled” fire?
A) Volume, Velocity, Density, Colour
B) Ignition, First Growth, Vent Limited, Explosive Growth, Fully Developed, Decay
C) Ignition, Incipient, Fully Developed, Decay
D) Laminar, Pressurized, Turbulent, Wispy

Answer 62

B) Ignition, First Growth, Vent Limited, Explosive Growth, Fully Developed, Decay

Answer: B

Question 63

According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, What are the stages of fire growth in a “fuel controlled” fire?
A) Volume, Velocity, Density, Colour
B) Ignition, First Growth, Vent Limited, Explosive Growth, Fully Developed, Decay
C) Ignition, Incipient, Fully Developed, Decay
D) Laminar, Pressurized, Turbulent, Wispy

Answer 63

C) Ignition, Incipient, Fully Developed, Decay

Answer: C

Question 64

According to the video series “The Art of Reading Smoke”, which of these factors do NOT influence the smoke?
A) Building size & compartments
B) Weather
C) Firefighting actions
D) Time of day

Answer 64

D) Time of day

Answer: D

Question 65

According to the Ice Rescue Operations Theory training, what kind of ice can be described as fragile and easily broken, comprised of newly forming ice on a water’s surface?
A) Frazil
B) Pancake
C) Floe
D) Daquiri

Answer 65

A) Frazil

Answer: A

Question 66

According to Training Bulletin #257 – CMC Throwline Bag Set, how long are the rope in the rescue throw bags HFD uses for ice water/shore-based water rescue?
A) 300 feet
B) 75 feet
C) 150 feet
D) 25 feet

Answer 66

B) 75 feet

Answer: B

Question 67

According to Training Bulletin #256 – Sterling WaterLine Water Rescue Rope, how long are the ropes HFD uses to tether to shore for ice water rescue?
A) 300 feet
B) 75 feet
C) 150 feet
D) 25 feet

Answer 67

A) 300 feet

Answer: A

Question 68

According to Training Bulletin #275 – Non-locking Carabiners for Ice Rescue, what is the Major Axis Strength (also known as the MBS or Minimum Breaking Strength) for the non-locking carabiners?
A) 9 kN (kiloNewtons)
B) 2023 lbs.
C) 3100 lbs.
D) 31 kN (kiloNewtons)

Answer 68

D) 31 kN (kiloNewtons)

Answer: D

Question 69

According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family Dwelling Fires, the article states that SFD (Single Family Dwelling) fires accounted for ________ % of residential fires in 1994?
A) 60 %
B) 70 %
C) 73 %
D) 69 %

Answer 69

B) 70 %

(Answer B, TB 033 pg. 2 Paragraph 1)

Question 70

According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family Dwelling Fires, which of the following is NOT considered a factor which can contribute to an attic fire?
A) Defective wiring
B) Defective chimneys
C) Interior fire exposure
D) Platform construction

Answer 70

D) Platform construction

(Answer D, TB 033 pg. 7 “Upon arrival”)

Question 71

According to Training Bulletin, TB-033, Initial Attack Considerations for Single Family Dwelling Fires, window size, shape and location suggest room use. A small, narrow window between two larger windows usually indicates a __________ room?
A) Bedroom
B) Living room
C) Bathroom
D) Kitchen

Answer 71

C) Bathroom

(Answer C, TB 033 pg. 3 - 3a)

Question 72

Training Bulletin 195 - When the precision gas mixture cylinder, Industrial Scientific Cal Gas, used for bump testing the Ventis MX4 gas detector, becomes empty, what form is required to be completed to receive a new full cylinder?
A) A2O form
B) Supply Requisition C) Form 437 faxed to Breathing Apparatus Technician
D) Phone call to Stores

Answer 72

C) Form 437 faxed to Breathing Apparatus Technician

Answer: C

Question 73

Training Bulletin 195 - When should the Ventis MX4 be turned on?
A) In cab of apparatus
B) Outside, near the vehicle exhaust
C) Fresh air environment
D) None of the above

Answer 73

C) Fresh air environment

Answer: C

Question 74

The Ontario Fire Service, Fire Fighters Guidance Note - # 1-5 Life Safety Rope and Equipment states the following; “At minimum, the following criteria should be met before reusing life safety rope”:
A) Rope has been cleaned thoroughly after each call.
B) Rope has not been visually damaged, exposed to heat, direct flame, impingement or abrasion impact load or exposed to liquids, solids, gases or mists or vapors of any chemical or material that can deteriorate rope.
C) Just replace the rope and forgo the inspection.
D) If there is any doubt about the serviceability of a rope, you can keep it in service and do not use it for life safety activities.

Answer 74

B) Rope has not been visually damaged, exposed to heat, direct flame, impingement or abrasion impact load or exposed to liquids, solids, gases or mists or vapors of any chemical or material that can deteriorate rope.

Answer: B

Question 75

According to the Operational Guideline regarding Notebooks, which of the following acts or codes provides citizens with a right of access to records within the custody or control of all municipal public sector organizations, including Fire Departments:
A) Fire Protection and Prevention Act
B) Ontario Fire Code
C) Municipal Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act
D) Municipal Conflict of Interest Act

Answer 75

C) Municipal Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act

(Answer C)

Question 76

According to the Operational Guideline regarding Notebooks, when an individual has filled a notebook, they shall contact their Senior Officer who will come and collect the full notebook and issue the replacement. Where is the completed notebook then sent to for it to be retained?
A) Training Division
B) Communications
C) City Hall
D) Fire Prevention Bureau

Answer 76

D) Fire Prevention Bureau

(Answer D)

Question 77

According to the Operational Guideline regarding Power Saws, when shall power saws be inspected by career suppression personnel?
A) Monthly
B) At the beginning of each shift and after each use
C) Bi-weekly
D) Every Sunday

Answer 77

B) At the beginning of each shift and after each use

(Answer B)

Question 78

According to the Operational Guideline regarding Power Saws, when shall power saws be started and run briefly by career suppression personnel?
A. Saturdays
B. Sundays
C. Monthly
D. Fridays

Answer 78

A. Saturdays

(Answer A)

Question 79

According to the Operational Guideline regarding Power Saws, in emergency situations, all personnel within 10 m of an operating power saw shall follow the requirements listed below, EXCEPT:
A) Be wearing eye protection including;
i. Fire helmet faceshield in the down position
ii. Protective goggles
B) Protect an area of at least a 10m radius from the work area
C) Ensure unprotected personnel and bystanders keep a safe distance
D) Distract the operator

Answer 79

D) Distract the operator

(Answer D)

Question 80

According to, P&P 0401.00, Apparatus Operations, when is it permissible to “short-jack” an Aerial Ladder?
A) When an outrigger won’t go out, becomes stuck at a call
B) In a rescue situation
C) When in a narrow laneway or road
D) Never, “short-jacking” is not to occur

Answer 80

D) Never, “short-jacking” is not to occur

(Answer D: P&P 0401.2.08)

Question 81

According to, P&P 0406.00, Apparatus Operations, when in “pump mode”, the engine brake will be in what position?
A) Off
B) High
C) Medium
D) Low

Answer 81

A) Off

(Answer A: P&P 0406.1.01)

Question 82

According to, P&P 0406.00, Apparatus Operations, wheel blocks shall be in place when?
A) Only when working at structure fires
B) Whenever vehicles are parked or left unattended in a station or otherwise
C) Only at the MATC
D) Only when parked on steep grades

Answer 82

B) Whenever vehicles are parked or left unattended in a station or otherwise

(Answer B: 0406.6.01)

Question 83

According to, P&P 0612.01, Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal, who is responsible for requesting that the OFM respond?
A) Fire Chief
B) Incident Commander
C) Captain
D) Any Firefighter

Answer 83

B) Incident Commander

(Answer B; P&P 0612.01)

Question 84

According to, P&P 0612.01, Notification of the Ontario Fire Marshal, who is responsible for actually contacting the OFM, for them to respond?
A) Communication Officer
B) Captain
C) District Chief
D) Platoon Chief

Answer 84

A) Communication Officer

(Answer A; P&P 0612.01)

Question 85

According to Policy #0214.00, what are the high and low temperature limitations that govern general outdoor training conditions for Hamilton Fire Department?
A) Temperature and/or humidity are over 32 degrees Celsius or temperature and/or wind chill are below -8 degrees Celsius
B) Temperature and/or humidity are equal to or over 30 degrees Celsius or temperature and/or wind chill are equal to or below -12 degrees Celsius
C) Temperature and/or humidity are equal to or over 30 degrees Celsius or temperature and/or wind chill are equal to or below -6 degrees Celsius
D) Temperature and/or humidity are equal to or over 30 degrees Fahrenheit or temperature and/or wind chill are equal to or below -6 degrees Fahrenheit.

Answer 85

C) Temperature and/or humidity are equal to or over 30 degrees Celsius or temperature and/or wind chill are equal to or below -6 degrees Celsius

Answer: C

Question 86

According to Policy #0214.00, what is the low temperature limitation that govern outdoor training conditions for Ice Rescue in the Hamilton Fire Department?
A) Temperature and/or wind chill are below –12 degrees Celsius
B) Temperature and/or wind chill are equal to or below –6 degrees Celsius
C) Temperature and/or wind chill are equal to or below –12 degrees Fahrenheit
D) Temperature and/or wind chill are equal to or below –12 degrees Celsius

Answer 86

D) Temperature and/or wind chill are equal to or below –12 degrees Celsius

Answer: D

Question 87

According to, P&P 0648.00, Civil Unrest, Disturbances, Picket Lines and Public Demonstrations, which Rank and above may request Police for “IMMEDIATE” attendance to any incident for which police are required?
A) Platoon Chief
B) District Chief
C) Captain
D) Captain or other Personnel

Answer 87

D) Captain or other Personnel

(Answer D: P&P 0648.1.09)

Question 88

According to, P&P 0633.00, Violent Situations, what is the “10 Code” to be used for “IMMEDIATE” Police assistance where the safety of personnel may be jeopardized if verbal discretion is not used?
A) 10- 33
B) 10- 43
C) 10- 78
D) 10-88

Answer 88

C) 10- 78

(Answer C: P&P 0633.5.04)

Question 89

According the Operational Guideline regarding Safety Officer System on HFDnet, Guideline 2.01 states that the Incident Safety Officer (Car #73) shall automatically dispatched to each of the following EXCEPT:
A) Medical calls
B) All First Alarms
C) All Multiple Alarms
D) All High Angle Rope Responses

Answer 89

A) Medical calls

(Answer A)

Question 90

According the Operational Guideline regarding Safety Officer System on HFDnet, the incident safety function, every time the Hamilton Fire Department responds to an incident, begins with the first arriving unit, typically the company officer/IC as part pf the initial size up and continues until the incident is terminated. Guideline 5.05 states that the initial incident commander/incident safety officer (ie. initial company officer) shall consider the following tasks EXCEPT:
A) Follow Hamilton Fire Department Policies that pertain to the incident
B) Make use of the Incident Management System
C) Choose not to take command
D) Determine a strategy (Offensive or Defensive)

Answer 90

C) Choose not to take command

(Answer C)

Question 91

According the Operational Guideline regarding Safety Officer System on HFDnet, Guideline 4.0 states that the following responsibilities fall under the Authority of the Incident Safety Officer EXCEPT:
A) At an emergency incident, the Incident Safety Officer shall be responsible for the overall management of the incident and for the safety of all members involved at the scene
B) At an emergency incident where the activities are judged by the incident safety officer as posing an imminent threat to fire fighter safety, the incident safety officer shall have the authority to stop, alter, or suspend those activities
C) The incident safety officer shall immediately inform the incident commander of any actions taken to correct imminent hazards at an emergency scene
D) At an emergency incident where an incident safety officer identifies unsafe conditions, operations, or hazards that do not present an imminent threat to firefighters, the incident safety officer shall take appropriate action through the incident commander to mitigate or eliminate the unsafe condition, operation, or hazard

Answer 91

A) At an emergency incident, the Incident Safety Officer shall be responsible for the overall management of the incident and for the safety of all members involved at the scene

(Answer A)

Question 92

According to Policy 0507.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Operations, Tasks and Responsibilities, Guideline 2.02 on HFDnet, the RIT Team shall announce benchmarks as they are achieved and call for assistance should they be unable to achieve the task. Which of the following is NOT one of those benchmarks:
A) Low on air
B) Deployed
C) Firefighter Located
D) Firefighter Outside

Answer 92

A) Low on air

(Answer A)

Question 93

According to Policy 0507.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Operations, Tasks and Responsibilities, Guideline 6.01 on HFDnet, RIT personnel should perform the following tasks, EXCEPT:
A) Assess the emergency scene perimeter 360 degrees of building noting apparatus placement, points of entry, alternate exit doors and windows
B) Provide additional means of egress (laddering building) for personnel conducting operations who are operating above the ground floor
C) Be involved with on scene fire attack responsibilities wherever possible
D) Illuminate entrances and exits using lights

Answer 93

C) Be involved with on scene fire attack responsibilities wherever possible

(Answer C)

Question 94

According to Policy 0507.00, Rapid Intervention Teams (RIT) – Operations, Tasks and Responsibilities, Guideline 7.01 on HFDnet, it is the responsibility of the RIT Sector person to do the following, EXCEPT:
A) Ensure the RIT is fully equipped
B) Thoroughly brief the team prior to entry
C) Be the primary radio contact for the RIT
D) Position on scene apparatus for fire attack

Answer 94

D) Position on scene apparatus for fire attack

(Answer D)

Question 95

HFD P & P 0301.00 – Incident Reporting, provides guidelines for the completion of incident reports. Which of the following guidelines is not included in P & P 0301.00:
A) Upon return to the station, all Career and Volunteer Operations Officers, who responded on an apparatus or who were in charge of a crew on the fire ground shall complete the appropriate sections of the incident report within two (2) hours of their apparatus returning to the station.
B) all officers are to complete their applicable incident report sections as directed in the HFD Fire Incident Reporting Manual
C) Unless otherwise directed, all pending reports are to be completed by the Career Officers before they go off-duty. Should a call come in close to shift change, it is expected that the officer will complete the report and submit the associated overtime
D) All applicable areas/fields of reports (based on the type of incident) shall be completed unless the reporting officer is of the opinion that no significant damage or injury resulted from the incident or actions of the fire department.

Answer 95

D) All applicable areas/fields of reports (based on the type of incident) shall be completed unless the reporting officer is of the opinion that no significant damage or injury resulted from the incident or actions of the fire department.

Answer: D

Question 96

According to P & P 0618.00 – High-Rise Operations, describes rules for breaking of glass windows or doors on the exterior of high-rise buildings. Which of the following is correct:
A) Do not break glass in high rise unless you have looked out the window or door to ensure no one will be struck by falling glass within a 30meter safety zone.
B) Do not break glass in high rise until a charged hose line is in place to begin hydraulic ventilation.
C) Do not break glass in high rise until your company officer has given a size-up report to Incident Command detailing smoke conditions.
D) Do not break glass in high rise unless it is coordinated with and confirmed by Command that a safety perimeter is established (At least 60 metres).

Answer 96

D) Do not break glass in high rise unless it is coordinated with and confirmed by Command that a safety perimeter is established (At least 60 metres).

Answer D

Question 97

According to P & P 0618.00 - High-rise Operations and memo 2020-AP-697, the Second arriving Engine/Pump at a High-rise incident shall:
A) Will don full PPE, gather appropriate equipment, and proceed to the floor above the fire to assume duties formerly performed by the Rescue Unit
B) Will be committed to obtaining a water supply and connecting to the Standpipe System of the high-rise
C) Will locate and stand-by at the closest hydrant, await confirmation of the IC to begin water supply before assuming Lobby Sector
D) Will don full PPE, gather appropriate equipment, and proceed to the lobby, locate a responsible party for the building and gain control of the elevator

Answer 97

B) Will be committed to obtaining a water supply and connecting to the Standpipe System of the high-rise

Answer: B

Question 98

According to P & P 0618.00 - High-rise Operations identifies “Immediate Priorities” for first arriving units. Which of the following is not one of those priorities:
A) Recalling and assuming control of the elevators.
B) Assessing stairs, designating fire fighting/evacuation stairs.
C) Establishing a Command and a Lobby Sector. Assessing lobby conditions, verifying actual fire and fire location(s).
D) Proceed directly to the fire floor and begin aggressive fire attack combined with search and rescue operations.

Answer 98

D) Proceed directly to the fire floor and begin aggressive fire attack combined with search and rescue operations.

Answer: D

Question 99

According to P & P 0618.40 - High-rise Operations – Elevators, identifies elevator procedures for HFD high-rise operations. Which of the following statements is not correct:

a) Never take an elevator directly to the fire floor or above. If used, the elevator should only be taken to the floor below the fire
b) The responsible party/key holder for the building may operate elevator and provide access to locked apartments
c) Firefighters should never use an elevator if there is any chance it will travel to or above the fire floor.
d) If unsure of the elevators, consider using them to send equipment only instead of firefighters (if the elevators can be used without an operator).

Answer 99

b) The responsible party/key holder for the building may operate elevator and provide access to locked apartments

(Answer b: Only HFD personnel in full PPE may operate elevators)

Question 100

According to P & P 0214.00 (revised January 4, 2022), which of the following criteria is not a cause to cancel Inspections and or outdoor training:
A) Temperature is equal to or over 30° Celsius
B) Humidity is equal to or over 30° Celsius
C) Temperature is equal to or under 6° Celsius
D) Wind Chill is equal to or under -6° Celsius

Answer 100

C) Temperature is equal to or under 6° Celsius

Answer: C

Question 101

According to P & P 0608.01 - Cellulose Insulation, which of the following actions is not required during overhaul after a fire involving cellulose insulation:
A) In buildings where some of the fibre insulating material has been left intact, an active fire watch shall be maintained for a minimum of two hours, followed by evaluation by the Platoon Chief or a District Chief
B) Overhaul shall be continued until there is no evidence of charring or smoke staining on the material being removed or the surrounding building material
C) Removal of and or thorough soaking-in-place of all blown-in cellulose insulation from the entire attic
D) Establish fire origin and extent of spread. Complete initial extinguishment. Overhaul sequence

Answer 101

C) Removal of and or thorough soaking-in-place of all blown-in cellulose insulation from the entire attic

Answer: C

Question 102

According to Policy 0629.00 - Operations Near Water/Shore Based Rescue, at an alarm, if a firefighter accidentally enters the water (falling overboard or off a dock, etc.), the Incident Commander shall immediately upgrade the alarm ____ level(s) (1.05).

A) Four (4)

B) Two (2)

C) Three (3)

D) One (1)

Answer 102

D) One (1)

Answer: D

Question 103

According to Policy 0629.00 - Operations Near Water/Shore Based Rescue, the response for call indicating open water is in close proximity shall NOT include which apparatus:

A) Rescue Unit / Engine / Pump

B) Marine Unit

C) Nearest Apparatus

D) Ladder truck

Answer 103

D) Ladder truck

Answer: D

Question 104

According to Policy 0629.00 - Operations Near Water/Shore Based Rescue, If Hamilton Beach Rescue is requested by Incident Command for any Open Water rescue call, The Hamilton Beach Rescue Unit operational channel will be patched into our operational TAC for the alarm and the Incident Commander will have the ability to directly communicate with personnel from Hamilton Beach Rescue. Which of the Primary contacts along with their radio aliases at Hamilton Beach Rescue are NOT used (1.04)?

A) Chief - Alpha 1

B) Deputy Chief - Alpha 2

C) Unit Administrator - Alpha 3

D) Hamilton Police Administrator – Alpha 4

Answer 104

D) Hamilton Police Administrator – Alpha 4

Answer: D

Question 105

According to Policy 0629.00 - Operations Near Water/Shore Based Rescue, which of the following requires the response of the nearest apparatus and a Marine Unit (1.09, 1.10, 1.11)?

A) A person in distress in a swimming pool

B) A medical call on any docked boat

C) Any fire on any docked boat

D) A call indicating open water is within close proximity

Answer 105

D) A call indicating open water is within close proximity

Answer: D

Question 106

According to P & P 0619.02 – Lockout/Tagout, which of the following is not defined as an “Energy-Isolating device”:

A) A push button, selector switch, and other control-circuit-type devices

B) A disconnect Switch

C) A line Valve

D) A manually operated electrical circuit breaker

Answer 106

A) A push button, selector switch, and other control-circuit-type devices

Answer: A

Question 107

According to P & P 0651.00 – Vehicle Accidents – Traffic Control and Scene Safety, personnel at the scene of highway incident operations fire personnel should do the following except:

A) Exit the vehicle on the untraveled side of the apparatus at all times.

B) NOT turn their back on moving vehicular traffic.

C) Always work towards the approaching traffic.

D) Only cross high-speed traffic lanes on foot if wearing reflective clothing and apparatus emergency lights are displayed

Answer 107

D) Only cross high-speed traffic lanes on foot if wearing reflective clothing and apparatus emergency lights are displayed

Answer: D

Question 108

According to P & P 0616.00 – Motor Vehicle Collisions – Report Information, the reporting officer shall endeavor to provide as much information as possible in the MVC section of the FDM report. Which of the following is considered to be of the highest priority:

A) License plate numbers for all the involved vehicles as well as make and model if possible.

B) Insurance information for the involved vehicles

C) Police occurrence/report number

D) Owner and driver information for the involved vehicles.

Answer C:

Answer 108

C) Police occurrence/report number

Answer C:

Question 109

According to P &P 0650.00 – Motor vehicle Collisions – Extrications, which of the following is the correct order of operations for the first arriving company/crew:

A) Provide scene stabilization, establish Hazard Control Zones, stabilize the vehicle with Rescue 42 struts to prevent further movement of the vehicle, remove all tempered glass, access and stabilize the patient(s).

B) De-energize the vehicle/disconnect battery, stabilize the vehicle to prevent further movement of the vehicle, access and stabilize the patient(s).

C) Provide scene stabilization, contain fluids/place absorbent material on spills and leaks, remove all tempered glass, access and stabilize the patient(s).

D) Provide scene stabilization, establish Hazard Control Zones, access and stabilize the vehicle to prevent further movement of the vehicle, access and stabilize the patient(s).

Answer 109

D) Provide scene stabilization, establish Hazard Control Zones, access and stabilize the vehicle to prevent further movement of the vehicle, access and stabilize the patient(s).

Answer: D

Question 110

According to 0602.01 - Minimum On-Scene Fire Attack Teams, which of the following are NOT acceptable operations to accomplish for a 3-person crew (without the arrival of additional crews on site) (1.04)?

A) Limited exterior firefighting including the raising of a ladder beyond the first floor of the structure

B) Forcible entry operations

C) Ventilation operations requiring access to the roof of the involved structure

D) At MVC’s – scene, vehicle and patient stabilization.

Answer 110

C) Ventilation operations requiring access to the roof of the involved structure

Answer: C

Question 111

According to 0602.01 – Minimum On-Scene Fire Attack Teams, which of the following are NOT tasks to be carried out by a first arriving crew with a minimum of 3 at a small building fire (without additional crews on-site) (1.02)?

A) The first arriving pump apparatus sets up at the scene to “best advantage” for fire attack ensuring that the front of the building is left clear for Ladder/Aerial apparatus.

B) The second due in pump apparatus may be advised to secure the nearest water supply and lay-in. Stage additional apparatus to ensure these vehicles are located near the scene for quick access to equipment.

C) If one of the responding units is a Ladder/Aerial, the IC must consider all factors before committing the Ladder/Aerial apparatus.

D) Conducting interior suppression or rescue operations, beyond the incipient stage of fire.

Answer 111

D) Conducting interior suppression or rescue operations, beyond the incipient stage of fire.

Answer: D

Question 112

According to 0602.01 – Minimum On-Scene Fire Attack Teams, which of the following situations are acceptable activities for a single apparatus response (with no additional crews on site) (1.02)?

A) A car fire on a busy roadway, the pump apparatus should be positioned to protect the firefighters and still allow the attack line(s) to be used from the safe side of the apparatus.

B) Conducting interior suppression or rescue operations, beyond the incipient stage of fire

C) Advanced auto extrication maneuvers such as removal and relocation of doors, roofs, steering columns, use of air lifting bags, etc.

D) Establishment of a water supply from a static source within reasonable time limits

Answer 112

A) A car fire on a busy roadway, the pump apparatus should be positioned to protect the firefighters and still allow the attack line(s) to be used from the safe side of the apparatus.

Answer: A

Question 113

According to Policy 0807, Hazardous Materials Incidents – Victim Management, section 9.01 states which of the following?

A) Deceased are to be left in hot zone unit all victims have been transported

B) Deceased are to be left in the ambulance unit all victims have been transported

C) Deceased are to be left in hot zone until decontaminated

D) Deceased are to be removed first

Answer 113

(Answer A: section 9.01 of policy)

Question 114

According to Policy 0807, Hazardous Materials Incidents – Victim Management, section 3.01 states that Emergency Decon serves three functions. Which of the following is NOT one of these functions?

A) Marks victims for easy identification

B) Enables crews to ascertain health issues

C) Removes some product/particles from victims

D) Engages victims in activity that reduces anxiety

Answer 114

B) Enables crews to ascertain health issues

(Answer B: section 3.01 of policy)

Question 115

According to Policy 0807, Hazardous Materials Incidents – Victim Management, section 9.03, what agency is responsible for the tracking, transportation and storage of bodies and belongings?

A) EMS

B) Coroner’s Office and Police

C) Hamilton Fire Department

D) Red Cross

Answer 115

B) Coroner’s Office and Police

(Answer B: section 9.03 of policy)

Question 116

According to AP Memo 2021-AP-676 “Training Tablets and New Training Tablet Policy”, these activities are allowed to be accessed on the training tablets (5.2)

A) Facebook, Instagram and other social media

B) Firehouse and Firehall

C) IFSTA Resource One

D) Amazon, eBay and Skip the Dishes

Answer: C

Answer 116

C) IFSTA Resource One

Answer: C

Question 117

According to AP Memo 2021-AP-676 “Training Tablets and New Training Tablet Policy”, who retains ownership of all files and communications made on the training tablets? (3.1)

A) The owner of the email address being used

B) The City of Hamilton

C) The Office of the Fire Chief

D) None of the above

Answer 117

B) The City of Hamilton

Answer: B

Question 118

According to Policy 0610, Fire Watch, section 1.03 states that HFD personnel assigned fire watch responsibility shall do the following with the exception of:

A) Wear all personal protective equipment.

B) Complete a walking inspection of all areas of the premises at a minimum of thirty (30) minute intervals.

C) Be in possession of a portable radio capable of communicating with HFD Communications.

D) Give reports at regular intervals to inform that the fire is not active

Answer 118

D) Give reports at regular intervals to inform that the fire is not active

(Answer D: section 1.03 of policy)

Question 119

According to Policy 0610, Fire Watch, section 1.05 states that the “termination of a HFD fire watch shall be at the discretion of:

A) The Company Officer from the crew left to conduct the fire watch

B) The Safety Officer, from the respective incident following an inspection

C) The Senior Incident Commander from the respective incident

D) The Platoon Chief

Answer 119

C) The Senior Incident Commander from the respective incident

(Answer C: section 1.05 of policy)

Question 120

According to Policy 0610, Fire Watch, section 2.01 outlines the Apparatus that may be used for fire watch. Which of the following is not one of the recognized apparatus?

A) Pumps/Engines (minimum four-person crew)

B) Ladders (minimum four-person crew)

C) Tanker-Pumper (minimum four-person crew)

D) Supply Truck (minimum four-person crew)

Answer 120

D) Supply Truck (minimum four-person crew)

(Answer D: section 2.01 of policy)

Question 121

According to Policy 0614, Assistance to Victims of Fires, whose responsibility is it to notify Communications in the event of fires or other emergencies which result in personal hardship (lack of accommodation, food, clothing, etc.)?

A) Safety Officer

B) Platoon Chief

C) Incident Commander

D) First arriving Officer

Answer 121

C) Incident Commander

(Answer C: section 1.01 of policy)

Question 122

According to Policy 0614, Assistance to Victims of Fires, after Communications notifies the Red Cross, whose responsibility is it to notify other social service agencies.

A) Incident Commander

B) Public Health

C) Communications

D) Red Cross

Answer 122

D) Red Cross

(Answer D: section 1.03 of policy)

Question 123

According to Policy 0702, Infection Control, section 3.0, which one of the following is NOT one of the directives for Personal Protective Equipment?

A) Disposable medical gloves shall be worn during any patient contact, when potential exists for contact with blood, body fluids, non-intact skin, or other infectious material

B) Where possible, gloves should be changed before treating each patient in multiple casualty situations

C) Hand Sanitizer will be used before donning and after doffing gloves

D) Face shields on structural firefighting helmets do not provide adequate protection against infectious disease

Answer 123

C) Hand Sanitizer will be used before donning and after doffing gloves

(Answer C: section 3.0 of policy)

Question 124

According to Policy 0702, Infection Control, section 6.0, what is the procedure if you feel you have come in contact with a Communicable Disease?

A) Immediately notify their Company Officer who shall in turn, notify the District Senior Officer

B) Contact Communications and ask for the Designated Medical Officer to respond

C) Contact the Safety Officer

D) Report to hospital as soon as the situation is mitigated

Answer 124

A) Immediately notify their Company Officer who shall in turn, notify the District Senior Officer

(Answer A: section 6.01 of policy)

Question 125

According to 0903.00 Smoke Alarm Enforcement Policy (SAEP) a follow up on SANN’s issued will be conducted as soon as practical after____ hrs. have expired since its issuance by Operations.

A) 36

B) 24

C) 48

D) 72

Answer 125

B) 24

Answer. (B) 24

Question 126

According to Operational Guideline 0632.00 Carbon Monoxide Incidents the Immediate Danger to Life and Health (IDLH) of CO is ______ ppm.

A) 100 ppm

B) 500 ppm

C) 800 ppm

D) 1200 ppm

Answer 126

D) 1200 ppm

Ans. (D) 1200 ppm (0632.00-1.07)

Question 127

According to Operational Guideline 0632.00 Carbon Monoxide Indents, crews at incidents involving suspected faulty appliances and equipment; HFD personnel shall advise the owner/occupant of the suspected source then:

a) Shut off the appliance,
b) Shut off the fuel source to the appliance and
c) Issue a form #_______ regarding the service termination.

A) 328

B) 329

C) 327

D) 437

Answer 127

C) 327

Ans. (C) 327 (0632.00-6.04(c))

Question 128

According to Operational Guideline 0632.00 Carbon Monoxide Incidents- 3.0 Mandatory Use of SCBA shall be employed with facepiece donned and air activated when CO readings are in excess of ______ ppm.

A) 25 ppm

B) 9 ppm

C) 100 ppm

D) 50 ppm

Answer 128

Ans. (A) 25 ppm (0632.00-3.02)

Question 129

According to Operational Guideline 0632.00 Carbon Monoxide Incidents. Crews on scene at incidents where readings are 9 ppm or less shall inform the residents that elevated levels were not detected, discuss the findings and actions you have taken (if any) and leave the occupant with a completed Form _____and_____.

A) 328 and 329

B) 328 and 327

C) 327 and 329

D) 327 and 437

Answer 129

A) 328 and 329

Ans. (A) 328 and 329 (0632.00-8.01)

Question 130

According to Operational Police 0414.00 Collisions - Occurrence and Reporting, when Hamilton Police Service responds to the scene, the Company Officer shall obtain the investigating police officer’s name, badge number and _______________ for the report.

A) Police Vehicle Number

B) Time of Police Incident Response

C) Police Incident Number

D) None of the above

Answer 130

C) Police Incident Number

Ans.(C) Police Incident Number 0414.00 – 3.05

Question 131

According to Operational Policy 0414.00 Collisions - Occurrence and Reporting. The Company Officer shall endeavor to gather the following information: (Particulars of the other Drivers): Name, Date of birth, Address, Phone Number(s) Drivers Licence Number; for submission on an HFD Motor Vehicle Accident Report #_____

A) 327

B) 437

C) 309

D) 260

Answer 131

C) 309

Ans.(C) 0414.00 – 3.06

Question 132

According to Policy 0640.00, Atmosphere Monitoring at Fires, the atmospheric levels in order to operate without SCBA in an environment where smoke was present under section 4.0 Action Levels except for are?

A) 0 ppm for HCN (Hydrogen Cyanide)

B) 10 ppm for H2S (Hydrogen Sulfide)

C) 0 ppm for CO (Carbon Monoxide

D) Not less than 20.8% Oxygen

Answer 132

B) 10 ppm for H2S (Hydrogen Sulfide)

(Answer B: Policy 0640.00 - 3.02 pg.2)

Question 133

According to Policy 0640.00, Atmosphere Monitoring at Fires, all incidents involving any known, suspected or potential products of combustion shall require personnel to confirm the following except within each area as defined in 3.03?

A) Safe atmosphere levels of HCN

B) Safe atmosphere levels of O²

C) Safe atmosphere levels of H2S

D) Safe atmosphere levels of CO

Answer 133

C) Safe atmosphere levels of H2S

(Answer C: Policy 0640.00 -3.02 pg.2)

Question 134

According to Policy 0640.00, Atmosphere Monitoring at Fires, which ONE of the following indicators are NOT to be used to determine if a person has been exposed to products of combustion?

A) Exposed to products of combustion in an enclosed area

B) Soot found around the mouth and nose

C) Altered mental status

D) Headache, nausea, and vomiting

Answer 134

D) Headache, nausea, and vomiting

(Answer D: Policy 0640.00 - 6.01 pg.4)

Question 135

According to Policy 0645.00 Radioactive Storage Areas - McMaster University, all laboratories, which contain radioactive material, are posted with warning signs stating?

A) “Caution – Radioactive Material.”

B) “Danger - - Radioactive material”

C) “Caution - - Radiation”

D) “Danger – Radiation”

Answer 135

A) “Caution – Radioactive Material.”

(Answer A: Policy 0645.00 – 1.04 pg.1)

Question 136

According to Policy 0645.00 Radioactive Storage Areas - McMaster University, there are ________ on campus where entry must NOT be made until Radiation Safety personnel have monitored the areas?

A) 6 number of areas.

B) 3 number of areas

C) 7 number of areas

D) 4 number of areas

Answer 136

D) 4 number of areas

(Answer D: Policy 0645.00 – 1.03 pg.1)

Question 137

According to Policy 0801.00 HM-First Arriving Apparatus, which of the following does not require CANUTEC to be notified?

A) An incident involving lost, stolen or misplaced infectious substances.

B) A 1st alarm for a natural gas leak.

C) An incident where the shipping documents display the CANUTEC telephone number (613) 996-6666 as the emergency telephone number.

D) A dangerous goods incident in which a railway vehicle is involved.

Answer 137

B) A 1st alarm for a natural gas leak.

(Answer B: Policy 0801.00 – 3.04 pg.4)

Question 138

According to Policy 0801.00 HM-First Arriving Apparatus, which of the following is NOT a consideration when responding to hazardous materials incidents (from upwind, upgrade), HFD personnel should be attentive to safety precautions in accordance with the following?

A) When approaching, slow down or stop to assess any visible activity taking place, evaluate effects of wind, topography and location of the situation

B) The first unit must commit itself to a dangerous situation

C) Consider directing the remaining responding vehicles to stage themselves upwind, upgrade and well away from any potential hazards and await instructions

D) Route any other responding companies away from any hazards

Answer 138

B) The first unit must commit itself to a dangerous situation

(Answer B: Policy 0801.00 – 2.01 pg.1)

Question 139

According to Policy 0809.00 Responses Involving Railways, during an incident which involves rail cars and it is known or suspected that there are dangerous goods involved, the following apparatus shall respond except?

A) Platoon Chief

B) First Alarm assignment

C) Hazardous Materials Response Team

D) Training Division

Answer 139

D) Training Division

(Answer D: Policy 0809.00 – 5.01 pg.4)

Question 140

According to Policy 0809.00 Responses Involving Railways, the safety of the crew aboard a derailed train carrying Hazardous Materials shall be the primary responsibility of?

A) On scene firefighting personnel

B) Hamilton Police Services

C) 1st arriving HMRT

D) Hamilton EMS

Answer 140

A) On scene firefighting personnel

(Answer A: Policy 0809.00 – 3.01 pg.3)

Question 141

According to Policy 0809.00 Responses Involving Railways, what is the minimum number of personnel required to keep a watch during incidents that may require Firefighters working in the danger zone near railway tracks?

A) 4 personnel

B) 2 personnel

C) 1 person

D) 3 personnel

Answer 141

B) 2 personnel

(Answer B: Policy 0809.00 – 2.10 pg. 2,3)

Question 142

According to Policy 0812.00 Chemical Suicides, H2S is a colorless gas with notable odor of (rotten egg/sewer gas) detectable at low levels (measured in parts per million (ppm) Although pungent at first, it quickly deadens the sense of smell between the range of ________ ppm. Do NOT rely on presence or lack of chemical/unusual odors?

A) 300 - 500 ppm

B) 200 - 400 ppm

C) 150 - 250 ppm

D) 250 - 350 ppm

Answer 142

C) 150 - 250 ppm

(Answer C: Policy 0812.00 – 1.02 pg.2)

Question 143

According to Policy 0812.00 Chemical Suicides, what additional agencies must be notified in advance in order to avoid contamination of personnel or equipment?

A) Coroner / morgue

B) HPS (Hamilton Police Services)

C) HPW (Hamilton Public Works)

D) EMS and Hospital

Answer 143

D) EMS and Hospital

(Answer D: Policy 0812.00 – 3.04 pg.4)

Question 144

According to Policy 0812.00 Chemical Suicides, locations of such acts may occur in but not limited to the following areas except where vapors have the ability to disperse?

A) Vehicles.

B) Open areas

C) Small rooms inside the residence.

D) Apartments

Answer 144

B) Open areas

(Answer B: Policy 0812.00 – 1.12 pg.3)

Question 145

The Workplace Safety and Insurance Board (WSIB) Claims – Reporting an Injury, information sheet for, HFD Career Staff, explains the process and checklist for submitting such claims. Part of the checklist states;

A) The employee’s immediate supervisor MUST complete the “WSIB On-Line Incident Report” (Parklane Systems) and submit within 48 hours of the occurrence. This report is to be done online via the link that has been developed and is now located on the home page of HESNet intranet site. Prior to logging out, a copy should be printed and provided to the employee for their records.

B) The employee’s immediate supervisor MUST complete the “WSIB On-Line Incident Report” (Parklane Systems) and submit within 24 hours of the occurrence. This report is to be done online via the link that has been developed and is now located on the home page of HESNet intranet site. Prior to logging out, a copy should be printed and provided to the employee for their records.

C) The employee’s immediate supervisor MUST complete the “WSIB On-Line Incident Report” and submit within 24 hours of the occurrence. This report is to be done online via the link that has been developed and is now located on the N Drive in Department Common under WSIB. Prior to logging out, a copy should be printed and provided to the employee for their records.

D) The employee’s immediate supervisor MUST complete the “WSIB On-Line Incident Report” (Parklane Systems) and submit within 24 hours of the occurrence. This report is to be done online via the link that has been developed and is now located on the home page of HESNet intranet site. Prior to logging out, a copy should be printed and provided L288 Health and Safety representative for their records.

Answer 145

B) The employee’s immediate supervisor MUST complete the “WSIB On-Line Incident Report” (Parklane Systems) and submit within 24 hours of the occurrence. This report is to be done online via the link that has been developed and is now located on the home page of HESNet intranet site. Prior to logging out, a copy should be printed and provided to the employee for their records.

Answer B, Reference: 2018-AP-157

Question 146

In the Hamilton Fire Department FDM Instructional Booklets, in the Public Events Kiosk (Page 4- 5), the following information will be entered under the “Complete Event” button;

A) Number of Participants, Date and Time, Officer in Charge.

B) Participants by age (under 15, under 59, 60+), Duration, Notes.

C) Number of Participants, Name of Group, Officer in Charge

D) Event Authorized By, Date and Time, Notes.

Answer 146

B) Participants by age (under 15, under 59, 60+), Duration, Notes.

Answer: B

Question 147

Under the Incident Management System first arriving Company Officers at an incident whom are performing at the task level are advised to transfer command __________ to the next incoming Company Officer?

A) Only upon arrival of the senior officer

B) Upon arrival of last apparatus

C) Immediately

D) Eventually

Answer 147

C) Immediately

Answer: C

Question 148

When you respond to a non-emergency lockout, who should you request to attend?

A) Senior Officer

B) Hamilton Police

C) A ladder truck

D) Hamilton Hydro

Answer 148

B) Hamilton Police

Answer: B

Question 149

You are the Company Officer at a scene where the Accountability system is operating at Level 3. Who would you have to give your crew’s brass name tags to?

A) Rehab Officer

B) Incident Safety Officer

C) Accountability Officer

D) Entry Control Officer

Answer 149

D) Entry Control Officer

Answer: D

Question 150

The number of Form #327 re-inspections must be made, prior to submitting the subject form to the Fire Prevention Bureau for noncompliance, is _____ ?

A) One

B) Two

C) Three

D) Four

Answer 150

B) Two

Answer: B

Question 151

What 10 Code transmission is to be used to request a police response when FIRE personnel are involved in an incident and exposed to an imminent threat of bodily harm?

A) 10-33

B) 10-45

D) 10-99

Answer 151

C) 10-78

Answer: C

Question 152

Hamilton Fire Department Operational Policy 0118.00 Training Sessions, Courses & Conferences, it states, the “the District Senior Officers are responsible to see that each Career Fire-fighter on their shift and within their respective district is given a minimum of per calendar year.

A) 150 to 200 hours of drill

B) 160 hours of drill

C) 100 hours theory and 80 hours practical

D) 120 hours theory and 60 hours practical

Answer: D

Answer 152

D) 120 hours theory and 60 hours practical

Answer: D

Question 153

Policy and Procedures – 0301.00 Incident Reporting - The Officer’s Supplemental and the (Master) Incident Report should be supplemented by additional details provided from the Officer’s __________ from the scene?

A) Observations

B) Notes

C) Assigned Tasks

D) Actions

Answer 153

B) Notes

Answer: B

Question 154

Policy and Procedures, 0301.00 Incident Reporting - For each incident to which their apparatus responds, the Company Officer shall complete all information required on the Apparatus Response Report for the following?

A) When in command of a vehicle not first in on an emergency

B) At any time, actions are taken by the Officer and /or crew

C) To confirm their response, even if they were subsequently canceled

D) All of the above

Answer 154

D) All of the above

Answer: D

Question 155

Policy and Procedures 0301.00 Incident Reporting - At the conclusion of any noteworthy incident (i.e. rescue, public service, controversy, etc.), the Incident Commander should e-mail the __________ details of the incident. This should include the date, time, incident number and a brief description if such a description is not contained in the narrative of the Master Incident Record in Fire RMS.

A) Deputy Chief Operations

B) Public Information Officer

C) District Chief

D) Platoon Chief

Answer 155

D) Platoon Chief

Answer: D

Question 156

Policy and Procedures 0305.00 Submission of Lists/Damage Reports on FDM (437) - The Officer must list no more than __________ item(s) per 437 Report.

A) 3 items

B) 1 item

C) 6 items

D) 2 items

Answer 156

B) 1 item

Answer: B

Question 157

Policy and Procedures 0303.00 Form 327 – This is a __________ document that is intended to formally advise the responsible party of a change in the status of the item(s) indicated so they can take the necessary actions to remedy the situation or allow for the change (i.e. fire watches) The owner or the owner’s representative is responsible to restore the system to full service. By signing the form, the owner or the owner’s representative releases and indemnifies the City of Hamilton and the HFD of any claims, costs, etc.

A) Internal Document

B) Legal Document

C) Informal Document

D) Fire Prevention Document

Answer 157

B) Legal Document

Answer: B

Question 158

Policy and Procedures 0116.04 Power Failures - The Company Officer shall assign personnel to the apparatus bay doors to disengage the automatic door opener and raise the door using manual means. This shall be done immediately to verify doors can be easily opened. Complications shall be immediately reported to the District Senior Officer/Area Commander and Communications. a) During mild weather/summer months Officers will _______?

A) Apparatus should be moved on the ramp area and parked in preparation for apparatus movement

B) Apparatus bay doors should be closed

C) Chain(s) shall be secured in the lock-up bracket (where applicable)

D) All of the above

Answer 158

D) All of the above

Answer: D

Question 159

Policy & Procedure 111.2.05 Shopping – While in public locations shopping for food, HFD fire apparatus shall be parked in accordance with the following:

A) Out of the way so as not to impede the flow of traffic or pedestrians, or a fire route.

B) Engine shut down.

C) In compliance with any relevant legislation.

D) All of the above.

Answer 159

D) All of the above.

Answer: D

Question 160

Policy & Procedure 0415.00 Damage or Theft Involving HFD Property – Equipment that is not found should be replaced using a __________:

A) Lost/Damage Reports.

B) Memo

C) 327 Form

D) Supply request

Answer 160

A) Lost/Damage Reports.

Answer: A

Question 161

Policy & Procedure 0120.00 Court/Inquest Appearances – HFD personnel subpoenaed to serve as a witness, shall notify__________.

A) No One

B) Appropriate Captain

C) Platoon Chief/Division Chief

D) Appropriate Deputy Chief

Answer 161

C) Platoon Chief/Division Chief

Answer: C

Question 162

Policy & Procedure 0423.00 Equipment-General – It is whose responsibility to ensure that all equipment, on their apparatus, has been accounted for before returning from an alarm?

A) Driver

B) Company Officer

C) All members of the Crew

D) Incident Command

Answer 162

B) Company Officer

Answer: B

Question 163

According to the Blue Card program, which of the following is not one of the 8 Functions of Command?

A) Organization

B) Situation Evaluation

C) Emergency Response

D) Revise, Evaluation & Revision

Answer 163

C) Emergency Response

Answer: C

Question 164

According to the Blue Card program, which of the following is not one of the 8 Functions of Command?

A) Communications

B) Accountability

C) Continue, Support and Terminate Command

D) Strategy and Incident Action Planning

Answer 164

Answer: B

Question 165

According to the Blue Card program, which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command?

A) Accountability

B) Emergency Response

C) Deployment

D) None of the Above

Answer 165

C) Deployment

Answer: C

Question 166

According to the Blue Card program, which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command?

A) Accountability

B) Emergency Response

C) Tactical Priorities

D) None of the Above

Answer: D

Answer 166

D) None of the Above

Answer: D

Question 167

According to the Blue Card program, which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command?

A) Organization

B) Accountability

C) Tactical Priorities

D) Both B and C are correct

Answer 167

Answer: A

Question 168

According to the Blue Card program, which of the following are some of the 8 Functions of Command?

A) Tactical Priorities

B) Assumption, Confirmation and Positioning

C) Organization

D) Both B and C are correct

Answer 168

D) Both B and C are correct

Answer: D

Question 169

According to the Blue Card program, which of the following are central command’s tactical priorities?

A) Conserve property and the environment during and after operations

B) Provide short-term services that stabilize and begin to normalize the customers’ lives

C) Protect, remove, and provide care for endangered customers

D) All of the above

Answer 169

D) All of the above

Answer: D

Question 170

According to the Blue Card program, which of the following is not one of central command’s tactical priorities?

A) Provide short-term services that stabilize and begin to normalize the customers’ lives

B) Utilize the IMS Finance/Administration Section to provide the financial and cost analysis for the incident

C) Stabilize the incident or problem

D) Provide for responder safety and survival

Answer 170

B) Utilize the IMS Finance/Administration Section to provide the financial and cost analysis for the incident

Answer B: Role of Finance/Administration Section Chief (Ontario IMS, pg. 40)

Question 171

According to the Blue Card program, the command procedure mobilizes and integrates efforts for on-scene firefighters with a central command presence. Which of the following statements is incorrect about centralized command?

A) The command procedure provides a coordinated effort of all resources at the scene to gain control of the situation

B) The command procedure ensures that strong, direct and visible command is established as early as possible

C) The command procedure shall be delayed until a Senior Officer arrives on scene so that they can develop and manage an effective Incident Action Plan (IAP)

D) The command procedure fixes responsibility on an individual to become the Incident Commander through a standard identification system

Answer 171

C) The command procedure shall be delayed until a Senior Officer arrives on scene so that they can develop and manage an effective Incident Action Plan (IAP)

Answer: C

Question 172

According to the Blue Card program, effective Incident Organization (Function 6), fulfills all of the following except,

A) The Company Officer control where their firefighters are and what they are doing

B) The Incident Commander controls where the firefighters are and what they are doing

C) The Incident Commander has control over the position and function of all resources

D) The Incident Commander builds an effective organization to decentralize the incident scene

Answer 172

A) The Company Officer control where their firefighters are and what they are doing

Answer: A

Question 173

According to the Blue Card program, in most situations the first arriving company officer will work in operate in which organizational levels?

A) Strategic

B) Tactical

C) Task

D) All of the above

Answer 173

D) All of the above

Answer: D

Question 174

According to the Blue Card program, during Situation Evaluation / Size-Up (Function 3), there are 8 Critical Incident Factors that have a major impact in completing tactical priorities and firefighter safety. Which of the following is not considered a Critical Incident Factor?

A) Life Hazard – determine what are the number and location of occupants, identify resources to conduct search and identify EMS needs

B) Strike Teams – a functional component within Operations composed of the same kind of resources

C) Occupancy – determine the specific occupancy and type. What is the value associated with the occupancy and what is its status; open, closed, vacant, occupied

D) Arrangement – what is the distance of external exposures and the fire effect on those exposures, are there barriers or obstructions to operations

Answer 174

B) Strike Teams – a functional component within Operations composed of the same kind of resources

Answer B: Ontario IMS, Pg. 18

Question 175

According to the Blue Card program, during Situation Evaluation / Size-Up (Function 3), there are 8 Critical Incident Factors that have a major impact in completing tactical priorities and firefighter safety. Which of the following is not considered a Critical Incident Factor?

A) Special Circumstances – consider time of day, weekday or weekend. What are weather issues, if any. Identify if this a response for social or civil unrest

B) Building – factors include the size, area and height of the building, construction type, age and compartment separation

C) Emergency Control Group – directs a community’s overall strategic response to an emergency

D) Fire – factors include the size, extent and location, what stage is the fire in, what type of fire load is present

Answer 175

C) Emergency Control Group – directs a community’s overall strategic response to an emergency

Answer C: Ontario IMS, Pg. 22

Question 176

According to the Blue Card program, during Situation Evaluation / Size-Up (Function 3), there are 8 Critical Incident Factors that have a major impact in completing tactical priorities and firefighter safety. Which of the following is not considered a Critical Incident Factor?

A) Action – what effect the current action is having, is an effective Incident Action Plan (IAP in place), is layering in place to support a 3-deep deployment model

B) Unified Command – immediately establish a Unified Command structure, requiring joint, inter-dependent decision-making

C) Resources – factors include staffing and equipment on scene, or available in staging, condition of responders, hydrants and water supply, and built-in protection systems

D) Occupancy – determine the specific occupancy and type. What is the value associated with the occupancy and what is its status; open, closed, vacant, occupied

Answer B: Ontario IMS Pg. 47

Answer 176

B) Unified Command – immediately establish a Unified Command structure, requiring joint, inter-dependent decision-making

Answer B: Ontario IMS Pg. 47

Question 177

According to the Blue Card program, the Incident Commander must always match Standard Conditions to Standard Actions for a ___________ ____________.

A) Superior Result

B) Standard Conclusion

C) Standard Effect

D) Standard Outcome

Answer 177

D) Standard Outcome

Answer: D

Question 178

According to the Blue Card program, during Situation Evaluation / Size-Up (Function 3), there are 8 Critical Incident Factors that have a major impact in completing tactical priorities and firefighter safety. There are factors that are fixed (meaning you have no control over them) and others that are variable (which you can control). What are the three fixed factors?

A) Life Safety, Action, Arrangement

B) Building, Occupancy, Arrangement

C) Fire, Life Safety, Resources

D) Building, Occupancy, Fire

Answer 178

B) Building, Occupancy, Arrangement

Answer: B

Question 179

According to the Blue Card program, your initial radio report should consist of seven pieces of vital information. Which of the following make up your initial report?

A) Clear Alarm – Announce your arrival on scene

B) Building Area Description

C) Problem Description

D) All of the above

Answer 179

D) All of the above

Answer: D

Question 180

According to the Blue Card program, your initial radio report should consist of seven pieces of vital information. Which of the following make up your initial report?

A) Initial IAP – Action plan being taken

B) Declaration of the Strategy

C) Assumption & Naming of Command

D) All of the above

Answer 180

D) All of the above

Answer: D

Question 181

According to the Blue Card program, your initial radio report should consist of seven pieces of vital information. Which of the following make up your initial report?

A) Resource Determination

B) Building Area Description

C) Assumption & Naming of Command

D) All of the above

Answer 181

D) All of the above

Answer: D

Question 182

According to the Blue Card program, the size of the structure should be defined by the overall size of the building, not the occupancy type. Sizes are based on 200 ft. (60m) hoselines. Which of the following is correct?

A) When a 200’ (60m) line can access 100% of the fire area/occupancy - it is SMALL

B) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 75% of the fire area/occupancy – it is MEDIUM

C) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 50% of the fire area/occupancy – it is LARGE

D) All of the above

Answer 182

D) All of the above

Answer: D

Question 183

According to the Blue Card program, the size of the structure should be defined by the overall size of the building, not the occupancy type. Sizes are based on 200 ft. (60m) hoselines. Which of the following is incorrect?

A) When a 200’ (60m) line can access less than 25 percent (or less) of the fire area/occupancy – it is VERY LARGE

B) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 65% of the fire area/occupancy – it is INTERMEDIATE C) When a 200’ (60m) line can access 100% of the fire area/occupancy - it is SMALL

D) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 50% of the fire area/occupancy – it is LARGE

Answer 183

B) When a 200’ (60m) line can access plus or minus 65% of the fire area/occupancy – it is INTERMEDIATE C) When a 200’ (60m) line can access 100% of the fire area/occupancy - it is SMALL

Answer: B

Question 184

According to the Blue Card program, floor assembly failure times for a FINISHED basement averaged more than the ____ minutes from ignition, while floor assembly failure time for an UNFINISHED basement averaged less than ___ minutes from ignition. (UL and NIST Study)

A) 15 and 7

B) 20 and 10

C) 20 and 7

D) 15 and 10

Answer 184

C) 20 and 7

Answer: C

Question 185

According to the Blue Card program, prior to making an entry, the first-in command officer shall complete a 360 of the building. The first-in command officer should be observing the following:

A) Any immediate life safety/rescue issues

B) Number of storeys from the Charlie side

C) Basement type and conditions (if known)

D) All of the above

Answer 185

D) All of the above

Answer: D

Question 186

According to the Blue Card program, prior to making an entry, the first-in command officer shall complete a 360 of the building. The first-in command officer should be observing the following except:

A) Any immediate life safety/rescue issues

B) Any other significant critical factors

C) Hydrant location

D) Incident problem(s) and location (if different from Initial Radio Report)

Answer 186

C) Hydrant location

Answer: C

Question 187

According to the Blue Card program, assigning units to Operating Positions/Functions in the Hazard Zone using the “Assignment Model”. This means the Incident Commander should assign fireground jobs by providing ________, __________, and __________ to the crew company officer.

A) Task, Location, Objective

B) Task, Assignment, Objective

C) Task, Location, Duration

D) Assignment, Location, Objective

Answer 187

A) Task, Location, Objective

Answer: A

Question 188

According to the Blue Card program, the IC#2, or HFD Senior Officer should perform the following functions before assuming command.

A) Size-up and verify that all operating positions match the current incident conditions

B) Transmit that you have arrived on scene

C) Contact IC#1 and verify the position and function of all hazard zone resources and get a CAN report

D) All of the above

Answer 188

D) All of the above

Answer: D

Question 189

According to the Blue Card program, the IC#2, or HFD Senior Officer should perform the following functions before assuming command.

A) Contact and confirm the command transfer with dispatch

B) Announce that they will ‘Take it from here’

C) Announce the current strategy, make resource determination

D) All of the above

Answer 189

D) All of the above

Answer: D

Question 190

According to the Blue Card program, a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. What are some examples of Conditions?

A) Where you are

B) Smoke conditions

C) Fuel loads

D) All of the above

Answer 190

D) All of the above

Answer: D

Question 191

According to the Blue Card program, a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. Which would not be a Condition?

A) Interior visibility

B) Search progress

C) Fire conditions

D) What is burning

Answer 191

B) Search progress

Answer: B

Question 192

According to the Blue Card program, a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. What are some examples of Actions?

A) Search progress

B) Fire-control progress

C) All-clear

D) All of the above

Answer 192

D) All of the above

Answer: D

Question 193

According to the Blue Card program, a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. Which would not be an Action?

A) Loss stopped

B) Interior layout

C) Can’t find the fire

D) Checking for extension

Answer 193

B) Interior layout

Answer: B

Question 194

According to the Blue Card program, a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. What are some examples of Needs?

A) Tools of equipment

B) Reinforcement

C) Support work (ventilation, forcible entry)

D) All of the above

Answer 194

D) All of the above

Answer: D

Question 195

According to the Blue Card program, a CAN report provides information to Command that reflect Conditions, Actions and Needs. Which would not be a Need?

A) Heat conditions

B) Relief/Rehabilitation

C) Air cylinder exchange

D) Urgent help

Answer 195

A) Heat conditions

Answer: A

Question 196

According to the Blue Card program, which is the correct way to label this example below?

A) North (i), South (iii), East (iv), West (ii)

B) North (iii), South (i), East (ii), West (iv)

C) Clockwise: Alpha (i), Bravo (ii), Charlie (iii), Delta (iv)

D) Counter-clockwise: Alpha (i) , Bravo (iv), Charlie (iii), Delta (ii)

Answer 196

C) Clockwise: Alpha (i), Bravo (ii), Charlie (iii), Delta (iv)

Answer: C

Question 197

According to the Blue Card program, you are assigning a crew to check for an exposure where indicated with a Maltese cross. The correct naming of this location would be:

A) Alpha-Bravo corner

B) Charlie-Delta corner

C) Alpha-Delta corner

D) Bravo-Charlie corner

Answer 197

D) Bravo-Charlie corner

Answer: D

Question 198

According to the Blue Card program, you are assigning a crew to check for an exposure where indicated with a Maltese cross. The correct naming of this location would be:

A) Alpha-Bravo corner

B) Charlie-Delta corner

C) Alpha-Delta corner

D) Bravo-Charlie corner

Answer 198

B) Charlie-Delta corner

Answer: B

Question 199

According to the Blue Card program, you are assigning a crew to check for an exposure where indicated with a Maltese cross. The correct naming of this location would be:

A) Alpha-Bravo corner

B) Charlie-Delta corner

C) Alpha-Delta corner

D) Bravo-Charlie corner

Answer 199

A) Alpha-Bravo corner

Answer: A

Question 200

According to the Blue Card program, you are assigning a crew to check for an exposure where indicated with a Maltese cross. The correct naming of this location would be:

A) Alpha-Bravo corner

B) Charlie-Delta corner

C) Alpha-Delta corner

D) Bravo-Charlie corner

Answer 200

C) Alpha-Delta corner

Answer: C

Question 201

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, products of combustion travel upward toward the top of a building. If fire does not generate enough heat to cause the smoke to rise to the top of the building, the temperature of the smoke will eventually equal that of the surrounding air. When this equalization of temperature occurs, the smoke loses its buoyancy, ceases to rise, and forms layers of smoke within the building. This is known as:

A) Stack effect

B) Stratification

C) Heat intensity and compartmentation

D) Ceiling jets, or mushrooming

Answer 201

B) Stratification

Answer: B (pg. 58)

Question 202

According to IFSTA’s Structural Fire Fighting: High-Rise Fire Fighting, the natural vertical movement of heat and smoke (convection) in tall structures is known as _______________. This occurs because of differences in the density of the air inside and outside of these buildings (due to temperature differences inside and outside the structure). The greater the difference between the inside and outside temperature and the greater the building height, the greater the effect will be.

A) Stack effect

B) Stratification

C) Heat intensity and compartmentation

D) Ceiling jets, or mushrooming

Answer 202

A) Stack effect

Answer: A (pg. 58)