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IFR Oral Exam Prep > Full Deck > Flashcards

Full Deck Flashcards

1
Q

SSALS

A

Simplified Short Approach Light System; self-explanatory

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2
Q

VS0

A

Velocity, Stall; stall airspeed of aircraft configured for landing at maximum weight

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3
Q

MALSR

A

Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System with RAIL; MALS with runway alignment indicator lighting

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4
Q

You may not continue an approach below MDA or DH unless:

A
  • The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a normal descent to landing with normal maneuvers;
  • The flight visibility is not less than the minimum visibility required for the approach being used;
  • You have the runway environment in sight.
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5
Q

Use of portable electronic devices by your passengers is prohibited: T/F?

A

False; the use of portable devices by passengers is allowed if the pilot has determined that the device(s) do not interfere with communication or navigation systems of the aircraft.

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6
Q

On what date does your medical certificate expire?

A

The last day of the expiration month

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7
Q

What equipment is required to be installed in the aircraft for instrument flight?

A

G: Generator/alternator of adequate capacity
R: Rate of turn indicator
A: Attitude indicator
B: Ball and slip indicator
C: Clock with sweeping second hand or digital seconds
A: Altimeter (sensitive, adjustable to pressure)
R: Two way radio and navigation equipment appropriate for the ground facilities being used
D: Directional gyro
D: DME above 24,000’

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8
Q

What weather minima must be forecast at a given airport in order that you may list that field as an alternate?

A

The weather minima for an alternate airport is dependent upon the approach available at that field

  • No instrument approach: Ceiling and visibility to allow a descent from the MEA to landing in VMC
  • Non precision approach: 800’ ceiling, 2 miles visibility -Precision approach: 600’ ceiling, 2 miles visibility.
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9
Q

What is the difference between an MM and an LMM

A

A locator middle marker (LMM) has a compass locator associated with it whereas a middle marker does not

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10
Q

HAA

A

Height Above Airport; height, reported in feet, of DH or MDA above published airport elevation

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11
Q

MRA

A

Minimum Reception Altitude; the lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined via VOR reception

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12
Q

What time may an instrument pilot log as instrument flight time?

A

Only that time during which control of the airplane is maintained solely by reference to the instruments may be logged as instrument flight time.

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13
Q

What is an LDA?

A

A localizer type directional aid; comparable use and accuracy of a localizer but not aligned within 3 degrees of a runway centerline.

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14
Q

RVR

A

Runway Visual Range; runway visual distance reported in feet used in the determination of minimum visibility requirements.

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15
Q

NoPT

A

No Procedure Turn; specified as part of an approach procedure to designate that a procedure turn is neither necessary nor authorized for that portion of the approach

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16
Q

What are the correct instrument indications when checking a VOR on a VOT signal?

A

With the CDI centered, a “TO” indication when the OBS is set at 180 degrees, a “FROM” indication with the OBS set at 0 degrees. The acceptable error is less than +/- 4 degrees.

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17
Q

It is illegal to turn off your strobe lights while flying IFR at night. T/F?

A

False, the PIC need not operate the anti-collision lights if he determines that it jeopardizes safety of flight.

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18
Q

VS1

A

Velocity, Stall configuration 1; stall airspeed for a specifically defined configuration.

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19
Q

Your marker beacon receiver should normally be set to high or low sensitivity?

A

Low; to designate a more precise location. Alternatively, it may be set to high as an early warning that you are approaching the marker, and then reset to low for more precise position indication..

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20
Q

What is the “normal” glide slope angle?

A

3 degrees

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21
Q

List the 10 required reports which are required at ALL times (AIM 5-3-2 and 5-3-3; FAR §91.183)

1) Any situation regarding safety of flight; 2)Loss/malfunction of navigation/communication 3)Unforecast weather;
4) Missed approach;
5) Change in airspeed by 5% or 10 KIAS, whichever is greater;
6) Inability to climb/descent @ 500 fpm
7) Change of altitude (“4,000, climbing to 5,000”);
8) Leaving an altitude (“Leaving 10,500”);
9) Time and altitude entering a hold;
10) Leaving a hold;

A

List the 3 required reports which are required when NOT in radar contact.

1) Change in ETA greater than 3 minutes;
2) Final approach fix or outer marker inbound; 3)Compulsory and non-compulsory reporting points.

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22
Q

When may you operate below the published MEA?

A
  • Above the MOCA and within 22 NM of the associated VOR, when navigating via VORs;
  • At or above the MOCA along the entire route segment if navigating by an IFR enroute approved area navigation system, i.e. GPS.
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23
Q

Define equivalent airspeed

A

Calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility

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24
Q

You are approaching the Long Beach airport. You are operating on an IFR flight plan. The approach controller gives you the following clearance:”CESSNA TWO SIX ALPHA, TURN LEFT, HEADING THREE THREE ZERO, VECTORS FOR THE LONG BEACH VOR RUNWAY 30 FINAL APPROACH COURSE, MAINTAIN TWO THOUSAND UNTIL ESTABLISHED, CLEARED FOR THE APPROACH, CONTACT THE TOWER AT THE VOR.” What kind of procedure turn is required? (See Long Beach VOR RWY 30 approach plate.)

A

No PT is authorized

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25
Q

Define transition area

A

This terminology is OBE, but refers to the floor of controlled airspace at 700’ designated by a magenta line found around airports with instrument approaches.

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26
Q

You are cleared “VFR conditions on top.” At what altitudes may you fly?

A

Regardless of whether one is operating “VFR on top”, with an IFR clearance or “VFR over the top”, during non-IFR operations the pilot assumes “see and avoid”responsibility and should operate at appropriate VFR altitudes.

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27
Q

RCLS

A

Runway Centerline Lights; lights used in addition to paint to designate the runway centerline

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28
Q

PAR

A

Precision Approach Radar; ground based ATC operated radar used by the controller to verbally guide a pilot with course and glideslope corrections, much more accurate than airport surveillance radar

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29
Q

What are the IFR fuel requirements?

A

The aircraft must have enough fuel to reach the filed alternate airport (if required) plus 45 minutes at normal cruise.

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30
Q

What navigation facilities may you substitute for the Outer Marker and Middle Marker:

A
  • Outer Marker: DME, VOR, NDB or airport surveillance radar may be substituted for the OM;
  • Middle Marker: All substitutions for the OM, additionally a compass locator and/or precision radar.
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31
Q

MALS

A

Medium Intensity Approach Lighting System; self-explanatory

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32
Q

Define “ceiling”.

A

The height above the surface of the base of the lowest layer of “broken” or “overcast”clouds or obscuring phenomena

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33
Q

You are approaching a VOR enroute. The MEA is 5000 feet higher on the next leg (on the other side of the VOR.) When should you begin your climb to the new MEA?

A

Begin the climb at the point where the change occurs.

34
Q

What are the aircraft speed limits?

A
  • 250 KIAS below 10,000’
  • 200 KIAS at or below 2,500 AGL w/in 4 NM of a primary airport in Class C or D airspace
  • 200 KIAS in Class B Special Flight Rules Area (or as noted on chart) or underneath Class B airspace.
35
Q

What are the required components of an ILS?

A

An ILS provides:

  • Lateral and vertical guidance information (localizer, glideslope);
  • Range information (DME, marker beacons);
  • Visual information (runway lights, approach lights, touchdown and centerline lights).
36
Q

What are the recency of flight requirements for instrument flight?

A

Six approaches in the last six months, intercepting and tracking a course, and holding procedures.

37
Q

What is “slant range?” Why is it of concern to pilots when utilizing DME?

A

Slant range is the true distance from the DME receiver to the DME transmitter accounting for altitude. It is important because as one approaches the transmitter the altitude becomes a significant component of the “distance”. For example, directly over the transmitter at 6,076 feet the DME would read 1.

38
Q

MCA

A

Minimum Crossing Altitude; the lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA

39
Q

What is an SDF?

A

A simplified directional facility, similar to an ILS localizer but with approximately one-half the accuracy; course width is typically 5° each side of centerline, or 10° from full scale left to full scale right.

40
Q

What is the course width (full scale left to full scale right) of a localizer at the runway threshold?

A

700 feet.

41
Q

RCLM

A

Runway Centerline Marking; paint and sometimes lights that designate the runway centerline

42
Q

Where are Mode C transponders required?

A

Within 30 nm of the primary airport associated with a Class B airspace, from the surface to 10,000 MSL. In and above Class C airspace, up to 10,000 MSL. Under Class A airspace, at and above 10,000 MSL.

43
Q

DH

A

Decision Height; the height at which a decision must be made during an ILS, MLS or PAR instrument approach to either continue the approach or execute a missed approach

44
Q

HAT

A

Height Above Touchdown; the height of the DH or MDA above the highest runway elevation in the touchdown zone

45
Q

ALS

A

Approach Lighting System; provides a basic means to transition between instrument flight to visual flight for landing

46
Q

Define “route” when you are:

a. On an airway:

b. Off an airway:

A
  • On an airway: The centerline of the designated airway.

- Off an airway: On the point-to-point line between the waypoints.

47
Q

MEA

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude; the lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes

48
Q

On an ILS, the missed approach point is where?

A

WhEre the glideslope intercepts the Decision Altitude (DA).

49
Q

Give examples of “category” and “class” as they pertain to aircraft certification

A

Category refers to a grouping of aircraft based on intended use and/or operating limitations examples being normal, utility, acrobatic, limited, etc.;

Class refers to a broad grouping of aircraft based on similar characteristics of propulsion, flight, or landing examples being airplane, rotorcraft, balloon, etc.

50
Q

Define true airspeed

A

Equivalent airspeed corrected for atmospheric density

51
Q

Where must the ELT battery expiration date be recorded?

A

The ELT battery expiration date must be recorded on the outside of the transmitter and in the maintenance logbook.

52
Q

TDZL

A

Touchdown Zone Lighting; runway lighting that enables the differentiation between the touchdown zone and the remainder of the runway

53
Q

Compare/contrast VFR Over the Top with VFR on Top

A

“VFR On Top” is an IFR flight, on an IFR flight plan the conduct of which must be performed in accordance with both IFR and VFR flight rules. VFR altitudes and cloud clearances apply as well as see and avoid responsibility. Position reports in accordance with IFR flight must be performed. “VFR Over the Top” is VFR operation on top of a cloud deck.

54
Q

An alternate airport must be listed on any IFR flight plan unless…

A

The primary airport is forecast to have at least 3 miles visibility and a ceiling of 2000’ or greater one hour before and after the estimated time of arrival (1,2,3 rule).

55
Q

Give examples of “category” and “class” as they pertain to Airmen certification;

A

Category refers to broad classification of aircraft such as airplane, rotorcraft, glider;

Class refers to a classification of aircraft having similar operating characteristics examples being single engine, multi engine, land; water, etc

56
Q

MAA

A

Maximum Authorized Altitude; a published altitude representing the maximum usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment

57
Q

MOCA

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude; the lowest published altitude between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage within 22 NM of a VOR

58
Q

Describe the four types of VOR equipment checks

A

Bench check (on ground)
VOT check (on ground)
Dual VOR check (air or ground)
Airborne check

59
Q

Flight time is

A

Logged flight time is anytime the aircraft is moved under it’s own power

60
Q

What equipment is required to be installed in the aircraft for VFR flight?

A 
GOOSE-A-CATS
Gas gauge
Oil temperature
Oil pressure
Seat belts
ELT
Altimeter
Compass
Airspeed indicator
Tachometer
Strobe (after 3/96)
61
Q

What are the Morse code identifiers and light colors for OM, MM and IM:

A

a. OM: code: - - - ; color: blue;

b. MM: code: .-.- ; color: amber;

c. IM: code: . . . ; color: white.

62
Q

What are the Morse code identifiers transmitted by the LOM and LMM:

A

a. LOM: The outer locator marker transmits the first two letters of the localizer identification group..
b. LMM: The middle locator marker transmits the last two letters of the localizer identification group.

63
Q

Sometimes VOR’s are allowed to continue transmitting navigation signals even while the facility is undergoing maintenance. During these times the navigation signals may be dangerously inaccurate. What two means are available to alert you, the pilot, that these signals are not to be used?

A

The VOR portion of the identifier has been disabled (the DME portion may still be broadcasting) and a NOTAM (D) should have been issued.

64
Q

How might you have found out about a VOR facility undergoing maintenance prior to takeoff?

A

Scheduled maintenance should be available via NOTAM.

65
Q

What is the accuracy of LORAN C?

A

Better than 0.25 nautical mile absolute accuracy for suitably equipped users.

66
Q

If a LORAN station was out of service, how would you know?

A

A NOTAM (D) should designate the affected LORAN to be out of service.

67
Q

Under what conditions might your aircraft be invisible to ATC radar?

A

While flying in moderate to heavy precipitation.

68
Q

What are the positions and colors of a runway edge lighting system?

A
  • The runway edge lights emit white (clear) light except that yellow light is substituted for white light on the last 2,000 feet (610 m) of an instrument runway, or one-half the runway length, whichever is less, for indicating the caution zone.
  • The yellow lights are intended for rollout information after landing and are installed on the runway end opposite the landing threshold. They are installed on both ends of a runway only when there is an instrument approach to both ends.
  • The lights in the caution zone emit yellow light in the direction facing the instrument approach threshold and white light in the opposite direction.
  • The threshold lights emit green light toward the approach area while the runway end lights emit red light toward the runway. These lights are usually combined into one fixture and special lens or filters are used to give the desired light.
69
Q

Some airports permit pilot control of airport lighting when the airport is unattended. How is this done?

A

By keying the mike 3, 5, or 7 times with the transmitter tuned appropriately (generally the tower or CTAF frequency)

70
Q

Define Class E airspace:

A

Controlled airspace extending from 700 feet AGL or more when designated in conjunction with an airport; or from 1,200 AGL for the purpose of transitioning to/from an terminal environment; or 14,500 MSL to 18,000 MSL over the 48 contiguous states to 12 NM outwards of a coastline.

71
Q

Define Class A airspace:

A

Controlled airspace from 18,000 MSL to FL600.

72
Q

What is the significance of the magenta tint on VFR charts?

A

Delineates Class E airspace with a 700 AGL floor.

73
Q

Define Class D airspace:

A

Controlled, designated airspace that contains at least one primary airport.

74
Q

Pilots on IFR flight plans must continue to scan for other traffic when operating in VFR weather conditions, because they still are responsible to see and avoid other aircraft, except when inside Class B airspace. T/F?

A

False; in VMC conditions the PIC is always responsible to see and avoid other aircraft regardless of the class of airspace.

75
Q

While en route, you notice that the course and altitude given to you by ATC will cause you to penetrate a restricted area. You should:

a. Begin circling, avoid the restricted airspace, and request and amended clearance from ATC.

b. Fly through the restricted airspace.

c. Remain on course, but request an amended clearance far enough before the restricted airspace to permit the controller to issue a new clearance prior to penetration of the restricted area.

d. Request an amended clearance; if ATC will not provide one, then comply with your clearance and report the incident to the ATC facility manager as soon as practical after landing.

A

The correct answer is b; an IFR clearance includes authorization to penetrate any intervening restricted airspace.

76
Q

While en route, you notice that the course and altitude given to you by ATC will cause you to penetrate a MOA area. You should:

a. Begin circling, avoid the restricted airspace, and request and amended clearance from ATC.

b. Fly through the restricted airspace.

c. Remain on course, but request an amended clearance far enough before the restricted airspace to permit the controller to issue a new clearance prior to penetration of the restricted area.

d. Request an amended clearance; if ATC will not provide one, then comply with your clearance and report the incident to the ATC facility manager as soon as practical after landing.

A

The correct answer in this case is to fly through the MOA as assigned by ATC, perhaps a query to ATC is in order.

77
Q

Define an Alert Area.

A

An alert area is established to inform pilots that a high volume of pilot training or unusual aeronautical activity may be taking place.

78
Q

Standard Instrument Departures provide terrain clearance during your departure and climb provided the aircraft maintains a climb gradient of not less than ? feet per nautical mile.

A

200 ft per nautical mile

79
Q

T/F: When departing from or arriving at an airport not served by an operating control tower, IFR pilots are not required to announce their intentions on the CTAF, as they are required to be in contact with approach/departure control.

A

False; pilots are required to announce their intentions on the CTAF if a control tower is not in operation.

80
Q

What is the standard temperature lapse rate

A

3.5 degrees Fahrenheit or 2 degrees Celsius.

IFR Oral Exam Prep (3 decks)

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