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1
Q

All-or-none theory

A
  1. When a single muscle fiber shortens, it generates its maximum force capability; there is no gradation of force
  2. When a motor unit is stimulated, all the muscle fibers it innervates contract with maximum force
  3. The amount of force generated during a muscle group’s contraction depends on the following
    a. The size of the individual muscle fibers contracting (the larger the fiber, the greater the force)
    b. The number of muscle fibers recruited (more fibers equal more force)
    c. The length of the muscle fiber prior to contraction
    d. The speed of contraction
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2
Q 
The length-tension relationship 
1, Force
2. peak force
3. what happens at approximate resting length
4. effects of poor posture?
A

1) The amount of force that a muscle can exert is related to its length
2) Peak force production is usually seen at resting length or slightly greater (1.2 times resting length)
At approximate resting length, more of the myosin cross-bridge heads can align with active actin receptor sites
4) Therefore, clients with poor posture that have chronically shortened or lengthened muscle groups are not able to produce optimal force at the misaligned joints

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3
Q

Force vs. velocity

  1. A maximal force contractino is dependent on?
  2. the higher the speed of contractions, the?
  3. optimal speed of contraction while lifting weights?
A

1) A maximal force contraction is dependent on the number of actin and myosin cross-bridges formed
2) The higher the speed of contraction, the fewer the number of connected myosin and actin cross- bridges
3) An optimal speed of contraction while lifting weights appears to be 1 to 2 seconds concentric, followed by 2 to 4 seconds eccentric

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4
Q

Slow-twitch (Type I, Oxidative)

A 
Contract slowly
Contract less forcefully
Fatigue resistant
Primary energy system is aerobic
Used in endurance activities
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5
Q

Fast-twitch (Type II, Glycolytic)

A 
Contract rapidly
Contract forcefully
Fatigue quickly
Primary energy system is anaerobic
Used in short-term activities requiring strength and power
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6
Q

Contrast type IIa from type IIb

A

Fast-twitch fibers are further classified into type IIa and type IIb
Type IIa fibers are slightly more oxidative than type IIb
It is possible to increase either the oxidative qualities or the glycolitic qualities of type IIa fibers through training
However, muscle fibers cannot be changed from one type to another

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7
Q

Neural adaptation from Muscular adaptations toregular resistance training

A

Improved recruitment patterns

	b. Improved motor learning
	c. Neural adaptations are responsible for gains in 		strength with little or no change in muscle cross-		sectional area after as much as 6 weeks of 			training
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8
Q

Muscular adaptations toregular resistance training? 7

A 
Neural adaptations
Hypertrophy of fast-twitch fibers 
3)		Increased size and number of actin and myosin
4)		Increased lean body mass
5)		Increased connective-tissue strength
6)		Decreased risk for joint injury
7)		Increased bone density
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9
Q 
Chronic stress has manynegative effects on the body
Physiological system
Musculoskeletal system
Cardiovascular system
Immune system
CNS
Gastrointestinal system
A
  1. Tension headache, neck and shoulder discomfort, and back pain
  2. Premature coronary artery disease (CAD), hypertension, increased platelet adhesiveness, and heart attack
  3. Suppression of T-cell function, increased vulnerability to infections, and viral illnesses
  4. Impaired memory and neural degeneration
  5. Stomach ache, nausea, constipation, and diarrhea

These negative changes primarily occur due to elevated levels of stress hormones (norepinephrine and cortisol)
Exercise may help decrease stress hormone levels and alleviate these symptoms

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10
Q

Isometric (static)

A

a. No visible movement occurs
b. The resistance matches the muscular tension
c. Examples
1. Wall sit
2. Plank

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11
Q

Concentric (shortening)

A

a. Muscle shortens and overcomes resistive force
b. Examples
1. Up-phase of biceps brachii curl
2. Up-phase of push-up

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12
Q

Eccentric (lengthening)

A

a. Muscle produces force as it lengthens, returning toward resting position
b. External force exceeds the contractile force of the muscle
c. Examples
1. Down-phase of biceps brachii curl
2. Down-phase of push-up

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13
Q

Levers

A

1) A lever is a rigid bar (bone) with a fixed point around which it rotates when an external force is applied to it
2) The fixed point is the fulcrum (joint)

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14
Q

Torque

A

1) Rotation at a joint
2) Result of a force acting on a lever at some distance from the fulcrum
3) Rotation occurs in the direction of the greater force

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15
Q

Muscular roles

1) Agonist (prime mover)
2) Antagonist (“opposing” muscle)
3) Synergist - name 5 things that the synergist can do?

A

1) Agonist (prime mover)
a. Causes a desired motion
b. Opposite of antagonist
2) Antagonist (“opposing” muscle)
a. Acts in opposition to the action of the agonist
b. The antagonist stretches as the agonist contracts

3) a. Can act as an assister, stabilizer, or co-contractor
b. Assister
1. A muscle that assists an agonist muscle in its function
2. Example: the teres major is involved in all the same actions as the latissimus dorsi but due to its smaller size and position it can only contribute a fraction of the amount of force
c. Stabilizer
1. Example: when all portions of the trapezius contract to stabilize the scapulae during a side lateral arm raise
2. This allows the scapula to become a stable base for efficient arm movement
d. Co-contractor
1. Example: when the gluteus maximus contracts to counteract the hip flexion that occurs while rising from a low squat
2. This allows the rectus femoris to extend the knee as a person is rising without inclining the trunk forward
e. Both stabilizing and co-contracting play important roles in posture and efficient joint mechanics

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16
Q

Compare/contrast performance interval training and fitness interval training?

A

Performance interval training is designed to enhance competitive performance, while fitness interval training is designed to improve overall general fitness.

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17
Q

Muscle fatigue of 0-30 sec?

A

depletion of ATP

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18
Q

Muscle fatigue of 30 mintues of heavy exercise?

A

buildup of lactic acid

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19
Q

Muscle fatigue during a marathon?

A

depletino of glycogen stores.

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20
Q

The rhythmic squeezing action of large muscles against the veins within tese muscles is called the ?

A

muscle pump

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21
Q

Anaerobic threshold is reached somewhere between what percentage?

A

50 and 85

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22
Q

Optimum exercise intensity for fitness improvements is in te range of approximately? percent of maximum heart rate?

A

60 and 90

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23
Q

4 factors that limit flexibility?

A
  1. the elastic limits of the ligaments and tendons crossing the joints
  2. the elasticity of the muscle tissue itself
  3. the bone and joint structure
    4 the skin
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24
Q

List the steps necessary for muscle to contract according to the sliding filament theory?

A
  1. there must be sufficient ATP near actin and myosin as well as a nervous impulse
  2. Actin and myosin must link to form a cross bridge.
  3. Energy from ATP causes myosin to swivel
  4. Actin is moved toward the center of the sarcomere causing the muscle fiber to shorten.
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25
Q

Why would a client make large initial gains after the first 3 weeks of strength training.

A

They have recruited previously inactive motor units and has increased the coordination of her motor units during her strength-training exercises. It is probably not due to muscle hypertrophy.

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26
Q

What type of bone is the scapulae?

A

Flat

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27
Q

What type of bone is the thoracic vertebrae?

A

Irregular

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28
Q

What type of bone are the tarsals?

A

short bones

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29
Q

What type of bones are the metatarsals?

A

Long bones

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30
Q

What type of bones are the carpals?

A

Short bones

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31
Q

What type of bones are the ribs?

A

flat bones

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32
Q

What type of bones are is the tibia?

A

long bones, also the radius

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33
Q

Hand joint?

A

Condyloid

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34
Q

Briefly describe how first and second-class levers differ from a third-class lever?

A

In the first two classes of levers, the motive force is further away from the axis of rotation than the resistive force. The motive force of the third class lever is closer to the axis of rotation than the resistive force.

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35
Q

sway-back posture

A

a long outwarrd curve of the thoracic spine with an accentuated lumbar curve and a backward shift of the upper trunk

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36
Q

Muscles that primary cause lateral flexion of the trunk

A

Erector spinae, rectus abdominus, external obliques, internal obliques

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37
Q

Muscles that primary cause hip abdcution

A

Gluteus medius and minimus

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38
Q

Muscles that primary cause knee flexion

A

gastrocnemeus, biceps femoris, semitendinousus, semimembranosus, gracilis, sartourius

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39
Q

Muscles that primary cause shoulder abduction

A

deltoid (middle), supraspinatus

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40
Q

Muscles that primary cause shoulder external rotation

A

infraspinatus, teres minor, and deltoid (posterior)

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41
Q

Muscles that primary cause plantarflexion and eversion

A

peroneus longus and brevis

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42
Q

Muscles that primary cause hip extension

A

gluteus maximus, biceps femoris, semitendinousus and semimembransus

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43
Q

Muscles that primary cause scapular elevation

A

Rhomboids, levator scapulae, and trapezius (upper)

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44
Q

Minerals function in the body?

A

Enable enzymes to function; a component of hormones; a part of bone and nerve

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45
Q

Vitamin function in the body?

A

Aid reactions in the body; release energy in food.

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46
Q

Difference btw LDL and HDL?

A

low-density lipoproteins contain a greater amount of cholesterol and may be responsible for depositing cholesterol onto the artery walls. High-density lipoproteins are lower in cholesterol and aid in its removal from the cells.

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47
Q

Ideal choloesterol levels in adults

A

Desirable is 240

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48
Q

LDL levels?

A

Optimal 190

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49
Q

HDL levels?

A

below 40 mg/dL are considered a significant risk factor for coronary heart disease.

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50
Q

Saturated fatty acid

A

one that carries the maximum number of hydrogen atoms, leaving no points unsaturated.

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51
Q

Unsaturated fatty acid

A

has one or more double bonds, and therefore less hydrogen.

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52
Q

List the primary nutrients found in milk

A

Calcium, protein, and riboflavin

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53
Q

List the primary nutrients found in meat and bean?

A

protein, niacin, iron, and thiamine

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54
Q

List the primary nutrients found in vegetables

A

vitamin a and c

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55
Q

The necessary components of a health history

A
  1. demographic information (age, sex, occupation)
  2. past and present exercise history
  3. health risk factors
  4. medications
  5. recent or current illness and injuries
  6. surgery and injury history
    7 family medical history
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56
Q

sprain vs strain?

A

sprain is a ligament and strain is a muscle or its tendon

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57
Q

List the 4 componenets measured in a comprehensive exercise assessment.

A
  1. cardiorespiratory function
  2. muscle strength and endurance
  3. muscle and joint flexibility
  4. body composition
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58
Q

Cardiorespiratory Fitness Testing?

A

directly assessed by measurement of oxygen uptake during a maximal graded exercise test, or indeirectly by estimating maximal oxygen uptake (VO2 max) .

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59
Q

Average resting heart rate for me?

A

70 bmp

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60
Q

Average resting heart rate for women?

A

75 bpm

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61
Q

During a submaximal exercise test, do not allow the exercising heart rate to exceed what percent of heart rate reserve or macimal oxygen uptake?

A

85%

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62
Q

To convert a 10 repetition max weight load to a 1 rep max estimation, divide the weight load by?

A

.75

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63
Q

What age do men and women with two or more cardiovascualr disease risk factors should have a physician supervise maximal exercise test before engaging in any vigorous activites?

A

men over 45 and women over 55

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64
Q

Bioelectrical impedance def

A

a body composition testing method based on the principle that the condu tivity of an electrical impulse is greater through lean tissue than through fatty tissue.

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65
Q

Compare contrast Absolute maximal oxygen uptake and relative maximal oxygen uptake.

A

Absolute does not factor in the weight of teh individual, while relative does factor in the weight of the individual.

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66
Q

Which is worse, upper-body obesity and lower-body obesity?

A

upper-body obesity

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67
Q

3 guidelines that ensure the client’s hear rate does not exceed 150-155 bpm during the Ross Submaximal Treadmill Test?

A

1do not go to stage 2 if the heart rate exceeds 140 at stage 1, the person is unfit

  1. stages 4 and 5 should only be used for individuals under age 50
  2. never go to the next stage if the heart rate exceeds 145 bpm.
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68
Q

Hydrostatci weighing

A

underwater weighing, the gold standard of body composition assessment. body density is calculated from the relationship of normal body weight to underwater weight. Body-fat percentage is calculated from body density.

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69
Q

Anthropometric assessments of body composition

A

the easiest and least expensive methods for assessing body composition. This includes cirucmference and sinfold measures, which are readily used in the field.

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70
Q

Maximal oxygen uptake

A

Also known as maximal oxygen consumption, VO2max, and aerobic capacity

2) The maximum amount of oxygen a person can consume during exercise
3) Expressed in liters or milliliters

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71
Q

Absolute vs. relative VO2max

A

Absolute
a. O2 uptake determined without body weight as a factor
b. Usually used for non-weightbearing exercise tests such as cycling
c. Expressed in L/min
Relative
a. Absolute O2 uptake divided by body weight
b. Used for weightbearing exercise tests such as walking, jogging and stepping
c. Expressed in mL/kg/min
d. This method allows for comparison to others of different body weights

e. A heavy person may have a high VO2max (L/min) when compared to a lighter person, but when expressed in relative terms (mL/kg/min), the lighter person may show a higher level of cardiorespiratory fitness

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72
Q

Formular for relative O2 uptake

A

Formula:
Relative O2 uptake = O2 uptake (L/min) x 1,000
BW (kg)

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73
Q

Heart-rate Reserve (HRR)

A

The result of subtracting resting heart rate (RHR) from maximal heart rate (MHR)
2) Represents the working range between resting and maximal heart rate within which all activity occurs
Formula: HRR = (220 – age) – RHR

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74
Q

Karvonen formula

A

The mathematical formula that uses HRR to determine target heart rate (THR)
2) A common mistake is forgetting to add back in the RHR
Formula: HRR x desired intensity % + RHR

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75
Q

Metabolic equivalent (MET)

A

A simplified system for classifying physical activities where 1 MET = resting O2 consumption
2) Resting O2 consumption equals approximately 3.5 mL/kg/min

Formula: 1 MET = 3.5 mL/kg/min

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76
Q

Rating of perceived exertion (RPE)

A

1) Developed by Gunnar Borg, this scale provides a standard means for subjective self-evaluation of exercise intensity level
2) Original scale: 6–20
3) Revised (modified) scale: 0–10

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77
Q

Submaximal aerobic exercise test

A

) A cardiorespiratory fitness test designed so that the intensity does not exceed 85% HRR

2) Provides an estimation of the VO2max without the risks associated with maximal exercise testing
3) Examples
a. YMCA Submaximal Step Test
b. McArdle Step Test
c. Rockport Fitness Walking Test (1-mile walk)
d. BYU Jog Test

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78
Q

Graded exercise test (GXT)

A

1) A treadmill or cycle-ergometer test that measures (clinical setting) or estimates (field setting) maximum aerobic capacity by gradually increasing the intensity until a person has reached a maximal level or voluntary exhaustion
2) Examples
a. YMCA Submaximal Bicycle Test
b. Ross Submaximal Treadmill Protocol

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79
Q

Body Mass Index (BMI)

A

1) A relative measure of body height to body weight for determining degree of obesity
2) Should not be used solely in determining body composition for the athletic client, because BMI does not distinguish between fat mass and fat-free mass
Formula: Weight (kg)
Height2 (m)

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80
Q

Skinfold measurements

A

1) Used to determine the ratio of fat mass to fat-free mass in the body
2) Fat mass: adipose tissue
3) Fat-free mass: bone, muscle, and organs
4) Measurements are performed with a skinfold caliper
5) The Jackson and Pollock (1985) three-site method has a relatively small margin of error for the general population
a. Sites for men: chest, abdomen, and thigh
b. Sites for women: triceps, suprailium, and thigh
6) Should be repeated by the same technician during reassessment to decrease error
7) Should be performed prior to physical activity because fluid transfer to the skin could result in overestimations

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81
Q

Bioelectrical impedance analysis

A

1) Involves passing a small current through the body and measuring the opposition to the current’s flow
a. Fat-free tissue is a good conductor of electricity
b. Fat tissue is a poor conductor of electricity
2) Estimations can have the same margin of error as skinfold measurements as long as the client follows the correct pre-test protocol
a. Abstain from eating or drinking within 4 hours of the assessment
b. Avoid moderate or vigorous physical activity within 12 hours of the assessment
c. Void completely before the assessment
d. Abstain from alcohol consumption for 48 hours before the assessment
e. Avoid diuretic agents, including caffeine, prior to the assessment unless prescribed by a physician

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82
Q

Circumference (girth) measurements

A

1) Can be used to assess body composition as well as body-fat distribution
2) Measurements are taken with a cloth measuring tape and must be taken at specific anatomical sites for accuracy

3) More practical for obese clients

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83
Q

Calculating desired body weight

A

1) Once body composition is known, the personal trainer can assist the client in goal-setting using the desired body-weight equation
2) This equation assumes there is no loss in lean BW
Formula:
Desired body weight = lean body weight
1 – desired body fat %

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84
Q

Common flexibility tests

A

Measures range of motion (ROM) at specific joints
1) Trunk flexion (sit-and-reach)
2) Trunk extension
3) Hip flexion
4) Shoulder flexibility
As with any test or exercise, the client’s health and injury history should be considered

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85
Q

Muscular strength assessments

A

Muscular strength assessments measure the greatest amount of force that muscles can produce in a single maximal effort

1) Common muscular strength tests
a. 1 repetition maximum (1 RM) bench press
b. 1 RM leg press
2) 1 RM strength testing is not commonplace among personal trainers as the risks typically outweigh the benefits

86
Q

Muscular endurance assessments

A

Muscular endurance assessments measure a muscle’s ability to exert a submaximal force either repeatedly or statically over time
1) Common muscular endurance tests
a. Push-up test
b. Half sit-up test
As with any test or exercise, the client’s health and injury history should be considered

87
Q

Test termination criteria

A

1) Onset of angina or angina-like symptoms
2) Significant drop (20 mmHg) in systolic blood pressure or failure of systolic blood pressure to rise with an increase in exercise intensity
3) Excessive rise in blood pressure: systolic pressure >260 mmHg or diastolic pressure >115 mmHg
4) Signs of poor perfusion: lightheadedness, confusion, ataxia (uncoordinated movement), pallor (pale skin), cyanosis (bluish coloration, especially around mouth), nausea, or cold and clammy skin
5) Failure of heart rate to increase with increased exercise intensity
6) Noticeable change in heart rhythm
7) Subject requests to stop
8) Physical or verbal manifestations of severe fatigue
9) Failure of testing equipment

88
Q

Reassessment

A

1) Measurable changes usually take about 4–6 weeks
2) The first follow-up assessments should be administered 4–12 weeks after the onset of training
3) The information gained during the follow-up assessment can be useful in client motivation as well as in future exercise programming

89
Q

Body Mass Index (BMI)

A

1) A relative measure of body height to body weight for determining degree of obesity
2) Should not be used solely in determining body composition for the athletic client, because BMI does not distinguish between fat mass and fat-free mass
Formula: Weight (kg)
Height2 (m)

90
Q

Skinfold measurements

A

1) Used to determine the ratio of fat mass to fat-free mass in the body
2) Fat mass: adipose tissue
3) Fat-free mass: bone, muscle, and organs
4) Measurements are performed with a skinfold caliper

91
Q

Bioelectrical impedance analysis

A

1) Involves passing a small current through the body and measuring the opposition to the current’s flow
a. Fat-free tissue is a good conductor of electricity
b. Fat tissue is a poor conductor of electricity
2) Estimations can have the same margin of error as skinfold measurements as long as the client follows the correct pre-test protocol
a. Abstain from eating or drinking within 4 hours of the assessment
b. Avoid moderate or vigorous physical activity within 12 hours of the assessment
c. Void completely before the assessment
d. Abstain from alcohol consumption for 48 hours before the assessment
e. Avoid diuretic agents, including caffeine, prior to the assessment unless prescribed by a physician

92
Q

Circumference (girth) measurements

A

1) Can be used to assess body composition as well as body-fat distribution
2) Measurements are taken with a cloth measuring tape and must be taken at specific anatomical sites for accuracy

3) More practical for obese clients

93
Q

Calculating desired body weight

A

1) Once body composition is known, the personal trainer can assist the client in goal-setting using the desired body-weight equation
2) This equation assumes there is no loss in lean BW
Formula:
Desired body weight = lean body weight
1 – desired body fat %

94
Q

Common flexibility tests

A

Measures range of motion (ROM) at specific joints
1) Trunk flexion (sit-and-reach)
2) Trunk extension
3) Hip flexion
4) Shoulder flexibility
As with any test or exercise, the client’s health and injury history should be considered

95
Q

Muscular strength assessments

A

Muscular strength assessments measure the greatest amount of force that muscles can produce in a single maximal effort

1) Common muscular strength tests
a. 1 repetition maximum (1 RM) bench press
b. 1 RM leg press
2) 1 RM strength testing is not commonplace among personal trainers as the risks typically outweigh the benefits

96
Q

Muscular endurance assessments

A

Muscular endurance assessments measure a muscle’s ability to exert a submaximal force either repeatedly or statically over time
1) Common muscular endurance tests
a. Push-up test
b. Half sit-up test
As with any test or exercise, the client’s health and injury history should be considered

97
Q

Test termination criteria

A

1) Onset of angina or angina-like symptoms
2) Significant drop (20 mmHg) in systolic blood pressure or failure of systolic blood pressure to rise with an increase in exercise intensity
3) Excessive rise in blood pressure: systolic pressure >260 mmHg or diastolic pressure >115 mmHg
4) Signs of poor perfusion: lightheadedness, confusion, ataxia (uncoordinated movement), pallor (pale skin), cyanosis (bluish coloration, especially around mouth), nausea, or cold and clammy skin
5) Failure of heart rate to increase with increased exercise intensity
6) Noticeable change in heart rhythm
7) Subject requests to stop
8) Physical or verbal manifestations of severe fatigue
9) Failure of testing equipment

98
Q

Reassessment

A

1) Measurable changes usually take about 4–6 weeks
2) The first follow-up assessments should be administered 4–12 weeks after the onset of training
3) The information gained during the follow-up assessment can be useful in client motivation as well as in future exercise programming

99
Q

McArdle Step Test Formula

A

Men: VO2 max = 111.33 - (0.42 x HR)
Women: VO2 max = 65.81 - (0.1847 x HR)

100
Q

Explain the procedure for locating the following skin fold measurement at the chest

A

a diagonal skinfold taken midway on the anterior axillary line

101
Q

Explain the procedure for locating the following skin fold measurement at the abdomen

A

a vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus

102
Q

Explain the procedure for locating the following skin fold measurement at the tricep

A

a vertical fold on the back of the upper arm taken halfway between the acromion and olecranon processes

103
Q

Explain the procedure for locating the following skin fold measurement at the suprillium

A

a diagonal fold taken at, or just anterior to , the crest of the ilium

104
Q

Signs of overtraining

A
  1. Increased RHR
    1. Depression or mood disturbances
  2. Increased incidence of colds and flu
  3. Overuse injuries
  4. Muscle and joint soreness
    6. Fatigue
    7. Insomnia
    8. Decreased appetite
    9. Plateau or worsening of performance that is not improved by rest or reduced training
105
Q

Fartlek training

A
  1. Similar to interval training except the work-rest intervals are determined by how the client feels
    2. Has great application for running
106
Q

Aerobic composite

A

(cross-training)

		1. Combining a group of aerobic activities into one 			training session
		2. Example: cycling to a track, running for 20 				minutes, and cycling home
		3. Great for decreasing boredom and chronic injuries
107
Q

Muscles that evert the foot

A

peroneus longus, peroneus brevis, and extensor digitorum longus

108
Q

Pronation of foot

A

weight goes to the medial arch. similar to eversion

109
Q

Muscles that flex the knee?

A 
Hamstring (biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus) 
Gracilis
Sartorius
Popliteus
Gastrocnemius
110
Q

Muscles that flex the hip?

A

Tensor fasciae lateae
pecineus
sartorius
iliopsoas (iliacus, psoas major and minor)
rectus femoris
So moving in a sagital plane - bringing the knee up and decreasing the angle of the hip, there is a concetric contraction up

111
Q

Muscles that extend the hip?

A

gluetus maximus and the hamstring (semitendiosus, semimembranosus, and biceps femoris. Very common to see people with tight hip flexors because they sit all day.

112
Q

Muscles that abduct the hip?

A

Tensor fasica lata, gluteus medis, gluteus minimus, gluetus maximus, and the sartorius

113
Q

Muscles that adduct the hip

A

Adductor magnus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, pectineus, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, gracilis

114
Q

Muscles that interanlly rotate the hip?

A

semimembranosus, semitendinosus, gluteus minimus, glueteus medius, tensor fasciae latae

115
Q

Borg Scale?

A

The ratings of perceived exertion (RPE).
Example: It is 0 - 20 with 0 being nothing at all an 20 being very very hard. 12 to 13 corresponds to approximately 55-69% of maximal heart rate or 50-70% of maximal oxygen consumption. Most clients should exercise between 12 and 16 on the Borg scale. 6 = approximate HR of 60. 15 = approximate HR of 150

116
Q

Muscular conditioning programs

A

Importance of opposing muscle groups and muscular balance (neutral alignment)

2) Assess tightness and weakness (kyphosis and lordosis)—refer to student outline for illustrations and associated muscle imbalances
3) Ask clients about their lifestyles and repetitive movements they perform throughout their day
4) Design a program to address those issues, but don’t neglect the importance of training the entire body as a system
5) Overload and progression
a. Progressive increase in resistance over time that causes muscles to fatigue in 30–90 seconds
b. Increase the intensity by no more than 5–10%
c. “2-for-2” rule: if the client can perform 2 or more repetitions over his or her assigned repetition goal in the last set in 2 consecutive workouts, load should be added to the next training session
6) Specificity

7) Exercise sequence
a. Work the largest muscle groups first
b. This allows clients to perform the most strength- oriented exercises while they are the least fatigued
8) Range of motion
a. Full range of joint motion should be executed with each lift
b. This strengthens the agonists and stretches the antagonists
c. Strength training can improve range of motion if done properly

117
Q

Exercise progressionand modification

A

1) Strategies to overcome strength plateaus
a. Modify FITT
b. Change order of strength-training exercises
c. Substitute new exercises that target the same muscle groups
2) Competitive Athletes
a. Exercise specificity
b. Injury prevention
c. Plyometrics

118
Q

Flexibility exercise programs

1) When to stretch?

A

a. After the body has been “warmed-up”
b. 5–15 min of light warm-up activity followed by a static stretch
c. Post-workout is probably the best time to stretch

119
Q

Flexibility exercise programs

Overload and progression

A

a. Stretch to the point of mild discomfort
b. Because connective tissue is visco-elastic, the stretch needs to be of low-force and long-duration to produce tissue elongation even after the stretch position is discontinued
c. This type of permanent elongation as a result of static stretching is called plastic deformation
d. Over time, a consistent stretching program may cause the connective tissues to “reset” to an elongated length, and range of motion will increase

120
Q

Flexibility exercise programs

3) Specificity regarding client needs

A

a. Posture
1. Base a stretching program on the initial assessment results
2. Be aware of the types of postures associated with specific muscular tightness
b. Injuries
1. Be aware of previous injuries
2. Recently injured soft tissues should not be stretched

121
Q

Flexibility exercise programs

A

4) Types of stretching
a. Ballistic
1. High-force, rapid, jerking movements often referred to as “bouncing”
2. Not recommended because it may activate the muscle spindles and invoke the stretch reflex
b. Dynamic
1. An active stretch that mimics the activity to be performed
2. Done through a full range of motion in a slow and controlled manner
3. Examples include running in slow motion and practicing slow swings of a tennis racquet
c. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)
1. A method of promoting the response of neuromuscular mechanisms through the stimulation of proprioceptors in an attempt to gain more stretch in a muscle
2. There are several methods, but the most common used in training is the contract-relax method
3. This requires a trained and experienced partner and involves an isometric contraction followed by a passive, static stretch
d. Static
1. A slow, controlled stretch that holds the desired tissues at an elongated length for 10–30 seconds
2. Recommended form of stretching because it takes a minimum of 6 – 10 seconds to elicit the stretch response from the neuromuscular mechanisms

122
Q

Programming for the Healthy Adult

Sources of information

A

1) The forms
2) The interview with the client
3) The assessment and test results
4) The client’s primary care physician
Only after gathering these pieces of information can the personal trainer design the appropriate, safe, and effective exercise program

123
Q

Programming for the Healthy Adult

Rates of change

A

1) Weight Loss
a. Maximum rate of weight loss is 1–2 lb per week
b. Body fat decrease of approximately 1% per month
2) Muscle Gain
a. Maximum rate of muscle gain is 1–2 lb per month
b. Initial rate of muscle gain is 2–4 lb in the first 8 weeks
3) Progression
a. 10% rule
b. Increases in resistance, time, or distance should be no greater than 10% per week

124
Q

Programming for the Healthy Adult

The energy cost of exercise

A

1) Regular exercise should be partly responsible for creating a negative energy balance for weight loss
2) Educating clients about the energy cost of exercise may help them understand the role of physical activity in weight management
3) Estimated calorie costs of selected exercises
Formula:
Energy cost of an activity = calorie cost x BW (lb) x minutes of activity

125
Q

Programming for the Healthy Adult

Goal setting

A

1) Effective goal-setting will translate a client’s vague statements into precise goals
2) SMART goal
a. S pecific
b. M easurable
c. A ttainable
d. R elevant
e. T ime-bound
3) SMART goal example: “I will lose 10 lb in three months by performing 30 minutes of cardio three days per week and strength training two days per week and through proper nutrition so that I can really enjoy my upcoming holiday cruise!”
a. Specific: “lose 10 lb body fat”
b. Measurable: progress will be assessed using a change in body weight and the skinfold caliper body- composition method
c. Attainable: by increasing physical activity and decreasing caloric intake by 150 cal per day, losing 10 lb in 3 months can safely and effectively be achieved (equates to approximately .8 lb lost per week)
d. Relevant: look better for cruise and have more energy to enjoy it
e. Time-bound: goal is set to be achieved within 3 months
4) Behavior-centered goals
a. Focus on establishing a pattern of behavior (exercising 3 days per week for 20 minutes per session)
b. Good for beginners who may be intimidated by the evaluation process (weight scales, body-fat measurements, tape measures, etc.)
5) Outcome-centered goals
a. Focus on results (losing 10 lb, as in the previous SMART goal example)
b. May be good for clients who are motivated by physiological results rather than behavior-change results

126
Q

Programming for the Healthy Adult

ACSM recommendations for exercise program design

A

1) Based on the FITT principle
a. Frequency: days per week
b. Intensity: difficulty of exercise
c. Time: duration
d. Type: mode of activity

127
Q

Guidelines for most special populations

A

1) Physician’s clearance
a. Request exercise guidelines and limitations from client’s physician
b. Maintain close contact with client’s physician
2) Extended warm-up and cool-down
a. Longer than 10 minutes
b. Many special populations have compromised metabolic and/or cardiorespiratory systems and it takes longer for their bodies to adjust during acute bouts of exercise
3) Cardiorespiratory exercise
a. Low- or non-impact
b. Longer duration and lower intensity
c. May be accumulated in shorter bouts throughout the day
4) Strength
a. Lower resistance and higher repetitions
b. Exceptions are osteoporosis and obesity
5) Modify as needed

128
Q

Factors that affect adherence

A

1) Personal factors
a. Education
b. Income
c. Smoking
d. Weight
e. Past exercise experience
f. Exercise perceptions
g. Self-efficacy
2) Program factors
a. Convenience
b. Location
c. Cleanliness
d. Friendliness of staff
e. Cost
f. Variety in programming and equipment
g. Intensity
3) Environmental factors
a. Support from family and friends
b. Contracts
c. External rewards

129
Q

Four stages of aclient-trainer relationship

A

1) Rapport
a. Empathy: ability to experience another person’s world as if it were your own
b. Warmth: unconditional positive regard for another person
c. Genuineness: being honest and open
2) Investigation
a. Health screen
b. Physical tests
3) Planning
a. Set SMART goals
b. Client should be involved in this process
4) Action
a. Where the teaching and training takes place
b. The personal trainer coaches the client toward his or her goals

130
Q

Stages of learning

A

1) Cognitive stage of learning
a. Learners make many mistakes and have highly variable performances
b. Participants rely on the instructor to detect errors in performance
2) Associative stage of learning
a. Learners have acquired the basic fundamentals or mechanics of the skill
b. Participants begin to detect their own errors
3) Autonomous stage of learning
a. The skill now becomes autonomic or habitual
b. Participants can now perform without thinking and can detect their own errors

131
Q

Types of learners

A

1) Auditory learners
a. Listen intently to the content of your words
b. Instruction example: teach auditory learners breathing by making a light sound while exhaling and inhaling
2) Visual learners
a. Watch you and your actions carefully
b. Instruction example: teach visual learners breathing by exaggerating facial expressions and moving hands in the direction of the airflow
3) Kinesthetic learners
a. Gather information through physical changes or feelings
b. Instruction example: teach kinesthetic learners breathing by having the participant focus on the feeling of the air moving through the airway and the feeling of the lungs expanding and contracting
4) Most people prefer one style of learning but can adapt to others

132
Q

Exercise instruction

A

1) “Tell-show-do” approach to teaching
a. Tell: a concise verbal description of the skill to be attempted
b. Show: demonstration of the accurate desired action
c. Do: an opportunity for the client to perform and practice the desired skill
d. This approach allows the personal trainer to provide the client with an auditory, visual, and kinesthetic learning experience
2) Feedback
a. Should be informational rather than controlling
b. Based on performance standards
c. Specific
d. Immediate
3) Spotting techniques
a. Trainer safety: the personal trainer should position his or her body in correct biomechanical position when spotting
b. Client safety
1. The personal trainer should be able to recognize muscle substitution patterns that occur as muscles fatigue and approach failure
2. It is the personal trainer’s responsibility to provide protection in high-risk barbell exercises such as the squat, bench press, and incline press

133
Q

TranstheoreticalStages-of-Change model

A

1) Pre-contemplation
a. Individual is not exercising and not intending to start
b. Pre-contemplators deny having a problem and are typically unaware of the problem
c. Most difficult people to reach for behavioral change
d. Education is critical at this stage
e. Typically, they initiate change only when others pressure them
2) Contemplation
a. Individual is not exercising but seriously intends to start
b. Contemplators acknowledge they have a problem and begin to seriously think about overcoming it
c. They are not quite ready for change and are planning to take some action within the next 6 months
d. The average contemplator stays in this stage for approximately 2 years, telling themselves they will change but continuously putting it off
e. Education and peer support are critical
3) Preparation
a. Exercise is occurring occasionally but not regularly
b. People in this stage are planning on starting to exercise within the next month
c. Goal setting and creating a specific plan of action are important during this stage
d. Continued environmental and peer support are helpful

4) Action
a. Exercise has occurred regularly for less than 6 months
b. During this stage the exerciser is following specific program guidelines
c. Relapses are common, as this is the least stable stage
d. Personal trainers are critical during this stage
5) Maintenance
a. A regular exercise program has taken place for longer than 6 months and the exerciser strives to prevent relapses
c. This stage also requires adherence to specific exercise program guidelines
d. 5 years of continuous maintenance is likely to result in termination of the unwanted behavior (being sedentary)

134
Q

Musculoskeletal Injuries

Acute injury

A

1) Seek medical approval and recommendations prior to continuing existing program
2) Rest, decrease FITT, and cross-train

135
Q

Chronic injury

A

1) If chronic injury with pain exists for two weeks or more, seek medical approval and recommendations prior to continuing existing program
2) Rest, decrease FITT, and cross-train

136
Q

New medical conditions and/or changes in health status

A

1) Seek medical approval and recommendations prior to continuing existing program
2) Use ACE and other resources to create program modifications

137
Q

Environmental conditions

Heat

A

1) Exercising in heat
a. Begin exercising in the heat gradually
b. Always wear lightweight, well-ventilated clothing
d. Replace body fluids as they are lost
1. 4–8 ounces of water every 10–15 minutes during exercise
2. 8–16 ounces of water 1 hour prior to exercise
3. 16–24 ounces of water during the 30 minutes after exercise, whether thirsty or not
e. Record daily body weight
f. Reduce FITT when appropriate
g. Avoid times of day when heat and/or humidity are the greatest

	c.	Never wear impermeable or non-breathable 			garments
138
Q

Exercising in cold

A

a. Wear several layers of clothing
b. Allow for adequate ventilation of sweat
c. Select garment materials that allow the body to give off body heat during exercise and retain body heat during inactive periods
d. Replace body fluids in the cold, just as in the heat

139
Q

Exercising in higher altitudes

A

a. Acclimatize to altitude
b. Reduce FITT when appropriate
c. Increase warm-up and cool-down periods
d. Be aware of the signs and symptoms of altitude sickness
1. Shortness of breath
2. Headache
3. Nausea
4. Lightheadedness
e. Allow a minimum of three weeks to adjust at moderate altitudes (4,000 feet and higher)

140
Q

Legal Guidelines & Professional Responsibilities

Scope of practice

A

1) The range and limit of responsibilities normally associated with a specific job or function
2) Limits the authority of a personal trainer
3) Examples
a. Referring to more qualified professionals when necessary
b. Educating a client about the USDA Dietary Guidelines
c. Designing an exercise program for an apparently healthy adult
Important point: personal trainers never diagnose or prescribe

141
Q

Legal Guidelines & Professional Responsibilities

Standard of care

A

1) Appropriateness of an exercise professional’s actions in light of current professional standards
2) Based on the age, condition, and knowledge of the participant
3) Examples:
a. Proper risk factor and medical screening
b. Exercise testing and physical assessments
c. Proper development of exercise program
d. Proper supervision of a client during exercise
4) With the ACE Personal Trainer certification, your conduct could be compared to the standards presented in the manual and your ethics could be equated to the ACE Code of Ethics

142
Q

Legal Guidelines & Professional Responsibilities

Negligence

A

1) Both the failure to act and appropriateness of action
2) Acting inappropriately as compared with what a reasonable and prudent professional would do
3) Examples
a. Failing to stop a client from exercising above a recommended heart rate (failure to act or act of omission)
b. Encouraging a client to work above his or her recommended heart rate (appropriateness of action or act of commission)

143
Q

Legal Guidelines & Professional Responsibilities

Comparative negligence

A

1) Measures the relative fault of both the plaintiff and defendant
2) The court may apportion guilt and any subsequent award and damages

144
Q

Legal Guidelines & Professional Responsibilities

Contributory negligence

A

1) The client plays a role in getting injured

2) The plaintiff (client) cannot recover damages from the defendant (trainer)

145
Q

Legal Guidelines & Professional Responsibilities

Forms

A

1) Health risk appraisal (health history screen)
a. Purpose
1. Aids the personal trainer in determining heart disease risk factors and/or medical conditions that may make it unsafe for the client to participate in physical activity
2. Provides a framework for designing a safe and effective exercise program
b. Limitations
1. Cannot be used by a personal trainer to diagnose any medical condition
2. Must be updated when any new medical condition arises (having clients update their health history forms every 6–12 months is a good practice)
2) Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
a. Purpose
1. Serves as a minimal prerequisite for beginning a low- to moderate-intensity exercise program
2. Quick and easy to administer
b. Limitations
1. Lack of detail
2. May overlook important health conditions, medications, and past injuries
3) Physician’s clearance (medical release)
a. Purpose
1. Provides the personal trainer with clarification of a client’s status
2. Explains any limitations and/or modifications to physical activity
4) Informed consent (“express assumption of risk”)
a. Purpose
1. When a client signs an informed consent, he or she is acknowledging to have been specifically informed about the risks associated with the activity
2. The two most important issues are voluntary participation and known danger
3. Uses “assumption of risk” defense if challenged in court
b. Limitations
1. Not a liability waiver
2. Intended to communicate the dangers of the exercise program or test procedures
5) Liability waiver
a. Purpose
1. Used to release a personal trainer from liability for injuries resulting from an exercise program
2. Represents a client’s voluntary abandonment of the right to file suit
b. Limitations
1. Does not protect the personal trainer from being sued
2. Documents that are poorly worded hold little value in court, as each state has its own policies

146
Q

Legal Guidelines & Professional Responsibilities

Insurance coverage

A

1) General liability
a. Covers basic trip and fall injuries that occur in a non-business environment
b. These policies will not provide coverage for accidents that occur at work or while working
2) Professional liability
a. Includes coverage based on allegations claiming injury to clients
b. Covers acts of omission (things the personal trainer did not do)
c. Covers acts of commission (actual conduct)
d. Necessary for independent contractors (self- employed personal trainers)

147
Q

Legal Guidelines & Professional Responsibilities

Securing informationand confidentiality

A

1) Do’s
a. Do keep all client records in a secure, locked place
b. Do keep client records on file for at least 5 years
c. Do inform your client that you will keep all information confidential
2) Don’ts
a. Do not disseminate client names, addresses, or any other information to anyone without written permission from the client

148
Q

Legal Guidelines & Professional Responsibilities

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

A

1) In 1996, this federal statute was designed to protect the health information of individuals from unnecessary use or abuse
2) Protected health information (PHI) applies to information created or received by healthcare providers
3) HIPAA does not currently affect personal trainers or fitness facilities
4) However, as part of the personal trainer’s initial interview and assessment with a potential client, PHI is gathered
5) The following precautions are recommended for the handling of PHI
a. Shred any duplicative or unnecessary medical documents that you may have for the client
b. Keep all files and offices locked when not in use
c. Ensure that PHI is not openly displayed on a workspace
d. If an electronic system is used to store client information, ensure that the system is password protected
e. Sending a fax with PHI requires the personal trainer to first notify the recipient that a fax is going to be transmitted and mark the cover sheet “private and confidential”
f. If hard copies of PHI are mailed, label the envelope as confidential
g. It is not advisable to e-mail PHI

149
Q

For any given percentage of maximum oxygen uptake, the percentage of maximum heart rate will be??

A

higher
The ACSM recommends an intensity range of 50-9-% of maximum heart rate or 45-85% of heart-rate reserve (aka oxygen uptake reserve) Note that the oxygen uptake reserve (VO2R) is the difference between VO2max and resting VO2.

150
Q

4 spots to take a pulse

A
  1. radial
  2. carotid
  3. temporal (place first rwo fingers to outside edge of eybrow, slide fingers up and back, into soft spot.
  4. apical - below left clavicle
151
Q

Isometric contraction

A

when the muscular force is equal to the resistive force, there is no movement. Example - I can hold a 50 pound weight at 90 degrees of elbow flexion, my effective isometric force output is 50 pounds.

152
Q

Concentric contraction

A

When the muscular force is greater than the resistvie force, the muscle shortens, resulting in a concetric positive contraction. For example, I can lift a maximum weight of 40 pounds in the biceps curl exercise (concentric contraction). My actual strength production is still 50 pounds (isometric contraction) but internal muscle friction subtracts about 20% from my effective concentric force output.

153
Q

Eccentric Contraction

A

When the muscular force is less than the resistive force, the muscle lengthens, rusulting in an eccentric (negative) contraction. For example I can lower a maximum weight of 60 pounds in the biceps curl exercise (eccentric contraction). This is more than an isometric contraction at 50 pounds and a concentric contraction at 40 pounds.

154
Q

Isometric Equipment

A

Static. Not recommened for developing muscle strength. This is becasue isometric muscle contractions restrict blood flow and may trigger unacceptable increases in blood pressure.

155
Q

Isokinetic Equipment def

A

characterized by a constant movement speed and a matching resistive force. The amount of muscle force applied determines the amount of resistive force encouraged. For example: knee extensions - note that there is no eccentric muscle contractions.

156
Q

Isokinetic Equipment disadvantages and advantages

A

Disadvantages - cost of equipment, inconsistent force regulation, and lack of eccentric muscle contractions.
Advantages - accommodating resistance forces, speed regulation, detailed perormance feedback, and reduced muscle soreness

157
Q

Dynamic Constant Resistance Equipment

A

Barbells, Isotonic, the amount of resistive force encountered determines the amount of muscle force applied. A greater resistive force requires a greater muscle force, and vice-versa. Remember that the resistive force remains constant throughout the exercise movement, but due to the mechanics of human movement, the effective muscle force is higher in some positions and lower in other positions. As a result, the muscle effort varies throughout the exercise movement.

158
Q

Dynamic Constant Resistance Equipment pros and cons

A

pros - low cost of equipment, similarity to most work and exercise activities, variety of training movements, tangible evidence of improvement, and easy accessibility
cons- the inability to train through a full range of joint motion in some exercises and incosisten matching of resistive forces and muscular forces throughout the exercise movements.

159
Q

Dynamic Variable Resistance Equipment

A

Isotonic. Similar to dynamic constant resistance equipment in the amount of resistive force encountered determines the amount of muscle fore applied, but the resistive force changes throughout the exercise movement (cables)

160
Q

Dynamic Variable Resistance Equipment pros and cons

A

pros - the ability to train through a full range of motion on most exercises, resonably consistent matching of resistive forces and muscular forces throughout the exercise movements and in most cases tangible evidence of improvement.
cons - equipment expense, limited number of training movements, and lack of accessibility.

161
Q

The Investigation Stage

A

occurs between the rapport stage and planning stage, and is typically when a trainer will ask a client to fill out a health-history or lifestyle questionnaire.

162
Q

What is the first stage that you meet a client?

A

The Rapport Stage - non-verbal communication and verbal communication are extremely important to consider here

163
Q

Client is in for their 2nd session and you are conducting a fitness assessment, you ask her what type of exercise she prefers, what stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with the client?

A

Investigation stage - you should do this before the planning stage.

164
Q

Precontemplation phase of exercise?

A

people are beginning to understand the implications of being inactive, but are not quite ready to commit to a change yet. Example - a client tells you that he understands that his family has a history of heart disease and that being overweight can increase his risk for such conditions. He is still wary of beginning any kind of exercise program and says that he has never ahd any weight loss success in the past.

165
Q

Stage 1: Precontemplation (Not Ready

A

People at this stage do not intend to start the healthy behavior in the near future (within 6 months), and may be unaware of the need to change. People here learn more about healthy behavior: they are encouraged to think about the pros of changing their behavior and to feel emotions about the effects of their negative behavior on others.
Precontemplators typically underestimate the pros of changing, overestimate the cons, and often are not aware of making such mistakes.
One of the most effective steps that others can help with at this stage is to encourage them to become more mindful of their decision making and more conscious of the multiple benefits of changing an unhealthy behavior.

166
Q

Stage 2: Contemplation (Getting Ready)

A

At this stage, participants are intending to start the healthy behavior within the next 6 months. While they are usually now more aware of the pros of changing, their cons are about equal to their Pros. This ambivalence about changing can cause them to keep putting off taking action.
People here learn about the kind of person they could be if they changed their behavior and learn more from people who behave in healthy ways.
Others can influence and help effectively at this stage by encouraging them to work at reducing the cons of changing their behavior.

167
Q

Stage 3: Preparation (Ready)

A

People at this stage are ready to start taking action within the next 30 days. They take small steps that they believe can help them make the healthy behavior a part of their lives. For example, they tell their friends and family that they want to change their behavior.
People in this stage should be encouraged to seek support from friends they trust, tell people about their plan to change the way they act, and think about how they would feel if they behaved in a healthier way. Their number one concern is: when they act, will they fail? They learn that the better prepared they are, the more likely they are to keep progressing.

168
Q

When should you test a client’s static posture?

A

After taking resting measures but before getting into training.

169
Q

What questionnaire serves as a non-invasive, minimal health-risk appraisal designed to determine contraindications to exercise?

A

the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire, it is a simple questionnaire designed to screen for readiness for low to moderate intensity training.

170
Q

What do you do if a client answers “yes” to one or more of the questions of the PAR-Q?

A

It is necessary for them to talk with their doctor about their readiness to begin an exercise program before any other actions are taken, especially before a fitness apprasal.

171
Q

What type of medicine could affect a persons exercising heart rate?

A

Cold medicine can increase a person’s exercising heart rate. these are generally medicines designed for sinus congestions.

172
Q

What type of training action takes place first after conducting static and dynamic analyses and determining alight postural deviations?

A

Stability and mobility training must take place first before movement training or load and performance training to ensure a proper base. this will decrease the chance of injury and increase performance levels.

173
Q

When anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight?

A

generally, the muscles supporting the occurring action, or the shortened muscles, are tight. When an anterior pelvic tilt occurs it is usually the result of shortened, tight hip flexors and/or erector spinae, causing lordosis in the lumbar spine.

174
Q

When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen through resorative exercise?

A

Rectus abdominis and hamstrings; when an imbalance is determined it is important to strengthen the muscles opposing the action that is occurring. In the case of an anterior pelvic tilt, these muscles are the rectus abdominins and the hamstrings.

175
Q

when a posterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight?

A

Rectus abdominis and hamstring. This will cause a reverse lordosis in the lumbar spine.

176
Q

Bend and lift screen

A

upper and lower limb mobility and stability during a bend and lift. You will observe the stability of the foot (pronation, supanation, eversion, and inversion) the first movement.
The alinment of the toes and the knees on the third movement. The third movement will be overall (lateral shift or rotation. 4th movement is in the sagital plane to look at the heels if they are on the floor. The 5th movement if they are glue or knee dominant. The 6th movement looking at the back and if its curved or straight. The 7th movement will look at head movement. This test overall shows limitations to movement.

177
Q

Skinfold measurement sites on a male?

A

The chest, thighs and abdominal area

178
Q

BMI?

A

weight(kg)/height(m)

179
Q

What waist to hip ratio for women is considered “at risk” ?

A

0.86

180
Q

What waist to hip ratio for men is considered “at risk”?

A

0.95

181
Q

Bruce Submaximal treadmill test

A

typically performed to maximal effort in 3 minutes stages until the client reaches 85% of their estimated maximum heart rate. Thsi test may be too difficult and demanding for older or less fit individuals

182
Q

Explain the body weight squat test?

A

The bodyweight squat test measures lower body muscular endurance becasue it required multiple repetitions over a period of minutes.

183
Q

The vertical jump test assesses what componenet of fitness?

A

muscular power in the lower body

184
Q

Qualities of effective listening?

A

Encouragine, Questioning, Summarizing. Note that it is not explaing.

185
Q

In which assessment can a personal trainer determine potential movemetn compensations associated with poor posture?

A

Potential movement compensations can be identified through static postural assessments.

186
Q

Best method for discussing nutrition with your client?

A

Telling your client to visit mypyramid.gov and to follow the instructions on the website is withing the ACE trainer’s scope of practice

187
Q

What is an example of a skill-related assessment that evaluates the rate at which an individual responds to a stimulus?

A

reactivity

188
Q

What is the skill-related assesment that evaluates the amount of work performed in a given unit of time?

A

Power is determined using work performed in a certain amount of time, power = work/time

189
Q

What skill-related assessment evaluates how accurately and rapidly a person can change direction?

A

Agility involves stages of acceleration, stabilization and deceleration. It evaluates an individual’s ability to change direction in a certain amount of time.

190
Q

Where is abdominal circumference measured?

A

at the level of the umbilicus for best results

191
Q

Where is the waist circuumference taken?

A

the smallest portion of the waist.

192
Q

Where is the circumference of the upper thigh measured?

A

at the largest part, or just below the gluteal fold.

193
Q

In what specific location should the arm be measured?

A

The measurement of the arm should be taken between the acromion (lateral portion of the collarbone) and the olecranon process (elbow) with the arm relaxed for best results.

194
Q

4 things to remember when taking circumference measurements?

A

the tape measure should be non-elastic, you should gently touch the tape to the skin, take duplicate measurements but choose one or the other, rotate through measurement sites to allow the skin to regain normal quality

195
Q

What is the approximate standard deviation of an individual’s maximum heart rate?

A

the approximate standard deviation for MHR is plus or minus 12 beats per minute, meaning a man of 22 years could have a maximum heart rate that falls between 186-210 bpm.

196
Q

At what times should heart rate be monitored throughout a cardiorespiratory assessment?

A

continuously if possible

197
Q

How often should RPEs be taken throughout a cardiorespiratory assessment?

A

Taken during the last 5 seconds of every minute of a cardiorespiratory assessment.

198
Q

At what point in a maximal aerobic capacity assessment are carbohydrates the primary source of fuel?

A

after the first ventilaroty threshold is reached.

199
Q

What is an open-ended question?

A

Any question that requires an answer other than “yes” or “no” is an open-ended question and keeps the conversation going.

200
Q

The ACE IFT Model has four cardiorespiratory training phases:

A
  • Phase 1: Aerobic-base training
  • Phase 2: Aerobic-efficiency training
  • Phase 3: Anaerobic-endurance training
  • Phase 4: Anaerobic-power training
201
Q

Observational Learning?

A

When a client observes someone close to them doing an activity and they want to be in shape to join them; people who are closest to your clients are likely to impact the likelihood of your client’s success. This is called Observational Learning.

202
Q

Recommended frequency of cardiorespiratory training generally accepted by ACSM for healthy adults?

A

3-5 days per week

203
Q

Recommended frequency of resistance training generally accepted by ACSM for healthy adults?

A

2-3 days per week

204
Q

The ACE IFT Model has four strength training phases:

A

Stability & Mobility
Movement
Load
Performance

205
Q

The four training phases span the full 3-part training continuum; what are the three parts?

A

health, fitness, and performance training

206
Q

What can clients expect from phase 1 in Stability and Mobility training?

A

assessments and training for postural and joint stability and mobility. This stage is also appropriate for initial physiological adaptation to exercise.

207
Q

What can clients expect from phase 2 in Movement training?

A

teaching of fundamental movement patterns based on the 5 primary movements, creating stable mobility and mobile stability, and the development of dynamic balance

208
Q

What can clients expect from phase 3 in Load training?

A

application of external loads to movements through resistance training to meet client goals, training focused on muscular force production during movement patterns rather than isolated muscle training, and maintain phase 2 exercise as dynamic warm-up

209
Q

What can clients expect from phase 4 in Performance training?

A

Velocity of force training (power training), activity/event specific training including plyometrics, speed -agility -quickness -reactivity

210
Q

What are the five primary movements?

A 
Bend & Lift Movements (squatting)
Single Leg Movements (lunging) 
Pushing Movements 
Pulling Movements
Rotational (twisting) Movements

ACE exam (2 decks)

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