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BE-400A Type Rating > FSI Required Knowledge areas > Flashcards

FSI Required Knowledge areas Flashcards

1
Q

When is the cabin entrance door officially locked?

A

When all eight latching pins are secured.

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2
Q

How is the emergency exit secured?

A

By the lock bracket, which is held in place by the locking pin

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3
Q

What is the wingspan of the Beechjet 400A?

A

43’6”

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4
Q

What gages/indicators use AC power?

A

Oil pressure gauge, pitch trim position indicator, AC BUS SHED annunciator, and the flap position indicator use AC power.

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5
Q

What position do the GEN RESET switches need to be set to for a generator assisted start?

A

NORM

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6
Q

What position do the GEN RESET switches need to be set do if both engines are to be started with a GPU?

A

OFF

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7
Q

Max load on an operating generator for a generator-assisted start?

A

150amps

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8
Q

Specs of the Beechjet generators?

A

Two 28.5volt 400amp starter-generators

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9
Q

What type of switches do the AOA, Pitot, and Static Heaters have?

A

Circuit Breaker type switches

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10
Q

What are GPU requirements?

A

28 volt, 1000-1500 amp output

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11
Q

What kind of Battery does the Beechjet have?

A

One 24-volt, 40-amp-hour lead-acid battery

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12
Q

Inverter specs?

A

Two static inverters both providing 115v and 26v

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13
Q

What happens when you move the battery switch to EMER

A

It separates the battery from the start bus (and thus the rest of the system) and activates the emergency bus relay and so the battery powers the emergency bus.

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14
Q

What does the INTEG switch control?

A

The instrument and panel backlighting

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15
Q

Should you operate the recognition light on the ground?

A

No

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16
Q

What powers the cabin emergency lighting when there is no electrical power to the aircraft?

A

Separate emergency light batteries

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17
Q

Where can the MASTER WARNING RESET switchlights be found?

A

on either end of the shroud panel

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18
Q

What can provide power for the master warning/caution system?

A

The left and right load buses and the emergency bus

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19
Q

What must you do anytime a RED master warning annunciation illuminates?

A

Any RED master warning annunciators require immediate corrective action.

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20
Q

Cabin indirect lighting will automatically come on under what condition?

A

Cabin de-pressurizing to 12,500 +/- 500’

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21
Q

After an engine start, when does the boost pump shut off?

A

It automatically deenergizes when the engine start switch is placed to off.

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22
Q

The wing tank becomes over pressurized. What does the airplane do to protect itself?

A

The same side transfer pump shuts off until it is reset.

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23
Q

When can you take off with fuel in the fuselage?

A

When the wing tanks are full and the only tanks that remain are the fuselage tanks. In other words you may not take off with partial wing full and fuel in the fuselage.

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24
Q

Are boost pumps required for takeoff?

A

Boost pumps are required to be operational for take off.

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25
Q

L or R F FLTR BYPASS indicates what?

A

a fuel filter blockage and the fuel is automatically being routed around the blocked filter.

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26
Q

With boost pump switches set to AUTO, the boost pumps will activate when?

A

The boost pumps will activate when there is low fuel pressure.

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27
Q

When the fuel transfer switches are set to AUTO, fuselage fuel transfer will begin automatically when?

A

There is at least one generator online.

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28
Q

With both engines operating, selecting the FUEL XFEED switch to L TANK causes fuel to flow where?

A

From the left tank to both engines.

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29
Q

What is required when setting climb thrust?

A

You must reference the AFM Maximum Continuous Thrust charts.

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30
Q

What action should you take if oil pressure is between 40-60 psi?

A

Engine thrust should be reduced to below 60% N2.

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31
Q

Required N2 for a generator-assisted start?

A

Between 52% and 54%

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32
Q

Limitations on mixing brands of oil?

A

Brand of synthetic Type 2 engine oil may be mixed up to 2 quarts per 400 hours.

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33
Q

What do you do if the starter does not disengage by 45% N2?

A

Place the thrust levers to CUTOFF and remove all electrical power.

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34
Q

During engine start when can you move the start select switch to off?

A

Once the engine has reached 53%-54% N2.

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35
Q

False/Hot start pilot actions:

A
  1. Thrust lever……… CUTOFF
  2. Ignition…………….. OFF
  3. Motor engine 15 seconds and press PUSH TO DISENGAGE button.
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36
Q

According to the TURNAROUND checklist, the EFC is……

A

….Required to by selected OFF then ON prior to start.

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37
Q

Engine fire indications include:

A

The fire bell sounding, illumination of the white bell cancel button, and illumination of the red ENG FIRE PUSH switch.

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38
Q

What could it possibly mean if the FIRE DISCHARGE INDICATOR is broken or missing?

A

There may have been a thermal discharge of one or both fire bottles.

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39
Q

What does pressing the ENG FIRE PUSH switch actually do?

A

Trips the respective generator field, arms both fire bottles to be discharged to the respective engine, and closes the fuel and hydraulic shutoff valves.

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40
Q

What do the Fire Detect positions on the Master Test rotary switch test?

A

The control box, fire bottle discharge assemblies, and the integrity of the fire detection loop.

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41
Q

What bus powers the fire extinguishers?

A

The emergency bus.

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42
Q

What does the Standby bus power?

A
  • STBY ATT IND
  • STBY ALT VIB
  • COPLT (STBY INST) LT
  • L ITT
  • ENG EFC START
  • COMM 1
  • RTU 1
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43
Q

What annunciator will illuminate if there is a wing anti-ice system bleed-air rupture in the cabin or a bleed-air leak in the aft fuselage?

A

BL AIR DCT FAIL

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44
Q

Can you take off with engine anti-ice on?

A

Yes IF the EFC is on!

45
Q

What is the source of pressurization?

A

Engine bleed air for pressurization and air condition is cooled by the air cycle machine (ACM)

46
Q

What inflates the cabin entry door seal?

A

15 psi regulated bleed air

47
Q

What heats the wing leading edges?

A

Bleed air

48
Q

If you lose electrical power, what anti ice systems will be operational?

A

The engine anti ice system will still be operational because the valves fail in the open position. However, wing anti ice will not be operational as those valves fail in the closed position.

49
Q

If you have a H-stab deice failure what is the landing limitation?

A

The landing flap setting must be 10 degrees

50
Q

Why do you need to reduce N1 below 90% prior to turning wing anti-ice on?

A

Air is used as a buffer in the burner can to isolate the fire from the metal. Wing anti ice uses a lot of bleed air and can temporarily reduce the amount of air used for that buffer causing damage to the burner can.

51
Q

When does the windshield heat need to be on?

A

Windshield heat must be on for all inflight operations

52
Q

What powers the horizontal stabilizer de- ice system?

A

It is electrically heated

53
Q

Can you turn the H stab de ice on while on the ground?

A

No, it is inhibited while on the ground

54
Q

When is the appropriate time to turn on the Pitot, Static, and AOA Heat?

A

Prior to takeoff for all flights

55
Q

What actuates the cockpit and cabin temp controls?

A

Pneumatic pressure

56
Q

When does Emergency pressurization automatically activate?

A

When the cabin pressure goes above 12,500’

57
Q

What will cause the AIR COND FAIL annunciator to illuminate?

A

Over-temp or over-pressure

58
Q

What controls the overhead eyeball outlets?

A

A low limit sensor and valve control the air temp and it is regulated to 41 degrees F

59
Q

When must the Refrigeration air conditioning be off?

A

Takeoff, landing, and above 18,000’

60
Q

What happens if you open the CABIN DUMP valve?

A

Result in a cabin altitude matching the aircraft altitude.

61
Q

Will pressurization controls still function normally with no electrical power?

A

Yes, they do not use electrical power.

62
Q

What does Emergency pressurization use?

A

Hot, unregulated bleed air

63
Q

You perform an ECS take off and then have to make an immediate return. What position must the ECS be in for landing?

A

You must also perform an ECS landing.

64
Q

When vacuum pressure is lost what do the outflow valves do?

A

They will fully close.

65
Q

Does bleed air still flow to the ACM if there is an electrical failure?

A

Yes.

66
Q

What does rotating the Manual Pressurization Control knob to DEC do?

A

It applies vacuum to open the outflow valves.

67
Q

Function of the altitude limit regulators?

A

They limit the cabin to 12,500’

68
Q

How do you check hydraulic fluid levels?

A

By a sight gage on the reservoir

69
Q

What will happen if one hydraulic pump fails?

A

The system continues to operate normally

70
Q

In a total electrical failure, will you still have power brakes?

A

Yes

71
Q

What does switching the guarded HYD PRESS REL switch to REL do?

A

Causes hydraulic pressure to drop to zero

72
Q

How do you know if there is a hydraulic filter bypass condition?

A

There is no cockpit indication of a hydraulic filter bypass

73
Q

Hydraulic system pressure?

A

Regulated to 1500psi by the hydraulic pumps

74
Q

What systems are actuated hydraulically?

A

Thrust reversers, flaps, speed brakes, power brakes, and landing gear

75
Q

What actuates the emergency brakes?

A

Nitrogen pressure

76
Q

What does the braking system revert to if electrical power is lost?

A

Power brakes with no antiskid

77
Q

What indicates that the main gear doors and not closed?

A

Three green lights and the red “in transit” light

78
Q

Special limitation on parking brake when engines are not running?

A

If the engines are not running you must set the brake using the pilot side brake pedals

79
Q

How does the guarded LAND SEL switch function?

A

When the switch is set to FLAPS 10 and the flaps are selected 20 with the landing gear not down and locked, the aural warning will sound and can not be canceled until the landing gear is down and locked.

80
Q

What does a “pitch trim” aural warning indicate?

A

A pitch trim runaway

81
Q

How do you activate the emergency pitch trim?

A

By selecting PITCH TRIM to EMER and using the PITCH TRIM switch on the center pedestal

82
Q

What controls the flaps?

A

They are electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated

83
Q

What happens when a flap asymmetry is detected?

A

The flaps cannot be moved and the FLAP ASYM annunciator illuminates

84
Q

What actuates the trim?

A

Pitch, roll, and yaw trim on the Beechjet are electrically actuated.

85
Q

What actuates the speed brakes?

A

Speed brakes are hydraulically actuated

86
Q

What happens to speed brakes when the flaps are selected past 10?

A

When flaps are set past 10 in flight the speed brakes automatically retract.

87
Q

What bus powers comm 1?

A

The standby bus

88
Q

What must you do operationally if you intend to capture the back course of a LOC?

A

For the FMS to understand you want it to capture the back course you must arm the APPR mode within 70 degrees of course centerline.

(90 degrees for normal LOC/ILS)

89
Q

What bus powers Nav 1 and the SDU?

A

The emergency bus

90
Q

Before descending below 200’ above the terrain the autopilot must…..

A

Be disengaged

91
Q

What must you test on the EGPWS?

A

The AFM requires that the P/TEST switch be pressed to test if the GPWS INOP, WSHR INOP, or TERR INOP annunciators are illuminated.

92
Q

When do you need to test the trim system?

A

Prior to flight

93
Q

What are all the way to disengage the autopilot?

A

Trim hat, either disengage button, go-around button, autopilot engage lever, or by selecting pitch trim to EMER

94
Q

What deploys passenger oxygen?

A

The SYS READY knob must be armed and then the PASS OXYGEN knob pulled

95
Q

What is the oxygen pressure gauge a reading of?

A

It is a direct reading of oxygen bottle pressure

96
Q

What holds the thrust reversers closed in an emergency?

A

Hydraulic pressure holds the reverser down after an emergency stow

97
Q

What normally actuates and holds the reversers down?

A

In a non emergency the reversers are stowed hydraulically and then held down by a mechanical over center mechanism

98
Q

How many landing lights may be inoperative for flight?

A

Only one.

99
Q

How many transfer pumps do you need for flight?

A

One or both transfer pumps can be MEL’d

100
Q

How many jet pumps and boost pumps must be operable for flight?

A

Both of each must be operable for all flights.

101
Q

Following an engine failure at V1 you…

A

Retract the flaps at 400’ AGL and V2+10 knots

102
Q

When flying an ILS, LOC, LOC B/C, LDA, SDF approach….

A

The nav source must be set to LOC (green needles) for navigation

103
Q

When will the FMS sequence to the missed approach?

A

When the go around button is pushed after the missed approach waypoint

104
Q

What different things limit take off weight?

A

Structural limits of the aircraft, ability of the aircraft to climb on one engine, brake energy, and take off field length

105
Q

What does the climb configuration in the second segment include?

A

One engine inoperative, takeoff rated thrust set, landing gear and landing lights retracted, and a speed of V2

106
Q

When is the only accurate time for checking engine oil?

A

10 to 30 minutes after shutdown

107
Q

Main landing gear tire pressure?

A

125 +/- 5 psi

108
Q

During pre flight inspection the engine fire extinguisher pressure gauges should read….

A

580-600 psig

109
Q

The brake system accumulator pressure gauge should read….

A

900+/- 50 psi with no hydraulic pressure

BE-400A Type Rating (3 decks)

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