1
Q

It occurs when there are few suppliers and any action taken by anyone of them will definitely affect the course of action of others.

A

Oligopoly

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2
Q

The amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital or the income produced by money which has been loaned.

A

Interest

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3
Q

It exists when a certain product is offered for sale by many vendors or suppliers and there is no restriction against other vendors from entirely the market.

A

Perfect competition

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4
Q

The process of determining the value of certain properties or equipment for certain reasons.

A

Valuation

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5
Q

Those funds that are required to make the enterprise or product a going concern.

A

Working capital

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6
Q

The length of time during which the property may be operated at a profit.

A

Economic life

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7
Q

Worth of the property shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.

A

Book value

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8
Q

Cost of things that are neither labor nor materials.

A

Expenses

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9
Q

The series of equal payments at equal intervals of time.

A

Annuity

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10
Q

An index of short term paying ability is called ___.

A

Acid-test ratio (quick ratio)

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11
Q

Used to produce consumer goods.

A

producer goods (also called capital goods)

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12
Q

It is a series of equal payments occurring at equal interval of time where the first payment is made several periods after the beginning of the payment.

A

Deferred annuity

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13
Q

The amount of a property in which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property when neither one is under the compulsion to buy or sell.

A

Fair value

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14
Q

A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning from the first period.

A

Annuity due

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15
Q

The intangible item of value from the exclusive right of the company to provide a specific product or service in a stated region of the country.

A

Franchise value

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16
Q

The length of time during which it is capable of performing the function for which it was designed and manufactured.

A

Physical life

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17
Q

Products that are directly used by people to satisfy their wants.

A

Consumer goods

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18
Q

A change in cost for a small change in volume of production.

A

Differential cost

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19
Q

An amount which has been spent and for some reasons cannot be recovered.

A

Sunk cost

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20
Q

The ratio between the average demand and the maximum amount demand.

A

Load factor

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21
Q

The decrease in the value of property due to the gradual extraction of its content.

A

Depletion

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22
Q

The sum of the first cost and the present and the worth of all cost of any property of replacement, operation and maintenance for long time or forever.

A

Capitalized Cost

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23
Q

The difference between the book value and the actual lower resale value ___.

A

Salvage Value

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24
Q

It occurs when a unique product or service is available only from a single supplier and entry of all other possible suppliers presented.

A

Monopoly

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25
Q

A place where buyer and seller come together.

A

Market

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26
Q

Ratio of annual net profit and the capital invested.

A

Rate of return

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27
Q

The price of which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a commodity.

A

Market value

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28
Q

The price of property when sold for a junk.

A

Scrap value

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29
Q

A market situation where any given product is supplied by a large number of sellers and there is no restriction on additional vendors entering the market.

A

Perfect competition

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30
Q

A market situation where a unique product or service is available from a single seller and that seller can prevent the entry of all others in the market.

A

Perfect monopoly

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31
Q

A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyers.

A

Monopoly

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32
Q

A market situation where there are so few sellers of a product or service that action by one will almost inevitably result in a similar action by the others.

A

Oligopoly

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33
Q

A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for when there are no goods substitute.

A

Monopsony

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34
Q

What is defined as any tangible economic product that contributes directly or indirectly to the satisfaction of human want?

A

Goods
Commodities

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35
Q

What is defined as any tangible economic activity that contributes directly or indirectly to the satisfaction of human want?

A

Services

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36
Q

It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want

A

Utility

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37
Q

It refers to the goods and services that are desired by human and will be acquired only after all the needs have been satisfied

A

Luxury

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38
Q

It refers to the need, want or desire for a product backed by the money to purchase it

A

Demand

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39
Q

It refers to the amount of a product made available for sale.

A

Supply

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40
Q

The present worth of cost associated with an asset for an infinite period of time

A

Capitalized cost

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41
Q

The addition cost of producing one more unit is

A

Marginal cost

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42
Q

Costs that can be reasonably measured and allocated to a specific output or work activity

A

Direct Cost

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43
Q

Costs that cannot be reasonably measured and allocated to a specific output or work activity

A

Overhead cost / Indirect cost

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44
Q

Cost that has occurred in the past and has no relevance to estimates of future costs and revenues related to an alternate course of action.

A

Sunk cost

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45
Q

An imaginary cost representing what will not be received if a particular strategy is rejected

A

Opportunity cost

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46
Q

What is the change in cost per unit variable change called
A. Variable cost
B. Incremental cost
C. Fixed cost
D. Supplemental cost

A

B. Incremental cost

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47
Q

Which one is a one-time expense?
A. Investment
B. Single cost
C. One-time cost
D. Operating cost

A

A. Investment

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48
Q

Annually recurring cost.
A. Investment
B. Operating cost
C. Contingency
D. Operating capital

A

B. Operating cost

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49
Q

Manager’s salary is an example of
A. Investment
B. Operating cost
C. Contingency
D. Operating capital

A

B. Operating cost

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50
Q

Land is an example of.
A. Investment
B. Single cost
C. One-time cost
D. Operating cost

A

A. Investment

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51
Q

In a rice and corn farm, costs of planting materials and fertilizers, and wages of farm laborers are examples of
A. Direct labor costs
B. Overhead expenses
C. Operation and maintenance costs
D. Sunk costs

A

C. Operation and maintenance costs

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52
Q

The cash component of investment.
A. Cash investment
B. Operating cost
C. Contingency
D. Operating capital

A

D. Operating capital

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53
Q

The equivalent value of a property at any given year.

A

Book value

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54
Q

What is market price deducted by tax?

A

Shadow price

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55
Q

What feasibility indicator is best for determining how fast the project recovers the investment?

A

Payback Period

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56
Q

What feasibility indicator is best for determining how much can you gain from a certain project?

A

Net Present Value

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57
Q

What feasibility indicator is normally compared to bank’s interest rate?

A

Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

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58
Q

What analysis is done to determine the degree of project feasibility at various scenarios?

A

Sensitivity Analysis

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59
Q

What analysis is done to determine the degree of project feasibility at
various scenarios?

A

Economic Analysis

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60
Q

What feasibility analysis uses market prices?

A

Financial analysis

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61
Q

The price at which there is no loss or gain

A

Breakeven price

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62
Q

It is defined as a financial security note issued by business or corporation and by the government as a means of borrowing long-term fund.

A

Bond

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63
Q

The value of the stock as stated on the stocks certificate

A

Face or Par value

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64
Q

A form of business firm which is owned and run by a group of individuals for their mutual benefit.
A. Cooperative
B. Corporation
C. Enterprise
D. Partnership

A

A. Cooperative

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65
Q

What is a stock of a product which is held by a trade body or government as a means of regulating the price of that product?

A

Buffer stock

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66
Q

The ability to meet debts as they become due is known as

A

Solvency

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67
Q

The ability to convert assets to cash quickly is known as

A

Liquidity

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68
Q

Sinong engr na by December 12, 2024?

A

Syempre ako!

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68
Q

The amount of company’s profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders

A

Dividend

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69
Q

It refers to the residual value of a company’s assets after all outside liabilities (shareholders excluded) have been allowed for

A

Equity

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70
Q

Cash money and credit necessary to establish and operate an enterprise are generally called.

A

Capital

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71
Q

Lands, buildings, plants and machineries are example of what type of asset?

A

Fixed asset

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72
Q

Which situation is better and attainable for a good economy?
A. High discount rate C. Fast discount rate
B. Low discount rate D. No discount rates

A

B. Low discount rate

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73
Q

The normal combined discount and inflation rate of the Philippines
A. 2-4% B. 5-7% C. 8-12% D. 16-20%

A

C. 8-12%

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74
Q

What is the effect of increasing inflation rate to discounted cash flow at project start?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Fluctuates
D. None of these

A

D. None of these

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75
Q

Which one is true when discount rate increases?
A. NPV increases C. Risk decreases
B. NPV decreases D. Capital reduces

A

B. NPV decreases

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76
Q

“When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output”. This statement is known as the

A

Law of diminishing return

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77
Q

“Under conditions of perfect competition, the price at which any given product will be supplied and purchased is the price that will result in the supply and the demand being equal.” This statement is known as the

A

Law of supply and demand

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78
Q

The average rate of price increase in the economy.

A

Inflation

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79
Q

The way of using resources in an efficient manner to satisfy needs or targets

A

Economics

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80
Q

The cash flow value for a certain year of project operation after considering inflation or money discounting

A. Discounted net savings
B. Discounted cash flow
C. Devaluated cash flow
D. Discounted difference between revenues and expenses
E. Discounted net benefits

A

B. Discounted cash flow

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81
Q

A series of expenses and credits that run over the lifetime of a project.

A

Cash flow

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82
Q

Revenue less cost for a year of project operation.

A

Net cash flow

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83
Q

The changes in the price of specific goods or services in a given economy over a period of time. A. Deflation
B. Price escalation
C. Changing prices
D. Inflation
E. Cost escalation

A

E. Cost escalation

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84
Q

Based on time value of money, your Php 1 million today will be __________ in terms of face value (the value you can read in the face of the
money) a year from now when deposited in the bank

A

Bigger

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85
Q

Inflation affects ____ aspects of economic life.
A. No
B. Several
C. Few
D. All
E. Certain

A

D. All

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86
Q

Only the principal money earns interest.
A. Research interest
B. Vested interest
C. Compound interest
D. Simple interest
E. Political interest

A

D. Simple interest

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87
Q

An investment analysis to compare two or more scenarios
A. Break-even analysis
B. Cost analysis
C. Price analysis
D. Engineering analysis
E. Economic analysis

A

E. Economic analysis

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88
Q

Based on time value of money, your Php 1 million today will be __________ in terms of purchasing power a year from now when kept in your
safe vault.

A

Smaller

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89
Q

Both the principal money and the interest earn interest.
Research interest
B. Political interest
C. Compound interest
D. Vested interest
E. Simple interest

A

C. Compound interest

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90
Q

Each successive units of one input are added to given quantities of other inputs, a point is eventually reached where the addition to product per additional unit of input will decline

A

Law of Diminishing Return

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91
Q

It is defined as the ratio of the total product to the quantity of input used in producing that amount of product.

A

Average Product (AP)

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92
Q

It is defined as the addition to the product resulting from the addition of one unit of the input

A

Marginal product (MP)

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93
Q

If MP>AP, AP is

A

increasing

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94
Q

AP is decreasing when MP is (greater/less) than AP

A

less

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95
Q

When MP=AP, AP is

A

maximum

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96
Q

What are the 3 regions in production?

A

Stage 1: Increasing return
Stage 2: Diminishing
Stage 3: Negative

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97
Q

It is the best estimate of an asset’s net market value at the end of its useful life.

A

Depreciation

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98
Q

It is the distribution of the cost of certain types of property, usually intangible, over a prescribed period of time that are usually made in equal installments.

A

Amortization

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99
Q

It is the period on time over which depreciation deductions are used to offset taxable income in determining income taxes.

A

Tax Life

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100
Q

It is the period of time an asset is kept in productive use in a trade or business.

A

Useful Life

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101
Q

Total revenues from sale of goods plus income from dividends, interest, rent, royalties, and gains on the exchange of capital assets.

A

Grass Revenues

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102
Q

All costs incurred while transacting business, except capital expenditures, tend to be proportional to the extent of business activity and include interest paid for the use of borrowed capital

A

Operating Expenses

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103
Q

Tax costs to an organization that depend on profits remaining after expenses are paid or accounted for.

A

Income Taxes

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104
Q

Type of tax assessed as a function of the value of real estate, business, and personal property. They are independent of the income or profit of an individual or a business.

A

Property taxes

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105
Q

Type of tax assessed on the basis of purchases of goods and/or services, and are independent of gross income or profits.

A

Sales tax

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106
Q

Type of tax assessed as a function of the sale of certain goods or services often considered non-necessities, also independent of the income or profit of an individual or a business.

A

Excise tax

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107
Q

Dollars received equal dollars paid

A

Balance of payment

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108
Q

Export equal imports

A

Balance of trade

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109
Q

the unit price of a traded good at a country’s border. For exports, the FOB price, for imports, the CIF price.

A

Border price

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110
Q

The landed cost of an import on the dock or other entry point in the receiving country. Includes cost of international freight and insurance and often includes cost of unloading onto the dock.

A

CIF (cost, insurance, and freight)

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111
Q

An establishment in which the employer by agreement hires only union members in good standing.

A

Closed shop

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112
Q

The special ability of a resources to provide/produce one product or service relatively more cheaply than the other products or services.

A

Comparative advantage

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113
Q

An increase in the production of one makes a reduction in the other, given a particular level of resources.

A

Competitive enterprise

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114
Q

When a transfer of resources to one product and an increase in its production accompanied by increase in the production of the other.

A

Complementary enterprise

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115
Q

The ability of an individual firm or nation to meet its debt service obligations. For a firm, a judgment about this is often formed on the basis of one or another financial ratio.

A

Creditworthiness

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116
Q

When peso becomes cheaper compared to foreign currency.

A

Devaluation

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117
Q

the interest that a commercial bank pays when it borrows from a central bank, using government paper or bond as security.

A

Discount rate

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118
Q

Income distributed to shareholders of an enterprise.

A

Dividend

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119
Q

Refers to the value added by local or domestic activities to components imported from abroad.

A

Domestic value added

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120
Q

It withdraws product from an origin with the provision for reproduction of the resource that is removed (e.g. timber from the forest)

A

Extractive industry

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121
Q

In farm investment analysis, a projection of the inflow and outflow of a farm to estimate the incremental net benefit over the life of a project.

A

Farm budget

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122
Q

Concerned with the farmer as a member of society, deals with the farms as a group and determines the principles governing not only the farm business but also the general welfare on a national and international level.

A

Farm Economics/Agricultural Economics

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123
Q

Boundary of a farm

A

Farm gate

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124
Q

Price a farmer receives for his product or pays for inputs at the boundary of the farm – that is, the price without any transport to a market or other marketing service; most commonly applied to outputs

A

Farm gate price

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125
Q

in credit transactions, a period during which a borrower need not repay principal and, sometimes, interest.

A

Grace period

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126
Q

Technique of buying and selling that minimizes risk due to price fluctuation.

A

Hedging

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127
Q

an output of a project that replaces goods or services that would have been imported without the project.

A

Import substitute

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128
Q

the percentage change in purchases that occurs with a given percentage change in income.

A

Income elasticity of demand

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129
Q

A time period so long that all factors of production can be varied; i.e., there are no fixed costs anymore, all variable costs.

A

Long run

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130
Q

additional cost that a producer incurs in making one additional unit of output.

A

Marginal cost

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131
Q

refers to the grade of land whose productive capacity is only enough to recover its cost of production

A

Marginal land

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132
Q

refers to the grade of land whose productive capacity is only enough to recover its cost of production

A

marginal product

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133
Q

price is determined by adding some fixed percentage to the unit cost; most commonly found in the retail trades

A

mark-up pricing

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134
Q

an establishment in which eligibility for employment and retention on the payroll are not determined by membership or non-membership in a labor union.

A

open shop

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135
Q

the location where the first sale transaction takes place for a product.

A

point of first sale

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136
Q

elasticity formula

A

E = △Q/△P

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137
Q

A time period where one or more of the factors of production are fixed.

A

short run

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138
Q

if production of one can be increased without increasing or decreasing production of the other.

A

supplementary enterprise

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139
Q

having enough money to pay debts as they fall due.

A

solvency

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140
Q

the amount of economic value generated by the activity carried on within each production unit in the economy.

A

value added

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141
Q
  1. A uniform payment series is one that consists of equal payments.
    a. starting now up to year n
    b. starting one year from now up to year n
    c. starting one year from now increasing by a uniform amount up to years n
    d. none of the above
A

b. starting one year from now up to year n

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142
Q
  1. The group of costs associated with initiation of an activity and which occurs only once for any given activity is
    a. fixed cost
    b. life-cycle cost
    c. first cost
    d. non-recurring cost
A

c. first cost

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143
Q
  1. Among the following, that which can be classified as variable cost is
    a. cost of purchasing machines
    b. cost of materials
    c. cost of making preliminary design of product or structure
    d. depreciation cost
A

b. cost of materials

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144
Q

anything of value possessed by an enterprise.

A

assets

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145
Q

This includes those properties that will not be converted into cash or converted into saleable form buildings land, machinery, equipment, furniture.

A

fixed assets

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146
Q

This includes cash, accounts receivable within a short time or at least within the present accounting period, raw materials good in the process of production and finished goods ready for sale.

A

current/liquid assets

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147
Q

Money paid for materials not yet delivered or services not yet rendered to the company. Examples insurance or rental until the term for which they were paid expires.

A

prepaid expenses

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148
Q

These have no physical substance. Examples: goodwill, copyrights, patents, franchises license and trademarks

A

intangible assets

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149
Q

Debts or claim of anymore other than the owners of the property upon the assets of the company.

A

liabilities

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150
Q

Those which are not due for payment until sometime in the future, usually after a period exceeding one year.

A

fixed liabilities

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151
Q

type of liability whose nature within a short time, usually a year.

A

current liabilities

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152
Q

This is income paid to the enterprise for goods not yet delivered or services not yet rendered to the payer.

A

prepaid income

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153
Q

the excess of assets over liabilities. It represents the investment of a person or several persons in the enterprise.

A

ownership or proprietorship

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154
Q

the excess of assets over liabilities. It represents the investment of a person or several persons in the enterprise.

A

individual or sole proprietorship

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155
Q

Ownership is in the capital account of two or more persons voluntarily associated as partners.

A

partnership

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156
Q

Ownership is in the shares of common and preferred stocks of investors. The business in organized as a chartered, legal entity separate from the owners.

A

cooperation

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157
Q

claims of anyone against the assets of the enterprise. It includes liabilities to creditors and the claims of the owners.

A

equities

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158
Q

financial summary showing the relationship among assets, liabilities and ownership in the enterprise as of a given date

A

balance sheet

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159
Q

a summary of the income and expenses of an individual or enterprise for a given period.

A

profit and loss statement

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160
Q

results from an excess of income over expenses

A

profit

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161
Q

indicated if the expenses exceed the income for the given period.

A

loss

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162
Q

the value of personal and professional services or of good sold in the operation of a business.

A

income

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163
Q

Results from the sale of products or form rendering service for which enterprise was established.

A

operating income

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164
Q

. This is due to sale of assets not needed in the primary operation or in rendering unusual service not included in the company’s basic services.

A

non operating income

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165
Q

cost of commodities and services needed in the operation of business to produce income.

A

expenses

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166
Q

Incurred in the pursuit of the primary operation of the business.

A

operating expenses

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167
Q

Incurred for an activity that is different from the basic operations of the business.

A

non-operating expenses

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168
Q

The extent to which a firm can meet its short-term obligations.

A

current ratio

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169
Q

The total margin available to cover operating expenses and yield a profit

A

gross profit margin

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170
Q

After-tax profits per peso for sales.

A

net profit margin

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171
Q

Earnings available to the owners of common stock.

A

Earnings per share (EPS)

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172
Q

the worth that a person attaches to an object or service. It is the measure of utility and is expressed as the price that must be paid to obtain a particular item.

A

value designates

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173
Q

Products and services that directly satisfy human wants. Examples: hamburger consultation with a doctor, hair cut. TV set.

A

Consumer goods

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174
Q

indirectly satisfy human wants because they are used in the production or construction process to produce other goods and services.

A

producer or capital goods

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175
Q

repetitive and occur when an organization produces similar goods or services on a continuing basis.

A

recurring cost

176
Q

Not repetitive even thought the total expenditure may be cumulative over a relatively short period of time.

A

non-recurring cost

177
Q

sum of direct labor and direct materials cost in a manufacturing operation.

A

prime cost

178
Q

includes those non-recurring costs of shutting down the operation and the retirement and disposal of assets at the end of the life cycle. Example: cost associated with cleaning up a site where a chemical plant had been located

A

disposal cost

179
Q

refers to the funds required for current assets (i.e. other than fixed assets such as equipment facilities, etc.) that are needed for the start and subsequent support of operation activities.

A

working capital

180
Q

owned by individuals who have invested their money or property in a business project in the hope of receiving a profit.

A

equity capital

181
Q

wealth in the form of money or property that is capable of being used to produce more wealth.

A

capital

182
Q

the difference between total cash receipts (inflows) and total cash disbursements (outflows) expenditures for a given period of time.

A

cash flow

183
Q

used to visualize a cash flow individual cash flows are presented as vertical arrows along a horizontal time scale.

A

cash flow diagram

184
Q

interest is compounded at the end of each finite length period, such as a month or a year.

A

discrete compounding

185
Q

different sums of money at different times can be equal in economic value.

A

economic equivalence

186
Q
  • A bond’s current yield also known as _____. It is earned each year as a percentage of the bond’s purchase price.
A

coupon rate

187
Q

represents a share of ownership in a company.

A

stock

188
Q

assumes that cash flows occur at discrete intervals but that compounding is continuous throughout the interval.

A

continuous compounding

189
Q

also known as net present value (NPV)

A

present worth

190
Q

also known as investor’s method, discounted cash flow method, and profitability index.

A

internal rate of return (IRR)

191
Q

also known as savings-investment ratio (SIR)

A

benefit/cost ratio

192
Q

also called the simple payout period

mainly indicates a project’s liquidity rather than its profitability.

It has been used as a measure of a project’s risk, since liquidity deals with how fast an investment can be recovered.

A

payback period

193
Q

a measure of the effectiveness of an investment of capital. It is an indicator of financial efficiency.

A

rate of return (ROR)

194
Q
  1. What is defines as the analysis and evaluation of the monetary consequences by using the theories and
    principles of economics to engineering applications, designs and projects?
    A. Economic Analysis
    B. Engineering cost analysis
    C. Engineering economy
    D. Design cost analysis
A

A. Economic Analysis

195
Q
  1. What is considered as the standard unit which forms the basis of a country’s domestic money supply?
    A. Monetary unit
    B. Currency
    C. Foreign exchange
    D. Cash or check
A

C. Foreign exchange

196
Q
  1. What is defined as any tangible economic product that contributes directly or indirectly to the satisfaction
    of human want?
    A. Services
    B. Goods
    C. Commodities
    D. Goods or commodities
A

/ D. Goods or commodities

197
Q
  1. What is defined as any tangible economic activity that contributes directly or indirectly to the satisfaction
    of human want?
    A. Services
    B. Goods
    C. Commodities
    D. Goods or commodities
A

/ A. Services

198
Q
  1. What are the two classifications of goods and services?
    A. Local and imported
    B. Raw and finished
    C. Consumer and producer
    D. Ready-made and made-to-order
A

C. Consumer and producer

199
Q
  1. What refers to the goods and services that are required to support human life, needs and activities?
    A. Producer products
    B. Consumer products
    C. Luxury
    D. Necessity
A

/ D. Necessity

200
Q
  1. What refers to the goods and services that are desired by human and will be acquired only after all the needs
    have been satisfied?
    A. Producer products
    B. Consumer products
    C. Luxury
    D. Necessity
A

D. Necessity

201
Q
  1. What refers to the exchange mechanism that brings together the sellers and the buyers of a product, factor
    of production or financial security?
    A. Mall
    B. Market
    C. Store
    D. Office
A

/ B. Market

202
Q
  1. What is considered as the basic consuming or demanding unit of a commodity?
    A. Seller
    B. Manufacturer
    C. Producer
    D. Buyer or consumer
A

D. Buyer or consumer

203
Q
  1. What is defined as an entity which makes product, good or services available to buyer or consumer in
    exchange of monetary consideration?
    A. Seller
    B. Manufacturer
    C. Producer
    D. Buyer or consumer
A

Producer

204
Q
  1. What is a market situation whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there is no goods substitute?
    A. Monopsony
    B. Monopoly
    C. Oligopoly
    D. Oligopsony
A

/ A. Monopsony

205
Q
  1. What market situation exists where there are few sellers and few buyers?
    A. Oligopoly
    B. Oligopsony
    C. Bilateral oligopoly
    D. Bilateral Oligopsony
A

C. Bilateral oligopoly

206
Q
  1. What market situation exists where there is only one buyer and only one seller?
    A. Monopsony
    B. Monopoly
    C. Bilateral monopsony
    D. Bilateral monopoly
A

D. Bilateral monopoly

207
Q
  1. What is the market situation exist when there are many buyers and many sellers?
    A. Perfect competition
    B. Oligopoly
    C. Oligopsony
    D. Monopoly
A

A. Perfect competition

208
Q
  1. If there is only one seller and many buyers, the market situation is ________ .
    A. Duopsony
    B. Oligopoly
    C. Oligopsony
    D. Monopoly
A

D. Monopoly

209
Q
  1. If there are many sellers and few buyers, the market situation is ________. .
    A. Duopsony
    B. Oligopoly
    C. Oligopsony
    D. Monopoly
A

C. Oligopsony

210
Q
  1. Oligopoly exists when there is/are:
    A. Few sellers and few buyers
    B. Few sellers and many buyers
    C. Many sellers and few buyers
    D. One seller and few buyers
A

B. Few sellers and many buyers

211
Q
  1. Duopsony is a market situation where there is/are:
    A. Few sellers and few buyers
    B. Few sellers and many buyers
    C. Many sellers and few buyers
    D. One seller and few buyers
A

C. Many sellers and few buyers

212
Q
  1. Duopoly is a market situation where there is/are:
    A. Few sellers and few buyers
    B. Few sellers and many buyers
    C. Many sellers and few buyers
    D. One seller and few buyers
A

B. Few sellers and many buyers

213
Q
  1. What is another term for “perfect competition”?
    A. Atomistic competition
    B. No-limit competition
    C. Free-for-all competition
    D. Heterogeneous market
A

A. Atomistic competition

213
Q
  1. What refers to the market situation in which any given product is supplied by a very large number of vendors
    and there is no restriction against additional vendors from entering the market?
    A. Perfect competition
    B. Oligopoly
    C. Oligopsony
    D. Monopoly
A

A. Perfect competition

214
Q
  1. What is the opposite of perfect competition?
    A. Monopsony
    B. Oligopoly
    C. Oligopsony
    D. Monopoly
A

D. Monopoly

214
Q
  1. Aside from many sellers and many buyers, which one is a characteristic of perfect competition?
    A. Homogeneous product
    B. Free market entry and exit
    C. Perfect information and absence of all economic friction
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

215
Q
  1. Perfect monopoly exists only if:
    A. the single vendor can prevent the entry of all other vendors in the market
    B. the single vendor gets the absolute franchise of the product
    C. the single vendor is the only one who has the permit to sell
    D. the single vendor is the only one who has the knowledge of the product
A

A. the single vendor can prevent the entry of all other vendors in the market

216
Q

“When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output”. This statement is known as the:
A. Law of diminishing return
B. Law of supply
C. Law of demand
D. Law of supply and demand

A

A. Law of diminishing return

216
Q
  1. A ______ is a market situation where economies of scale are so significant that cost are only minimized when the entire output of an industry is supplied by a single producer so that the supply costs are lower
    under monopoly that under perfect competition.
    A. Perfect monopoly
    B. Bilateral monopoly
    C. Natural monopoly
    D. Ordinary monopoly
A

C. Natural monopoly

217
Q
  1. What refers to the need, want or desire for a product backed by the money to purchase it?
    A. Supply
    B. Demand
    C. Product
    D. Good
A

B. Demand

218
Q
  1. What refers to the amount of a product made available for sale?
    A. Supply
    B. Demand
    C. Product
    D. Good
A

A. Supply

219
Q

“Under conditions of perfect competition, the price at which any given product will be supplied and purchased is the price that will result in the supply and the demand being equal.” This statement is known as the:
A. Law of diminishing return
B. Law of supply
C. Law of demand
D. Law of supply and demand

A

D. Law of supply and demand

220
Q
  1. What do you call any particular raw material or primary product such as cloth, wool, flour, coffee, etc.?
    A. Utility
    B. Necessity
    C. Commodity
    D. Stock
A

C. Commodity

221
Q
  1. What is defined as the interest on a load or principal that is based only on the original amount of the loan or principal?
    A. Effective rate of interest
    B. Nominal rate of interest
    C. Compound interest
    D. Simple interest
A

D. Simple interest

222
Q
  1. Under ordinary simple interest, how many days in one year?
    A. 300
    B. 360
    C. 365
    D. 366
A

B. 360

223
Q
  1. One banker’s year is equivalent to ______ days.
    A. 300
    B. 360
    C. 365
    D. 366
A

B. 360

224
Q
  1. What refers to the cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an event, based on the earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will earn?
    A. Present worth factor
    B. Interest rate
    C. Time value of money
    D. Yield
A

C. Time value of money

225
Q
  1. The difference between the present and future worth of money at some time in the future is called ____.
    A. Discount
    B. Deduction
    C. Inflation
    D. Depletion
A

A. Discount

226
Q
  1. What refers to the present worth of the probable future net earnings?
    A. Total fair value
    B. Total market value
    C. Going concern value
    D. Earning value
A

D. Earning value

227
Q
  1. What refers to the amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital?
    A. Interest
    B. Rate of interest
    C. Simple interest
    D. Principal
A

A. Interest

228
Q
  1. What refers to the ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of time and usually expressed as a percentage of the principal?
    A. Return of investment
    B. Interest rate
    C. Yield
    D. Rate of return
A

B. Interest rate

229
Q
  1. What is defined as the investment of loan or principal which is based not only on the original amount of the loan or principal but the amount of loaned or principal plus the previous accumulated interest?
    A. Effective rate of interest
    B. Nominal rate of interest
    C. Compound interest
    D. Simple interest
A

C. Compound interest

230
Q
  1. What refers to the cost of borrowing money or the amount earned by a unit principal per unit time?
    A. Yield rate
    B. Rate of return
    C. Rate of interest
    D. Economic return
A

C. Rate of interest

231
Q
  1. A uniform series of payment occurring at equal interval of time is called ______.
    A. Annuity
    B. Amortization
    C. Depreciation
    D. Bond
A

A. Annuity

232
Q
  1. What is the term for an annuity with a fixed time span?
    A. Ordinary annuity
    B. Perpetuity
    C. Annuity certain
    D. Annuity due
A

C. Annuity certain

233
Q
  1. What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each period starting from the first period?
    A. Ordinary annuity
    B. Perpetuity
    C. Annuity due
    D. Deferred annuity
A

A. Ordinary annuity

234
Q
  1. What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the beginning of the each period starting from the first period?
    A. Ordinary annuity
    B. Perpetuity
    C. Annuity due
    D. Deferred annuity
A

C. Annuity due

235
Q
  1. What is the type of annuity that does not have a fixed time span but continues indefinitely or forever?
    A. Ordinary annuity
    B. Perpetuity
    C. Annuity due
    D. Deferred annuity
A

B. Perpetuity

236
Q
  1. What is the type of annuity where the first payment does not begin until some later date in the cash flow?
    A. Ordinary annuity
    B. Perpetuity
    C. Annuity due
    D. Deferred annuity
A

D. Deferred annuity

237
Q
  1. Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity?
    A. The amounts of all payments are equal.
    B. The payments are made at equal interval of time.
    C. The first payment is made at the beginning of the first period.
    D. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity
A

C. The first payment is made at the beginning of the first period.

238
Q
  1. What is defined as a financial security note issued by business or corporation and by the government as a means of borrowing long-term fund?
    A. T-bills
    B. Securities
    C. Bond
    D. Bank notes
A

C. Bond

239
Q
  1. What refers to the present worth of all the amount the bondholder will receive through his possession of the bond?
    A. Par value of bond
    B. Face value of bond
    C. Redeemed value of bond
    D. Value of bond
A

D. Value of bond

240
Q
  1. What is defined as the certificate of indebtedness of corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a corporation?
    A. Bond
    B. T-bills
    C. Stock
    D. Promissory note
A

A.Bond

241
Q
  1. What refers to a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security?
    A. Bond
    B. Bank note
    C. Coupon
    D. Check
A

C. Coupon

242
Q
  1. What type of bond is issued jointly by two or more corporations?
    A. Mortgage bond
    B. Joint bond
    C. Tie-up bond
    D. Trust bond
A

B. Joint bond

243
Q
  1. What type of bond whose guaranty is in lien on railroad equipment, such as freight and passenger cars, locomotives, etc.?
    A. Railroad bond
    B. Equipment obligation bond
    C. Equipment bond
    D. Equipment trust bond
A

B. Equipment obligation bond

244
Q
  1. A type of bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest due and the date when such interest is to be paid is called ______.
    A. Registered bond
    B. Coupon bond
    C. Mortgage bond
    D. Collateral trust bond
A

B. Coupon bond

245
Q
  1. What bond whose security is a mortgage on certain specified assets of the corporation?
    A. Registered bond
    B. Collateral trust bond
    C. Mortgage bond
    D. Debenture bond
A

C. Mortgage bond

245
Q
  1. A bond without any security behind them except a promise to pay by the issuing corporation is called,
    A. Joint bond
    B. Debenture bond
    C. Trust bond
    D. Common bond
A

B. Debenture bond

245
Q
  1. A type of bond where the corporation pledges securities which it owns such as the stock or bonds of one of its subsidiaries.
    A. Mortgage bond
    B. Joint bond
    C. Security bond
    D. Collateral trust bond
A

D. Collateral trust bond

246
Q
  1. What type of bond where the corporation’s owner name are recorded and the interest is paid periodically to the owners with their asking for it?
    A. Preferred bond
    B. Registered bond
    C. Incorporators bond
    D. Callable bond
A

B. Registered bond

247
Q
  1. What type of bond which can be redeemed before maturity date?
    A. Preferred bond
    B. Registered bond
    C. Incorporators bond
    D. Callable bond
A

D. Callable bond

248
Q
  1. What is the feature of some bonds whereby the issuer can redeem it before it matures?
    A. Return clause
    B. Callability
    C. Recall clause
    D. Call class
A

B. Callability

249
Q
  1. The price at which the callable bond will be redeemed from the bondholder is called ______.
    A. Par value
    B. Call value
    C. Face value
    D. Redemption value
A

B. Call value

250
Q
  1. What is defined as the reduction or fall of the value of an asset due to constant use and passage of time?
    A. Depletion
    B. Inflation
    C. Depreciation
    D. Deflation
A

C. Depreciation

251
Q
  1. In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that the loss in value is directly proportional to the age of the equipment or asset?
    A. Straight line method
    B. Sinking fund method
    C. Sum-of-year digit method
    D. Declining balance method
A

A. Straight line method

252
Q
  1. In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that a sinking fund is established in which
    funds will accumulate for replacement purposes?
    A. Straight line method
    B. Sinking fund method
    C. Sum-of-year digit method
    D. Declining balance method
A

B. Sinking fund method

253
Q
  1. In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that the annual cost of depreciation is a fixed percentage of the book value at the beginning of the year?
    A. Straight line method
    B. Sinking fund method
    C. Sum-of-year digit method
    D. Declining balance method
A

D. Declining balance method

254
Q
  1. In SYD method of computing depreciation, which of the following is the formula in finding the sum of years’ digits?
    A. n(n-1)
    B. [n(n+2)]/2
    C. [n(n-1)]/2
    D. [n(n+1)]/2
A

D. [n(n+1)]/2

255
Q
  1. The declining balance method is also known as ______.
    A. Double percentage method
    B. Constant percentage method
    C. Modified sinking fund method
    D. Modified SYD method
A

B. Constant percentage method

256
Q
  1. What type of depreciation is due to the reduction in the demand for the function that the equipment or asset was designed to render?
    A. Functional depreciation
    B. Design depreciation
    C. Physical depreciation
    D. Demand depreciation
A

A. Functional depreciation

257
Q
  1. What type of depreciation is due to the reduction of the physical ability of an equipment or asset to produce
    results?
    A. Functional depreciation
    B. Design depreciation
    C. Physical depreciation
    D. Demand depreciation
A

C. Physical depreciation

258
Q
  1. The functional depreciation is sometimes called ______.
    A. Demand depreciation
    B. Adolescence
    C. Life depreciation
    D. Failure depreciation
A

B. Adolescence

259
Q
  1. What is defined as the reduction of the value of certain natural resources such as mines, oil, timber, quarries, etc. due to the gradual extraction of its contents?
    A. Depletion
    B. Inflation
    C. Depreciation
    D. Deflation
A

A. Depletion

260
Q
  1. What are the common methods of computing depletion charge?
    A. Rational method and irrational method
    B. Conservative method and conventional method
    C. Unit method and percentage method
    D. Discrete method and depletion allowance method
A

C. Unit method and percentage method

261
Q
  1. Under the depletion allowance method in computing depreciation, the depletion charge is equal to either ______ whichever is smaller.
    A. Fixed percentage of gross income or the net taxable income
    B. Fixed percentage of gross income or 50% of the net taxable income
    C. 50% of the fixed percentage of gross income or 50% of the net taxable income
    D. 50% of the fixed percentage of gross income or the net taxable income
A

B. Fixed percentage of gross income or 50% of the net taxable income

262
Q
  1. The depletion allowance method of computing depletion is commonly known as ______.
    A. Unit method
    B. Percentage method
    C. Factor method
    D. Sinking fund method
A

B. Percentage method

263
Q
  1. What is another term for “unit method” for computing depletion?
    A. Initial cost method
    B. Percentage method
    C. Factor method
    D. Sinking fund method
A

C. Factor method

263
Q
  1. Using factor method, the depletion at any given year is equal to:
    A. Initial cost of property times number of unit sold during the year divided by the total units in property
    B. Initial cost of property divided by the number of units sold during the year
    C. Initial cost of property times number of units sold during the year
    D. Initial cost of property divided by the total units in property
A

A. Initial cost of property times number of unit sold during the year divided by the total units in property

264
Q
  1. What do you call the after-tax present worth of all depreciation effects over the depreciation period of the asset?
    A. Asset recovery
    B. Depreciation recovery
    C. Period recovery
    D. After-tax recovery
A

B. Depreciation recovery

265
Q
  1. A mathematical expression also known as the present value of annuity of one is called ______.
    A. Load factor
    B. Demand factor
    C. Sinking fund factor
    D. Present worth factor
A

D. Present worth factor

266
Q
  1. The amount of property in which a willing buyer to a willing seller for the property when neither one is under the compulsion to buy nor to sell is called ______.
    A. Fair value
    B. Market value
    C. Good will value
    D. Book value
A

B. Market value

266
Q
  1. Salvage value is sometimes known as ______.
    A. Scrap value
    B. Going value
    C. Junk value
    D. Second-hand value
A

D. Second-hand value

267
Q
  1. What refers to the value of an asset which a disinterested third party, different from the buyer and seller, will determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both parties?
    A. Book value
    B. Market value
    C. Fair value
    D. Franchise value
A

C. Fair value

268
Q
  1. What refers to the value of an intangible item which arises from the exclusive right of a company to provide
    a specified product and service in a certain region of the country?
    A. Company value
    B. Going value
    C. Goodwill value
    D. Franchise value
A

D. Franchise value

269
Q
  1. The first cost to be incurred if the piece of equipment now in place had been bought for a second hand
    dealer or some other business is called ______.
    A. Material cost
    B. Fixed cost
    C. First cost
    D. In-place value
A
270
Q
  1. In computing depreciation of an equipment, which of the following represents the first cost?
    A. The original purchase price and freight charges
    B. Installation expenses
    C. Initial taxes and permit fees
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

271
Q
  1. The process of determining the value or worth of a physical property for specific reason is called ______.
    A. Investment
    B. Valuation
    C. Economy
    D. Depletion
A

B. Valuation

272
Q
  1. The unrecovered depreciation which results due to poor estimates as to the life of the equipment is called;
    A. Sunk cost
    B. Economic life
    C. In-place value
    D. Annuity
A

A. Sunk cost

273
Q
  1. What refers to the present worth of cost associated with an asset for an infinite period of time?
    A. Annual cost
    B. Increment cost
    C. Capitalized cost
    D. Operating cost
A

C. Capitalized cost

274
Q
  1. Capitalized cost of a project is also known as ______.
    A. Infinite cost
    B. Life cycle cost
    C. Life cost
    D. Project cost
A

B. Life cycle cost

275
Q
  1. What is normally used to compare alternatives that accomplish the same purpose but have unequal lives?
    A. Capitalized cost method
    B. Present worth method
    C. Annual cost method
    D. MARR
A

C. Annual cost method

276
Q
  1. What method is often used in municipal project evaluations where benefits and costs accrue to different segments of the community?
    A. Annual cost method
    B. Benefit-cost ratio
    C. Rate of return method
    D. EUAC
A

B. Benefit-cost ratio

277
Q
  1. What refers to an imaginary cost representing what will not be received if a particular strategy is rejected?
    A. Opportunity cost
    B. Ghost cost
    C. Horizon cost
    D. Null cost
A

A. Opportunity cost

278
Q
  1. What is the main reason why the sinking fund method of computing depreciation is seldom used in the
    industry?
    A. Unstable economy
    B. Rate of interest cannot be exactly determined
    C. The initial deprecation is high
    D. The initial depreciation is low
A

D. The initial depreciation is low

279
Q
  1. What is the factor name of the formula (1+i)-n?
    A. Uniform gradient future worth
    B. Capital recovery
    C. Single payment present worth
    D. Single payment compound amount
A

C. Single payment present worth

280
Q
  1. What is the factor name of the formula [i(1+i)n]/[((1+i)n)-1]?
    A. Uniform series sinking fund
    B. Capital recovery
    C. Single payment present worth
    D. Uniform gradient future worth
A

B. Capital recovery

281
Q
  1. A form of business organization in which a person conducts his business alone and entirely for his own profit, being solely responsible for all its activities and liabilities.
    A. Sole proprietorship
    B. Entrepreneurship
    C. Partnership
    D. Corporation
A

A. Sole proprietorship

282
Q
  1. Is an artificial being created by operation of law, having the right of succession and the process, attributes and properties expressly authorized by the law or incident to its existence.
    A. Corporation
    B. Property
    C. Partnership
    D. Organization
A

A. Corporation

283
Q
  1. What is the simplest form of business organization?
    A. Sole proprietorship
    B. Partnership
    C. Enterprise
    D. Corporation
A

A. Sole proprietorship

284
Q
  1. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?
    A. Sole proprietorship
    B. Partnership
    C. Corporation
    D. Enterprise
A

C. Corporation

284
Q
  1. In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,
    A. The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership
    B. The partnership assets (excluding the partners personal assets) only will be used to pay the liabilities
    C. The partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership
    D. The partners nay sell stock to generate additional capital
A

B. The partnership assets (excluding the partners personal assets) only will be used to pay the liabilities

285
Q
  1. Which is true about partnership?
    A. It has a perpetual life.
    B. It will be dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be connected with the partnership.
    C. It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another.
    D. Its capitalization must be equal for each partner.
A

C. It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another.

286
Q
  1. Which is true about corporation?
    A. It is worse type of business organization.
    B. The minimum number of incorporators to start a corporation is three.
    C. Its life is dependent on the lives of the incorporators.
    D. The stock holders of the corporation are only liable to the extent of their investments.
A

D. The stock holders of the corporation are only liable to the extent of their investments.

287
Q
  1. Aggregation of individuals formed for the purpose of conducting a business and recognized by law as a fictitious person is called ______.
    A. Partnership
    B. Investors
    C. Corporation
    D. Stockholders
A

C. Corporation

288
Q
  1. An association of two or more persons for the purpose of engaging into a business for profit is called;
    A. Entrepreneurship
    B. Partnership
    C. Proprietorship
    D. Corporation
A

B. Partnership

288
Q
  1. What represents the ownership of stockholders who have a residual claim on the assets of the corporation
    after all other claims have been settled?
    A. Authorized capital stock
    B. Preferred stock
    C. Incorporator stock
    D. Common stock
A

D. Common stock

289
Q
  1. What stock represents ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock?
    A. Authorized stock
    B. Preferred stock
    C. Incorporator’s stock
    D. Presidential stock
A

B. Preferred stock

290
Q
  1. The amount of company’s profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders is called ______.
    A. Dividend
    B. Return
    C. Share of stock
    D. Equity
A

A. Dividend

291
Q
  1. What refers to the residual value of a company’s assets after all outside liabilities (shareholders excluded) have been allowed for?
    A. Dividend
    B. Equity
    C. Return
    D. Par value
A

B. Equity

292
Q
  1. What refers to the claim of anyone to ownership?
    A. Proprietorship
    B. Assets
    C. Equity
    D. Liability
A

C. Equity

293
Q
  1. Cash money and credit necessary to establish and operate an enterprise are generally called ______.
    A. Capital
    B. Funds
    C. Assets
    D. Liabilities
A

A. Capital

294
Q
  1. What represents the share of participation in business organizations?
    A. Franchise
    B. Partnership
    C. Stock
    D. Corporation
A

C. Stock

295
Q
  1. The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of obligations to financial contributors and claims of others based on profit is known as ______.
    A. Yield
    B. Economic return
    C. Earning value
    D. Gain
A

B. Economic return

296
Q
  1. ______ is the element of value which a business has earned through the favorable consideration and patronage of its costumers arising from its well known and well conducted policies and operations.
    A. Status company
    B. Big income
    C. Known owners
    D. Goodwill
A

D. Goodwill

297
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of intangible asset?
    A. Cash
    B. Investment in subsidiary companies
    C. Furniture
    D. Patents
A

D. Patents

298
Q
  1. Lands, buildings, plants and machineries are example of what type of asset?
    A. Current asset
    B. Trade investment asset
    C. Fixed asset
    D. Intangible asset
A

C. Fixed asset

299
Q
  1. What refers to the interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a project is zero of the interest earned by an investment?
    A. Economic return
    B. Yield
    C. Rate of return
    D. Return of investment
A

D. Return of investment

300
Q
  1. What is another term for “current assets”?
    A. Fixed assets
    B. Non-liquid assets
    C. Liquid assets
    D. Cash
A

C. Liquid assets

301
Q
  1. What is an accounting term that represents an inventory account adjustment?
    A. Cost of goods sold
    B. Cost accounting
    C. Standard cost
    D. Overhead cost
A

A. Cost of goods sold

302
Q
  1. What is the change in cost per unit variable change called?
    A. Variable cost
    B. Incremental cost
    C. Fixed cost
    D. Supplemental cost
A

B. Incremental cost

303
Q
  1. What is used to record historical financial transactions?
    A. Bookkeeping system
    B. Ledger system
    C. Balance check
    D. General journal system
A

A. Bookkeeping system

304
Q
  1. What is a secondary book of accounts, the information of which is obtained from the journal is called?
    A. Balanced sheet
    B. Ledger
    C. Worksheet
    D. Trial balance
A

B. Ledger

305
Q
  1. The original record of a business transaction is recorded in this book.
    A. Work book
    B. Journal
    C. Ledger
    D. Account book
A

B. Journal

306
Q
  1. All the proceeds which are received by the business as a result of the sale of goods is called ______.
    A. Net income
    B. Gross income
    C. Net revenue
    D. Total sales
A

B. Gross income

307
Q
  1. All are classified under direct labor expenses EXCEPT one. Which one?
    A. Inspection cost
    B. Testing cost
    C. Assembly cost
    D. Supervision cost
A

D. Supervision cost

308
Q
  1. What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are collected?
    A. Current ratio
    B. Quick ratio
    C. Acid test ratio
    D. Receivable turnover
A

D. Receivable turnover

309
Q
  1. The ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales is called ______.
    A. Current ratio
    B. Inventory turnover
    C. Profit margin ratio
    D. Price-earnings ratio
A

C. Profit margin ratio

310
Q
  1. What do you call a one-time credit against taxes?
    A. Due credit
    B. Tax credit
    C. Credible credit
    D. Revenue credit
A

B. Tax credit

311
Q
  1. What is used when a quick estimate of the doubling time for the invested money is needed?
    A. Rule of 48
    B. Rule of 36
    C. Rule of 24
    D. Rule of 72
A

D. Rule of 72

312
Q
  1. What is the increase in the money value of a capital asset is called?
    A. Profit
    B. Capital gain
    C. Capital expenditure
    D. Capital stock
A

B. Capital gain

313
Q
  1. What is the reduction in the money value of capital asset is called?
    A. Capital expenditure
    B. Capital loss
    C. Loss
    D. Deficit
A

B. Capital loss

314
Q
  1. What refers to the negotiable claim issued by a bank in lien of a term deposit?
    A. Time deposit
    B. Bond
    C. Capital gain certificate
    D. Certificate of deposit
A

D. Certificate of deposit

315
Q
  1. What denotes in the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of the others? This term is usually applies to the floating exchange rate.
    A. Currency appreciation
    B. Currency depreciation
    C. Currency devaluation
    D. Currency float
A

B. Currency depreciation

316
Q
  1. The deliberate lowering of the price of a nation’s currency in terms of the accepted standard (Gold, American dollar or the British pound) is known as ______.
    A. Currency appreciation
    B. Currency depreciation
    C. Currency devaluation
    D. Currency float
A

C. Currency devaluation

317
Q
  1. What refers to the saving which takes place because goods are not available for consumption rather than consumer really want to save?
    A. Compulsory saving
    B. Consumer saving
    C. Forced saving
    D. All of the above
A

C. Forced saving

318
Q
  1. The flow back of profit plus depreciation form a given project is called ______.
    A. Capital recovery
    B. Cash flow
    C. Economic return
    D. Earning value
A

B. Cash flow

319
Q
  1. As applied to capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic changes to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or irregular prearranged programs is called ______.
    A. Annuity
    B. Amortization
    C. Capital recovery
    D. Annuity factor
A

B. Amortization

320
Q
  1. Capitalized cost of any structure or property is computed by which formula?
    A. First cost + interest of first cost
    B. Annual cost – interest of first cost
    C. First cost + cost of perpetual maintenance
    D. First cost + salvage value
A

C. First cost + cost of perpetual maintenance

321
Q
  1. The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a 1 year period is known as ______.
    A. Expected return
    B. Nominal interest
    C. Effective interest
    D. Economic return
A

C. Effective interest

322
Q
  1. Return on investment ratio is the ratio of the:
    A. Net income to owner’s equity
    B. Market price per share to earnings per share
    C. Cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory at hand
    D. Net credit sales to average net receivable
A

A. Net income to owner’s equity

323
Q
  1. Gross margin is the ratio of the gross profit to ______.
    A. Net sale
    B. Owner’s equity
    C. Inventory turnover
    D. Quick assets
A

A. Net sale

324
Q
  1. What is another term for “acid-test ratio”?
    A. Current ratio
    B. Quick ratio
    C. Profit margin ratio
    D. Price-earnings ratio
A

B. Quick ratio

325
Q
  1. What is a government bond which has an indefinite life rather than a specific maturity?
    A. Coupon
    B. T-bill
    C. Debenture
    D. Consol
A
326
Q
  1. A form of business firm which is owned and run by a group of individuals for their mutual benefit is called ______.
    A. Cooperative
    B. Corporation
    C. Enterprise
    D. Partnership
A

A. Cooperative

327
Q
  1. What is a stock of a product which is held by a trade body or government as a means of regulating the price of that product?
    A. Stock pile
    B. Hoard stock
    C. Buffer stock
    D. Withheld stock
A

C. Buffer stock

328
Q
  1. The ability to meet debts as they become due is known as ______.
    A. Solvency
    B. Leverage
    C. Insolvency
    D. Liquidity
A
329
Q
  1. The ability to convert assets to cash quickly is known as ______.
    A. Solvency
    B. Liquidity
    C. Leverage
    D. Insolvency
A

B. Liquidity

330
Q
  1. What is the basic accounting equation?
    A. Assets = liability + owner’s equity
    B. Liability = assets + owners’ equity
    C. Owner’s equity = assets + liability
    D. Owner’s equity = liability – assets
A

A. Assets = liability + owner’s equity

331
Q
  1. The financial health of the company is measured in terms of:
    A. Liquidity
    B. Solvency
    C. Relative risk
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

332
Q
  1. What is an index of short-term paying ability?
    A. Price-earnings ratio
    B. Current ratio
    C. Profit margin ratio
    D. Gross margin
A

B. Current ratio

333
Q
  1. The common ratio is the ratio of:
    A. Net credit sales to average net receivable
    B. Current assets to current liabilities
    C. Gross profit to net sales
    D. Net income to owner’s equity
A

B. Current assets to current liabilities

334
Q
  1. What is defined as the current assets minus inventories and prepaid expenses?
    A. Profit margin ratio
    B. Price-earnings ratio
    C. Return of investment ratio
    D. Quick ratio
A

D. Quick ratio

335
Q
  1. What is the ratio of the quick assets to current liabilities?
    A. Profit margin ratio
    B. Price-earnings ratio
    C. Return of investment ratio
    D. Quick ratio
A

D. Quick ratio

336
Q
  1. What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are collected?
    A. Profit margin ratio
    B. Receivables turnover
    C. Return of investment ratio
    D. Average age of receivables
A

B. Receivables turnover

337
Q
  1. Receivable turnover is the ratio of:
    A. Net credit sales to average net receivables
    B. Market price per share to earnings per share
    C. Cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand
    D. Common shareholders’ equity to number of outstanding shares
A

A. Net credit sales to average net receivables

338
Q
  1. What is the ratio of the net income to owner’s equity?
    A. Gross margin
    B. Return of investment ratio
    C. Book value per share of common stock
    D. Inventory turnover
A

B. Return of investment ratio

339
Q
  1. What is the ratio of the market price per share to earnings per share called?
    A. Gross margin
    B. Price-earnings ratio
    C. Book value per share of common stock
    D. Inventory turnover
A

B. Price-earnings ratio

340
Q
  1. What is the profit margin ratio?
    A. The ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales
    B. The ratio of gross profit to net sales
    C. The ratio of common shareholders’ equity to the number of outstanding shares
    D. The ratio of cost goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand
A

A. The ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales

341
Q
  1. What is a gross margin?
    A. The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales
    B. The ratio of gross profit to net sales
    C. The ratio of common shareholders’ equity to the number of outstanding shares
    D. The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand
A

B. The ratio of gross profit to net sales

342
Q
  1. Which of the following is a book value share of common stock?
    A. The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales
    B. The ratio of gross profit to net sales
    C. The ratio of common shareholders’ equity to the number of outstanding shares
    D. The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand
A

C. The ratio of common shareholders’ equity to the number of outstanding shares

343
Q
  1. What is an inventory turnover?
    A. The ratio of net income before taxes to net sales
    B. The ratio of gross profit to net sales
    C. The ratio of common shareholders’ equity to the number of outstanding shares
    D. The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand
A

D. The ratio of cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory on hand

344
Q
  1. The average age of receivables is computed using which formula?
    A. 365 / receivable turnovers
    B. 365 / average net receivable
    C. 365 / inventory turnover
    D. 365 / average cost of inventory on hand
A

A. 365 / receivable turnovers

345
Q
  1. What is a method of determining when the value of one alternative becomes equal to the value of another?
    A. Specific identification method
    B. Average cost method
    C. Break-even analysis
    D. Incremental value method
A

C. Break-even analysis

346
Q
  1. The days supply of inventory on hand is calculated using which formula?
    A. 365 / receivable turnovers
    B. 365 / average net receivable
    C. 365 / inventory turnover
    D. 365 / average cost of inventory on hand
A

C. 365 / inventory turnover

347
Q
  1. What is defined as the length of time usually in years, for cumulative net annual profit to equal the initial investment?
    A. Return of investment period
    B. Turnover period
    C. Break-even period
    D. Payback period
A

D. Payback period

348
Q
  1. What is defined as ratio of its return to its cost?
    A. Return of an investment
    B. Value of an investment
    C. Breakeven point of an investment
    D. Term of an investment
A

B. Value of an investment

349
Q
  1. Which of the following is an accelerated depreciation method?
    A. Straight line method and sinking fund method
    B. Straight line method and double declining balance method
    C. Double declining balance method and SYD method
    D. SYD method and sinking fund method
A

C. Double declining balance method and SYD method

350
Q
  1. What is an accelerated depreciation method?
    A. It is one that calculates a depreciation amount greater than a straight line amount
    B. It is one that calculates a depreciation amount lesser than a straight line amount
    C. It is one that calculates a depreciation amount equal to straight line amount
    D. It is one that calculates a depreciation not in any way related to straight line amount
A

A. It is one that calculates a depreciation amount greater than a straight line amount

351
Q
  1. What refers to the reduction in the level of a national income and output usually accompanied by a fall in
    the general price level?
    A. Deflation
    B. Inflation
    C. Devaluation
    D. Depreciation
A

A. Deflation

352
Q
  1. A formal organization of producers within an industry forming a perfect collusion purposely formed to increase profit and block new comers form the industry is called ______.
    A. Monopoly
    B. Cartel
    C. Corporation
    D. Competitors
A

B. Cartel

353
Q
  1. The paper currency issued by the central bank which forms part of the country’s money supply is called ______.
    A. T-bills
    B. Bank notes
    C. Check
    D. Coupon
A

B. Bank notes

354
Q
  1. “When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase, increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in output”.
    A. Law of diminishing return
    B. Law of supply
    C. Law of demand
    D. Law of supply and demand
A

A. Law of diminishing return

355
Q
  1. What is the ratio of the market price per share to the earnings per share?
    A. Inventory turnover
    B. Price-earnings
    C. Book value per share of common stock
    D. Profit margin
A

B. Price-earnings

356
Q
  1. What is the ratio of the net income to owner’s equity?
    A. Return on investment
    B. Inventory turnover
    C. Profit margin
    D. Price-earnings
A

A. Return on investment

357
Q
  1. What refers to the ration of the net income before taxes to net sales?
    A. Receivable turnover
    B. Acid test ratio
    C. Return on investment
    D. Profit margin
A
358
Q
  1. What refers to the buying or selling of goods between two or more markers in order to take profitable advantage of any differences in the prices quoted in these markets?
    A. Cartel
    B. Arbitrage
    C. Black market
    D. A priori
A

B. Arbitrage

359
Q
  1. The suspension of repayment of debt or interest for a specified period of time is called ______.
    A. Moratorium
    B. Escrow
    C. Numeraire
    D. Porcupine
A

A. Moratorium

360
Q
  1. The discount of one unit of principal for one unit of time.
    A. Rate discount
    B. Nominal discount
    C. Actual discount
    D. Sales discount
A

A. Rate discount

361
Q
A
361
Q
  1. An annuity whereby the payment is postponed for a certain period of time is?
    A. Ordinary annuity
    B. Suspended annuity
    C. Deferred annuity
    D. Annuity due
A

C. Deferred annuity

362
Q
  1. The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as?
    A. Compounded interest
    B. Nominal interest
    C. Simple interest
    D. Effective interest
A

D. Effective interest

363
Q
  1. A bond where the security behind it are the equipment of the issuing corporation.
    A. Debenture
    B. Mortgage
    C. Collateral
    D. Lien
A
364
Q
  1. Characterized by a few supplies of a product/services that the action by one will almost inevitably result in the similar action by the other.
    A. Monopoly
    B. Oligopoly
    C. Competition
    D. Necessity
A

B. Oligopoly

365
Q
  1. It is the worth of a property as shown on the accounting records.
    A. Resale value
    B. Face value
    C. Book value
    D. Written value
A

C. Book value

366
Q
  1. The decrease in the value of a property due to gradual extraction of its contents.
    A. Depreciation
    B. Depletion
    C. Devaluation
    D. Deviation
A

B. Depletion

367
Q
  1. It is usually determined by a disinterested third party to establish a price good enough to both the seller
    and the buyer.
    A. Fair value
    B. Market value
    C. Common value
    D. Safe Value
A

A. Fair value

368
Q
  1. The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product or services in a given region of the country.
    A. Outlet
    B. Branch
    C. Extension
    D. Franchise
A
369
Q
  1. It is the sum of the first cost and the present worth of all costs or replacement, operation and maintenance.
    A. Total cost
    B. Capitalized cost
    C. Initial cost
    D. Variable cost
A

B. Capitalized cost

370
Q
  1. A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period not less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation or its subsidiaries.
    A. Collateral
    B. Bond
    C. Mortgage
    D. Contract
A

B. Bond

371
Q
  1. What the property is worth to the owner as an operating unit.
    A. Utility value
    B. Present value
    C. Salvage value
    D. Resale value
A

A. Utility value

372
Q
  1. Occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.
    A. Free market
    B. Perfect competition
    C. Open market
    D. Law of supply and demand
A

B. Perfect competition

373
Q
  1. In making economy studies a minimum required profit on the invested capital is included as a cost. A
    method called as __________.
    A. Rate of return
    B. Annual cost pattern
    C. Present worth pattern
    D. Capital cost
A

B. Annual cost pattern

374
Q
  1. Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity?
    A. The amounts of all payments are equal.
    B. The payments are made at equal interval of time.
    C. The first payment is made at the beginning of each period.
    D. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.
A

C. The first payment is made at the beginning of each period.

375
Q
  1. A method of depreciation whereby the amount to recover is spread uniformly over the estimated life of
    the asset in terms of the periods or units of output.
    A. Straight line method
    B. Sinking fund method
    C. Declining balance method
    D. SYD method
A

A. Straight line method

376
Q
  1. Which of the following depreciation methods cannot have a salvage value of zero?
    A. Declining balance method
    B. Sinking fund method
    C. Straight line method
    D. SYD method
A

A. Declining balance method

377
Q
  1. A method of depreciation where a fixed sum of money is regularly deposited at compound interest in a real or imaginary fund in order to accumulate an amount equal to the total depreciation of an asset at the end of the asset’s estimated life.
    A. Straight line method
    B. Sinking fund method
    C. Declining balance method
    D. SYD method
A

B. Sinking fund method

378
Q
  1. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want
    A. Necessity
    B. Utility
    C. Luxuries
    D. Discount
A

B. Utility

379
Q
  1. It is the stock that has prior to dividends. It usually does not bring voting right to the owners and the dividend is fixed and cannot be higher than the specified amount.
    A. Common stock
    B. Voting stock
    C. Pretend stock
    D. Non par value stock
A

C. Pretend stock

380
Q
  1. It is an amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property where each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.
    A. Book value
    B. Market value
    C. Use value
    D. Fair value
A

B. Market value

381
Q
  1. ____ is the loss of value of the equipment with use over a period of time. It could mean a difference in value between a new asset and the use asset currently in a service.
    A. Loss
    B. Depreciation
    C. Extracted
    D. Gain
A

B. Depreciation

382
Q
  1. An economic condition in which there are so few suppliers of a particular product that one supplier’s actions significantly affect prices and supply.
    A. Oligopoly
    B. Monopsony
    C. Monopoly
    D. Perfect competition
A

A. Oligopoly

383
Q
  1. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for when there are no goods substitute.
    A. Monopsony
    B. Monopoly
    C. Oligopoly
    D. Oligopsony
A

A. Monopsony

384
Q
  1. It is the worth of a property as recorded in the book of an enterprise.
    A. Salvage value
    B. Price
    C. Book value
    D. Scrap value
A

C. Book value

385
Q
  1. Reduction in the level of nation income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the general price level.
    A. Devaluation
    B. Deflation
    C. Inflation
    D. Depreciation
A

B. Deflation

386
Q
  1. A formal organization of producers within industry forming a perfect collusion purposely formed to increase profit and block new comers from the industry.
    A. Cartel
    B. Monopoly
    C. Corporation
    D. Competitors
A

A. Cartel

387
Q
  1. A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.
    A. Monopoly
    B. Monophony
    C. Oligopoly
    D. Perfect competition
A

A. Monopoly

388
Q
  1. A market situation where there is one seller and buyer.
    A. Bilateral monopoly
    B. Monopoly
    C. Oligopoly
    D. Bilateral Monopoly
A

D. Bilateral Monopoly

389
Q
  1. Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the general price
    level.
    A. Deflation
    B. Inflation
    C. Devaluation
    D. Depreciation
A

A. Deflation

390
Q
  1. A series of equal payments made at equal interval of time.
    A. Annuity
    B. Amortization
    C. Depreciation
    D. Bond
A

A. Annuity

391
Q
  1. The money paid for the use of borrowed capital.
    A. Interest
    B. Amortization
    C. Annuity
    D. Bonds
A

A. Interest

392
Q
  1. The place where buyers and sellers come together.
    A. Market
    B. Store
    C. Bargain center
    D. Port
A

A. Market

393
Q
  1. The value of the stock as stated on the stocks certificate
    A. Stock value
    B. Par value
    C. Interest
    D. Maturity value
A

B. Par value

394
Q
  1. A market situation in which two competing buyers exert controlling influence over many sellers.
    A. Bilateral monopoly
    B. Oligopoly
    C. Duopsony
    D. Duopoly
A

C. Duopsony

395
Q
  1. A market situation in which two powerful groups or organizations dominate commerce in one business market or commodity.
    A. Oligopoly
    B. Duopoly
    C. Duopsony
    D. duopoly
A

Duopoly

396
Q
  1. The type of annuity where the first payment is made after several periods, after the beginning of the payment.
    A. Perpetuity
    B. Ordinary annuity
    C. Annuity due
    D. Deferred annuity
A

D. Deferred annuity

397
Q
  1. The condition in which the total income equals the total operating expenses.
    A. Tally
    B. Par value
    C. Check and balance
    D. Break even
A

D. Break even

398
Q
  1. The amount which has been spent or capital invested which for some reasons cannot be retrieved.
    A. Sunk cost
    B. Fixed costs
    C. Depletion cost
    D. Construction cost
A

A. Sunk cost

399
Q
  1. An obligation with no condition attach is called
    A. Personal
    B. Gratuitous
    C. Concealed
    D. Private
A

B. Gratuitous

400
Q
  1. The sum of all the costs necessary to prepare a construction project for operation.
    A. Operation costs
    B. Construction cost
    C. Depletion cost
    D. Production cost
A

B. Construction cost

401
Q
  1. The amount received from the sale of an addition unit of a product.
    A. Marginal cost
    B. Marginal revenue
    C. Extra profit
    D. Prime Cost
A

B. Marginal revenue

402
Q
  1. The amount that the property would give if sold for junk.
    A. Junk value
    B. Salvage value
    C. Scrap value
    D. Book value
A

C. Scrap value

403
Q
  1. The worth of the property which is equal to the original cost less the amount which has been charged to depreciation.
    A. Scrap value
    B. Salvage value
    C. Book value
    D. Market value
A

C. Book value

404
Q
  1. The sum of the direct labor cost incurred in the factory and the direct material cost of all materials that go into production is called
    A. Net cost
    B. Maintenance cost
    C. Prime cost
    D. Operating cost
A

C. Prime cost

405
Q
  1. The difference between the present value and the worth of money at some time in the future is called
    A. Market value
    B. Net value
    C. Discount
    D. Interest
A

C. Discount

406
Q
  1. The addition cost of producing one more unit is
    A. Prime cost
    B. Marginal cost
    C. Differential cost
    D. Sunk cost
A

B. Marginal cost

407
Q
  1. A written contract by a debtor to pay final redemption value on an indicated date or maturity date and pay a certain sum periodically.
    A. Annuity
    B. Bond
    C. Amortization
    D. Collateral
A

B. Bond

408
Q
  1. Estimated value of the property at the useful life.
    A. Market value
    B. Fair value
    C. Salvage value
    D. Book value
A
409
Q
  1. Determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date.
    A. Physical inventory
    B. Counting principle
    C. Stock assessment
    D. Periodic material update
A

A. Physical inventory

410
Q
  1. This consists of a cash and account receivable during the next period or any other material which will be sold.
    A. Fixed assets
    B. Deferred charges
    C. Current asset
    D. Liability
A

C. Current asset

411
Q
  1. A wrong act that causes injury to a person or property and for which allows a claim by the injured party to recover damages.
    A. Fraud
    B. Tort
    C. Libel
    D. Scam
A

B. Tort

412
Q
  1. A series of uniform payment over an infinite period of time
    A. Depletion
    B. Capitalized cost
    C. Perpetuity
    D. Inflation
A

C. Perpetuity

413
Q
  1. These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities that will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity event though the price varies considerably.
    A. Commodities
    B. Necessities
    C. Demands
    D. Luxury
A
414
Q
  1. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given place and time.
    A. Utility
    B. Supply
    C. Stocks
    D. Goods
A
415
Q
  1. It is sometimes called the second hand value
    A. Scrap value
    B. Salvage value
    C. Book value
    D. Par value
A

B. Salvage value

416
Q
  1. Decreases in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.
    A. Deflation
    B. Depletion
    C. Declination
    D. Depreciation
A

D. Depreciation

417
Q
  1. An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of engaging business for profit.
    A. Single proprietorship
    B. Party
    C. Corporation
    D. Partnership
A

D. Partnership

418
Q
  1. The simplest form of business organization where in the business is own entirely by one person.
    A. Partnership
    B. Proprietorship
    C. Corporation
    D. Joint venture
A

B. Proprietorship

419
Q
  1. Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent.
    A. Dummy person
    B. Minors
    C. Demented persons
    D. Convict
A

C. Demented persons

420
Q
  1. It is defined as the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.
    A. Satisfaction
    B. Luxury
    C. Necessity
    D. Utility
A

D. Utility

421
Q
  1. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.
    A. Perfect competition
    B. Monophony
    C. Monopoly
    D. Cartel
A

A. Perfect competition

422
Q
  1. These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money is available after the required necessities have been obtained.
    A. Commodities
    B. Necessities
    C. Luxuries
    D. Supplies
A

C. Luxuries

423
Q
  1. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.
    A. Authorized capital
    B. Paid off capital
    C. Subscribed capital
    D. Investment
A

A. Authorized capital

424
Q
  1. It is where the original record of a business transaction is recorded.
    A. Ledger
    B. Spreadsheet
    C. Journal
    D. Logbook
A

C. Journal

425
Q
  1. The length of time which the property may be operated at a profit.
    A. Life span
    B. Economic life
    C. Operating life
    D. Profitable life
A
426
Q
  1. The right and privilege granted to an individual or corporation to do business in a certain region.
    A. Permit
    B. Royalty
    C. License
    D. Franchise
A

D. Franchise

427
Q
  1. The worth of an asset as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.
    A. Fair value
    B. Par value
    C. Market value
    D. Book value
A

D. Book value

428
Q
A