Full Chapter Flashcards

1
Q

What is a risk factor for the development of compartment syndrome after a supracondylar fracture?

A

Excessive swelling combined with delay in treatment.

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2
Q

What is one initial step in managing a suspected evolving compartment syndrome?

A

Removing all circumferential dressings.

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3
Q

According to Battaglia et al., what is the relationship between elbow flexion and volar compartment pressure?

A

Increasing elbow flexion above 90 degrees increases volar compartment pressure.

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4
Q

What is recommended for immediate stabilization in cases of suspected compartment syndrome after a fracture?

A

Stabilization with Kirschner wires to allow proper management of soft tissues.

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5
Q

How does warm ischemic time after injury contribute to the development of compartment syndrome?

A

Muscle ischemia is possible, depending on the time of oxygen deprivation.

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6
Q

When should prophylactic volar compartment fasciotomy be considered?

A

It can be considered at the time of arterial reconstruction.

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7
Q

What was found to be of some value even when the diagnosis of compartment syndrome is delayed or chronic?

A

Fasciotomy.

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8
Q

What suggests critical ischemia in a child with a ‘pink pulseless hand’ following fracture reduction?

A

Persistent and increasing pain.

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9
Q

What is the most common nerve injury in extension-type supracondylar fractures?

A

AIN (5%).

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10
Q

What nerve injuries were reported in the largest single-center study of type III supracondylar fractures?

A

12% nerve injuries at presentation, with a rate of 19% if associated forearm fracture required reduction.

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11
Q

What does a prospective study on nerve injuries in operatively treated supracondylar fractures suggest?

A

A trend between fracture severity and rate of preoperative nerve injury.

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12
Q

What was seen in the same study regarding the relationship between fracture severity and nerve injury rate?

A

Type II 7%, type III 19%, type IV 36%.

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13
Q

What potential nerve entrapment issue may occur during reduction of supracondylar fractures?

A

Median nerve and/or brachial artery may be trapped within the fracture site.

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14
Q

What technique is used to forcibly milk the biceps during the reduction of fractures?

A

“Milking maneuver” is used to force biceps past the proximal fragment.

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15
Q

How many pins are generally recommended for type II and type III fractures?

A

A minimum of two pins for type II fractures and three pins for type III fractures.

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16
Q

What is more critical in pin placement for fractures, pin separation, or pin orientation?

A

Pin separation is more important than whether the pins are divergent or parallel.

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17
Q

What should be ensured to correctly place a pin for fracture fixation?

A

Ensure the pin goes through the proximal cortex and engages the proximal fragment.

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18
Q

What should be done to verify the correct placement of K-wires before advancing with drilling?

A

Push K-wires into the cartilage in desired location and trajectory, verify with imaging.

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19
Q

What is the recommended elbow position during fixation to improve stabilization?

A

The elbow should be sufficiently flexed so that the fingers touch the shoulder.

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20
Q

What is the alternative approach if maintaining fracture reduction becomes difficult during imaging?

A

Move the C-arm instead of the patient’s arm during imaging.

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21
Q

In what instance would a medial pin be considered in fracture stabilization?

A

If three lateral pins do not stabilize the fracture, or there is an oblique fracture pattern.

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22
Q

What precaution should be taken when placing a medial pin to avoid nerve damage?

A

Extend the elbow when placing the pin to keep the ulnar nerve posteriorly out of harm’s way.

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23
Q

Why is it recommended to save images where reduction looks the worst postoperatively?

A

To compare during visits and determine if any movement or malreduction occurred.

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24
Q

What are the considerations for treating SCH fractures nonsurgically?

A

Likelihood of follow-up with an orthopedic surgeon for timely rereduction.

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25
Q

How does insurance status impact follow-up rates for SCH fractures?

A

Children with public or no insurance are almost three times less likely to follow up.

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26
Q

What are the results of closed reduction and percutaneous pinning for type II fractures?

A

No radiographic or clinical loss of reduction, cubitus varus, hyperextension, or loss of motion.

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27
Q

What are the reported complications of closed reduction and percutaneous pinning for type II fractures?

A

2% pin-tract infections, successfully treated with antibiotics and limited surgical interventions.

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28
Q

Why is operative treatment advocated for type II SCH fractures?

A

Hyperflexion needed for reduction in unpinned fractures raises compartment pressure risk.

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29
Q

What is the role of flexion in maintaining reduction for SCH fractures?

A

Elbow flexion >90 degrees increases neurovascular compromise risk; should be immobilized with pins.

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30
Q

Why is pinning recommended for type III SCH fractures?

A

Operative reduction and pinning produce better results compared to non-surgical methods.

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31
Q

What role does the periosteum play in extension-type SCH fractures?

A

The intact posterior periosteal hinge provides stability and facilitates fracture reduction.

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32
Q

Why should flexion of the elbow be limited for type III fractures?

A

Flexion up to 90 degrees increases risk of compartment syndrome, requires caution.

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33
Q

O que deve ser colocado primeiro antes de usar um pino medial?

A

Lateral pins

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34
Q

Por que razão o pino medial deve ser colocado sem hiperflexão do cotovelo?

A

To avoid hyperflexion of the elbow

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35
Q

De acordo com estudos biomecânicos, qual configuração de pino foi encontrada como mais forte do que dois pinos laterais?

A

Crossed pins

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36
Q

How should lateral pins be separated at the fracture site for optimal stability?

A

Clinically recommended to be separated at the fracture site

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37
Q

Nos estudos de Lee et al., qual técnica de fixação foi considerada superior em carga de extensão e varo?

A

Divergent: two divergent lateral pins

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38
Q

Bloom reportou que a força de três pinos divergentes de entrada lateral é superior à da travagem cruzada.

A

Three lateral entry divergent pins were equivalent and stronger

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39
Q

A maioria dos estudos biomecânicos contemporâneos apoia principalmente a configuração de pinos transversais para fixação de fraturas.

A

Lateral entry pins

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40
Q

Quais são os pontos técnicos importantes para a fixação com pinos de entrada lateral de acordo com uma série bem-sucedida de fraturas?

A

Maximize pin separation, engage medial and lateral columns, engage sufficient bone, consider a third pin for stability, use three pins for type III fractures

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41
Q

What were the identified pin-fixation errors by Sankar et al. that led to loss of fixation?

A

Failure to engage both fragments, failure to achieve bicortical fixation, failure to achieve adequate pin separation

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42
Q

Quais equipamentos são comumente usados na redução fechada e na fixação percutânea?

A

0.062-in smooth K-wires, sterile coban, sterile felt, sterile foam

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43
Q

Como deve o paciente ser posicionado para redução fechada e fixação percutânea?

A

Supine on the operating table with fractured elbow on a short radiolucent arm board

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44
Q

Quais são alguns passos cirúrgicos chave na redução fechada e fixação percutânea?

A

Prep and drape, traction, fracture reduction, check reduction, place K-wires, place pins, bend and cut wires

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45
Q

How should the elbow be positioned during traction to avoid tethering neurovascular structures?

A

Flexed at about 20 degrees

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46
Q

How long should significant traction be held for badly displaced fractures to allow soft tissue realignment?

A

60 seconds

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47
Q

How is varus and valgus angular alignment corrected in closed reduction and percutaneous pinning?

A

By movement of the forearm with the elbow almost straight

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48
Q

How is medial and lateral fracture translation realigned in closed reduction and percutaneous pinning?

A

With direct movement of the distal fragment by the surgeon with image confirmation

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49
Q

What should be allowed for recovery of perfusion in the operating room before deciding to explore the brachial artery?

A

Up to 10 to 15 minutes.

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50
Q

Why is the absence of a pulse alone not an indication for exploring a brachial artery?

A

Most patients without a palpable pulse regain and maintain adequate distal perfusion.

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51
Q

What is imperative for hand viability in cases of poorly perfused hands?

A

Exploration is imperative for all poorly perfused hands.

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52
Q

What is the risk associated with prolonged poor or absent pulse and poor perfusion during fracture reduction?

A

High risk of compartment syndrome.

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53
Q

What should be considered in cases of poor limb perfusion lasting over 6 hours?

A

Prophylactic forearm compartment release should be considered.

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54
Q

What should be done if a pulseless hand remains poorly perfused following reduction and pinning?

A

Arterial exploration should be performed emergently.

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55
Q

What measures may relieve associated arterial spasm following freeing the artery from the fracture?

A

Application of lidocaine, warming, and 10 to 15 minutes of observation.

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56
Q

What is indicated if the hand remains poorly perfused after anatomic fracture reduction and decompression of the NVB?

A

Vascular reconstruction by an appropriate specialist.

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57
Q

What is recommended if a pulse does not return but the hand is well perfused post-reduction?

A

Admitting the child to the hospital with observation for at least 48 hours.

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58
Q

What is considered as an objective sign of good perfusion in the context of a well-perfused yet pulseless hand?

A

Presence of a triphasic pulse detectable on Doppler.

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59
Q

Why is it recommended to take a true AP view of the distal humerus during radiographic examination of elbow fractures in children?

A

To allow a more accurate evaluation of the distal humerus and decrease errors in determining Baumann’s angle.

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60
Q

What percentage of accuracy has been reported for emergency room physicians’ interpretation of elbow fractures in children?

A

53%

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61
Q

What is the significance of the lateral film being taken as a true lateral during radiographic examination of elbow fractures?

A

It helps with accurate evaluation without external rotation, especially in determining Baumann’s angle.

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62
Q

When should oblique views of the distal humerus be taken during radiographic examination of elbow fractures in children?

A

Occasionally when supracondylar or occult condylar fractures are suspected but not seen on standard views.

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63
Q

What are the main radiographic parameters used to evaluate the presence of a supracondylar fracture?

A

The anterior humeral line (AHL) crossing the capitellum on a true lateral of the elbow.

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64
Q

What is the normal range for Baumann’s angle, also known as the humeral capitellar angle?

A

About 9 to 26 degrees.

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65
Q

How does the anterior humeral line (AHL) differ in children under 10 years of age compared to children 5 years and older?

A

In children under 10, AHL only passes through the capitellum’s middle third 52% of the time, while in children 5 and older, it should always pass through the center.

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66
Q

How should supracondylar fractures be initially splinted?

A

With the elbow in a comfortable position of 20 to 40 degrees flexion.

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67
Q

What action may restore a pulse if the arm is pulseless?

A

Gentle traction and elbow flexion alone may frequently restore a pulse.

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68
Q

What complications may arise from excessive flexion or extension of the elbow during splinting?

A

Compromise of the limb’s vascularity and increased compartment pressure.

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69
Q

What is the recommended position for the elbow and hand after initial splinting?

A

They should be gently elevated above the heart.

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70
Q

According to the course notes, what percentage of Pediatric Orthopaedic Society members would treat a type III supracondylar humerus fracture by splinting overnight if there were no emergent issues?

A

81% would treat by splinting overnight and fixing the following morning.

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71
Q

In the study by Larson et al., what percentage of type II supracondylar fractures had surgery more than 24 hours after injury?

A

52% had surgery more than 24 hours after injury.

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72
Q

When is operative treatment not unduly delayed for supracondylar fractures according to the notes?

A

It should not be unduly delayed if poor perfusion, pulselessness, firm compartments, etc., are present.

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73
Q

What timing for operative treatment of type II supracondylar fractures did Larson et al. find did not affect outcome?

A

Timing for operative treatment did not affect outcome.

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74
Q

What did Silva et al. find regarding closed reduction of type II supracondylar fractures treated 7 to 15 days after injury?

A

They found that closed anatomic reduction was achieved with equal outcomes to fractures treated within 7 days of injury.

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75
Q

Why is reliable fracture reduction after 2 weeks less likely in very young children?

A

Due to early callus formation making reduction less likely.

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76
Q

How is perfusion evaluated post-fracture reduction in the operating room?

A

Skin color is evaluated and a Doppler is used to assess for a triphasic pulse.

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77
Q

What is the management approach for a poorly perfused hand following reduction?

A

Open exploration and decompression or repair of the artery is required.

78
Q

What action should be taken if a hand becomes poorly perfused immediately after reduction and pinning?

A

Remove pins immediately, allow the fracture to return to its unreduced position, and consider open exploration of the artery.

79
Q

What should be done if there is no pulse postoperatively in an arm without a pulse preoperatively?

A

Prolonged observation for 48 hours with the arm mildly elevated is preferred.

80
Q

What steps are involved in the Open Reduction and Pinning Technique?

A

Expose, retract muscle to identify neurovascular bundle, remove periosteum, reduce fracture, repair/reconstruct artery, release forearm compartments.

81
Q

Where should an incision be made for exposure in the Open Reduction and Pinning Technique?

A

A 4 to 5 cm transverse anterior incision above and parallel to the antecubital fossa at the fracture site.

82
Q

When should forearm compartments be released in the Open Reduction and Pinning Technique?

A

Forearm compartments should be released to prevent reperfusion compartment syndrome with arterial reconstruction.

83
Q

What is the significance of decreased elbow crossing the anterior third of the capitellum?

A

It is associated with less elbow flexion compared to crossing the middle or posterior third.

84
Q

Why is the elbow casted in significantly less than 90 degrees of flexion?

A

To ensure that the pins, not the cast, are holding the reduction.

85
Q

What should be evaluated if there is any question of perfusion postoperatively?

A

Skin color should be examined, and Doppler assessment for a triphasic pulse should be undertaken.

86
Q

In Open Reduction and Pinning, what care must be taken during dissection to avoid damage?

A

Care must be taken as the NVB may be superficial and pushed against the skin, risking damage.

87
Q

What should be done if an avascular or dysvascular hand is encountered in a fracture site?

A

The NVB needs to be gently teased out of the fracture without harm.

88
Q

Why is it important to release forearm compartments if revascularization is required?

A

To lessen the risk of reperfusion compartment syndrome.

89
Q

How can the brachialis muscle interposition be utilized in a fracture?

A

The ‘milking maneuver’ frees the muscle, allowing closed reduction to occur.

90
Q

What is the predictive indicator of the need for arterial repair and risk of compartment syndrome?

A

Hand perfusion, not the presence or absence of a pulse.

91
Q

What are the generally accepted criteria for distinguishing a viable hand upon presentation?

A

Capillary refill equivalent to the opposite side in less than 3 to 5 seconds, normal pulp turgor, and pink color.

92
Q

What type of injury involves forced elbow hyperextension?

A

Extension-type fractures of the distal humerus.

93
Q

How do extension-type fractures typically occur in children?

A

Most children attempt to break falls with extended arms, leading to hyperextended elbows.

94
Q

What is the result of the distal humerus failing anteriorly in extension-type fractures?

A

Potential harm to adjacent soft tissue structures like the brachialis muscle, brachial artery, and median nerve.

95
Q

What determines the risk to different soft tissue structures in supracondylar fractures?

A

Medial or lateral displacement of the distal fragment.

96
Q

What is the anatomical variant that can be the site of median nerve compression?

A

Supracondylar process.

97
Q

How does ligamentous laxity relate to predisposition for extension-type SCH fractures?

A

It’s unclear if ligamentous laxity with elbow hyperextension predisposes to SCH fractures.

98
Q

What determines which soft tissue structures are at risk in SCH fractures?

A

Whether the distal fragment is medially or laterally displaced.

99
Q

What is recommended for patients with a history of a fall and inability to use the extremity?

A

A thorough radiologic evaluation, including AP and lateral views of the upper extremity.

100
Q

How does forearm pronation aid in fracture reduction?

A

Forearm pronation places the medial and posterior periosteum on tension, correcting varus and extension malalignment and adding stability.

101
Q

What is recommended for reduction in a posterolaterally displaced supracondylar fracture?

A

Forearm supination in addition to flexion is recommended for reduction in a posterolaterally displaced supracondylar fracture.

102
Q

What is the significance of medial column comminution fractures?

A

Fractures with medial comminution must be treated with operative reduction to prevent varus deformity.

103
Q

How is reduction of a medial comminuted fracture achieved?

A

Significant valgus force is applied across a straight elbow, with well-placed lateral entry pins for stabilization.

104
Q

What approach is recommended for open supracondylar fractures?

A

The anterior approach using a transverse incision based on the open wound with medial or lateral extension as needed is recommended.

105
Q

What should be done in cases of open supracondylar fractures?

A

Open irrigation, debridement, examination of fracture surfaces, washing, and stabilization with K-wires are necessary.

106
Q

What antibiotic treatment is recommended for open fractures per the notes?

A

Cefazolin for Gustilo type I, II, and IIIA injuries, with additional antibiotics for gram-negative organism coverage.

107
Q

What was the patency rate in 54 patients with surgically repaired arteries?

A

91%

108
Q

What percentage of patients who had brachial artery ligation as a child for renal transplant had mildly decreased exercise tolerance?

A

67%

109
Q

What is recommended for evaluating postreduction circulation in patients with a pink pulseless hand?

A

Pulse oximetry

110
Q

What should be considered if the arm is pulseless and has a median nerve deficit?

A

Special attention and monitoring for compartment syndrome

111
Q

According to Mangat et al., what was found in patients who were pulseless with a median nerve injury?

A

Brachial artery trapped or tethered at the fracture site

112
Q

What is the approach for the brachial artery during exploration in a Gartland type III supracondylar fracture?

A

Anteromedial transverse incision above the antecubital fossa

113
Q

When is formal vascular repair and/or vein grafting required in patients with a nonviable hand post fracture reduction?

A

When release of a fascial band or an adventitial tether does not resolve the problem

114
Q

What is recommended in patients with pulseless extremities without a nerve deficit?

A

Exploration of the brachial artery is less likely needed

115
Q

How long is a type II supracondylar fracture managed in a long-arm cast?

A

Approximately 3 weeks.

116
Q

What is the recommended elbow flexion angle in a long-arm cast for a type II fracture?

A

Approximately 60 to 90 degrees.

117
Q

When are follow-up x-rays recommended after managing a type II supracondylar fracture in a cast?

A

At 1 week for assessment of fracture position.

118
Q

What is the authors’ preferred fixation method for most type II supracondylar fractures?

A

Closed reduction and two lateral pins.

119
Q

When is a third lateral pin considered for fixation in type II supracondylar fractures?

A

If two lateral pins fail to provide acceptable fixation.

120
Q

Why is it safer to hold a type II fracture reduced with pins rather than flexing the elbow greater than 90 degrees?

A

To prevent displacement of the fracture.

121
Q

What treatment approach is taken for type III supracondylar fractures?

A

Closed reduction percutaneous pinning (CRPP) attempted first.

122
Q

What is the postoperative care approach for type IV supracondylar fractures according to the authors?

A

Placement of two K-wires into the distal fragment first.

123
Q

What is used for pain control after supracondylar fracture surgery in children according to Swanson et al.?

A

Acetaminophen.

124
Q

When are ROM exercises typically taught to the family post-removal of cast?

A

A few days after cast removal.

125
Q

How is dissection best accomplished along the brachial artery?

A

Proximally to distally, identifying both the artery and the median nerve.

126
Q

What artery is generally injured at the level of the supratrochlear artery?

A

The brachial artery, as it becomes vulnerable at this location.

127
Q

What can be done if arterial spasm causes inadequate flow?

A

Attempts to relieve the spasm or application of papaverine may help.

128
Q

What is indicated in cases of prolonged ischemia to prevent compartment syndrome?

A

Prophylactic release of forearm fascia.

129
Q

What are the classic five Ps for the diagnosis of compartment syndrome?

A

Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesias, and paralysis.

130
Q

What are the more sensitive indicators of compartment syndrome in children?

A

Increasing analgesia requirement and other clinical signs.

131
Q

What are clinical signs of compartment syndrome of the forearm?

A

Resistance to passive finger movement and dramatically increasing pain.

132
Q

How can iatrogenic ulnar nerve injury be avoided?

A

By using lateral entry pins and avoiding cross-pins if not necessary.

133
Q

What was the reported iatrogenic neurapraxia rate for laterally placed pins in the meta-analysis?

A

1.9% for laterally placed pins.

134
Q

After how many days did 90% of range of motion (ROM) return for extension in children with SCH fractures?

A

30 days.

135
Q

When were pins typically removed following closed reduction percutaneous pinning of supracondylar fractures?

A

By 3 to 4 weeks.

136
Q

What should be done if elbow motion is not nearly normal at the 4 to 8-week follow-up appointment?

A

Physical therapy to improve elbow motion should be started.

137
Q

What risk does lateral entry pins pose in terms of infections?

A

Lateral entry pins can carry a risk of deep-spaced infection.

138
Q

How do pin-tract infections generally resolve?

A

Pin-tract infections generally resolve with pin removal and antibiotics.

139
Q

What can an untreated pin-tract infection result in?

A

An untreated pin-tract infection can result in a septic joint.

140
Q

What is the reduction maneuver for posterior laterally displaced fractures?

A

Supinate the forearm.

141
Q

How should the elbow be positioned during traction for fracture reduction?

A

With elbow flexed 20 to 30 degrees.

142
Q

What is the role of the assistant during fracture reduction?

A

Provide countertraction against the patient’s axilla.

143
Q

What should be verified through fluoroscopic images after reduction?

A

Anterior humeral line, Baumann’s angle, medial and lateral columns.

144
Q

How should the elbow be taped after a satisfactory reduction?

A

In the hyperflexed position with elastic tape.

145
Q

Where should the K-wire be placed before advancing it through the skin?

A

Against the lateral humeral condyle, not piercing the skin.

146
Q

How should the drill be used for advancing the pin after correct placement?

A

Advance the pin using the drill.

147
Q

What percentage of extension SCH fractures have a nerve injury?

A

11%

148
Q

What percentage of nerve injuries in extension fractures involve multiple nerves?

A

14%

149
Q

Which nerve is most commonly injured in extension SCH fractures?

A

Median nerve

150
Q

Describe the presentation of AIN palsy.

A

Paralysis of thumb and index finger flexors without sensory changes

151
Q

What are the common causes of complete median nerve injury?

A

Severe contusion, entrapment, or transection at fracture level

152
Q

In which direction of fracture displacement is the radial nerve more likely to be injured?

A

Posteromedially

153
Q

Which nerve is most likely to be injured in a flexion-type supracondylar fracture?

A

Ulnar nerve

154
Q

What is the general approach to nerve recovery in closed fractures?

A

Observation; may take 6 months or more

155
Q

What is the success rate of nerve grafting for non-continuous nerves?

A

Successful in restoring nerve function

156
Q

How can pin migration complications be minimized?

A

Bending at least 1 cm of pin at a 90-degree angle, 1 cm from the skin and using pin covers.

157
Q

What is myositis ossificans and how is it treated?

A

Rare ossification complication post-fracture. Expects spontaneous resolution; no early excision.

158
Q

What contributes to nonunion in supracondylar fractures?

A

Infection, devascularization, and soft tissue loss increase nonunion risk.

159
Q

Describe avascular necrosis risk in supracondylar fractures.

A

Can occur at the trochlea due to fragile blood supply, leading to deformities.

160
Q

What symptoms indicate avascular necrosis of the trochlea?

A

Mild pain, occasional locking, radiologic findings, and limited motion.

161
Q

How is loss of reduction following fixation treated?

A

May need medial and lateral column arrests or arthroscopic debridement.

162
Q

What are the potential complications in patients with pulseless supracondylar fractures?

A

Compartment syndrome and the need for vascular repair.

163
Q

Epidemiologia

What percentage of patients with pulseless supracondylar fractures had a return of palpable pulse following reduction?

A

48%.

164
Q

When should urgent reduction with pinning in the operating room be done for a pulseless, well-perfused hand?

A

In the case of pulselessness but well-perfused hand.

165
Q

What is the suggested elbow flexion angle for repositioning a severely displaced supracondylar fracture with compromised vascularity?

A

Approximately 20 to 40 degrees.

166
Q

Why should fracture reduction not be delayed for an angiographic study in patients with pulseless supracondylar fractures?

A

Reduction of the fracture usually restores the pulse.

167
Q

What is the standard treatment for a pulseless hand following supracondylar fracture?

A

Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning.

168
Q

What is the most common operative treatment for supracondylar fractures?

A

Closed reduction and pinning.

169
Q

What criteria indicate an acceptable reduction in supracondylar fractures?

A

Restoration of Baumann’s angle, intact medial and lateral columns, and appropriate alignment of the AHL.

170
Q

What is the recommended immobilization degree for the elbow in supracondylar fractures?

A

40 to 60 degrees of flexion.

171
Q

When should an open reduction be considered in supracondylar fractures?

A

If there is a considerable gap in the fracture site or if the fracture is irreducible with a ‘rubbery’ feeling.

172
Q

What are the risks associated with crossed pins in supracondylar fractures?

A

Potential ulnar nerve injury and risk of loss of reduction.

173
Q

How many pins are recommended for a type III supracondylar humeral fracture?

A

Three pins

174
Q

What pin spacing is recommended at the level of the fracture to prevent loss of reduction?

A

At least 13 mm or one-third the width of the humerus

175
Q

What is the recommended minimum number of pins for a type II supracondylar humeral fracture?

A

Two pins

176
Q

What is indicated in cases of failed closed reduction or nerve injury following reduction?

A

Open reduction

177
Q

Epidemiologia

What is the rate of open reductions in specialized pediatric trauma centers at Children’s Hospital?

A

0.7%- 6%

178
Q

What approach is extremely useful for open reduction in cases of neurovascular compromise at the elbow?

A

Direct anterior approach

179
Q

Name three types of pin-fixation errors identified in the notes.

A

Failure to engage both fragments, failure to achieve bicortical fixation, failure to achieve adequate pin separation.

180
Q

What did Pennock et al. report as an important factor in preventing loss of reduction?

A

Pins separated by at least 13 mm at the level of the fracture on an AP view.

181
Q

What deformity is described as ‘gunstock deformity’?

A

Cubitus varus.

182
Q

Describe the appearance of cubitus varus deformity on x-ray according to the notes.

A

Angle of the physis of the lateral condyle (Baumann’s angle) is more horizontal on the AP view.

183
Q

What is Metev’s sign?

A

The appearance of a hole in the bone due to chronic nerve entrapment in healed callus.

184
Q

What is the rate of iatrogenic injury to the ulnar nerve in patients with supracondylar fractures?

A

Reported to occur in 1% to 15% of patients.

185
Q

Where is the ulnar nerve vulnerable when a medial pin is placed?

A

Between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon at the cubital tunnel.

186
Q

What are the risks associated with the posterior approach for an extended supracondylar fracture?

A

Higher rate of loss of motion, further fracture instability, risk of avascular necrosis.

187
Q

How is the intraosseous blood supply of the distal humerus depicted?

A

The vessels supplying the lateral condylar epiphysis enter on the posterior aspect.

188
Q

What is the recommended duration of immobilization for supracondylar fractures?

A

3 weeks, regardless of the type (Type I, II, or III).

189
Q

What are the criteria used to determine an acceptable position for a supracondylar fracture?

A

AHL transecting the capitellum, Baumann’s angle, intact olecranon fossa.

190
Q

Why is excessive swelling, nerve or vascular disruption concerning in type I fractures?

A

Indicative of a more significant injury, periosteal disruption might render the fracture unstable.