From DOCX AI Flashcards
1
Q
What regulates every aspect of aviation?
A
Regulations provided by each state, inspired by ICAO guidelines
In Europe, EASA regulations are divided into basic regulation, airworthiness, aircrew licensing, SERA, air operation, etc.
2
Q
What are the main categories of EASA regulations?
A
- ARO: General requirements for national agencies
- ORO: Non-flight procedures for operators
- CAT: Commercial air transport operations
- SPA: Operations requiring special authorization
- NCC: Non-commercial operations with complex aircraft
- NCO: Non-commercial operations with other than complex aircraft
- SPO: Special operations
Operators must also respect Annex 5 when working with PBN, MNPS, RVSM, LVO, dangerous goods, etc.
3
Q
What is the requirement for an applicant for multi-pilot TR?
A
At least 100 hours as PIC, hold MEP/IR, MCC certificate, and successful ATPL theory
PIC: Pilot in Command; MEP: Multi-Engine Piston; IR: Instrument Rating; MCC: Multi-Crew Cooperation.
4
Q
What is the minimum flight time required for an ATP Licence applicant?
A
500 hours as PICUS or 250 hours as PIC
PICUS: Pilot In Command Under Supervision.
5
Q
What is the validity period for MEP, IR, and TR ratings?
A
12 months
SEP is valid for 24 months and NVFR rating is always valid.
6
Q
What must a pilot do to maintain their IR privileges?
A
Revalidate the IR within 3 months before expiry
Failure to pass the proficiency check before expiry means IR privileges cannot be exercised.
7
Q
What does Flight Time refer to?
A
Total time from when the aircraft starts to move until it stops
Limited to 100 hours in 28 days, 900 hours in a calendar year, and 1000 hours in 12 consecutive months.
8
Q
What is the definition of Flight Duty Period?
A
Time between the first report and the stop of the last flight
Limited to between 9 and 13 hours, extendable by 1 hour twice a week.
9
Q
What are the two types of meteorological conditions defined in SERA?
A
- Visual Meteorological Rules (VMC)
- Instrument Meteorological Rules (IMC)
Some rules are independent from meteorological conditions.
10
Q
VMC requires what visibility and distance from clouds above FL100?
A
8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontally clear of clouds, 1000’ vertically
Below FL100 requires 5 km visibility.
11
Q
What is the right of way rule when two aircraft are converging?
A
The aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way
In head-on approaches, each shall alter course to the right.
12
Q
What types of lights must aircraft be equipped with?
A
- Anti-collision lights
- Navigation lights
Navigation lights include a left red, right green, and tail white light.
13
Q
What are the mandatory uses of anti-collision lights?
A
To attract attention to the aircraft
Beacons and strobes are used in specific scenarios.
14
Q
What is the definition of Duty Period?
A
Time from when a crew member reports for duty until free of all duties
Limited to 60 hours in 7 days, 110 hours in 14 days, and 190 hours in 28 days.
15
Q
Fill in the blank: A CPL/ATPL pilot cannot act as single pilot in air transport if he is aged ______.
A
60 or more
16
Q
True or False: A pilot can operate as PIC at night without having performed a take-off and landing at night.
A
False
17
Q
What is the minimum rest period required between duty periods?
A
At least 12 hours
It should provide at least 8 hours of sleep time.
18
Q
What is the purpose of anti-collision lights on an aircraft?
A
To attract attention to the aircraft
Beacons are red lights on top/bottom of the aircraft and are used to indicate engine running on the ground. Strobes are white lights used to signal entering the runway.
19
Q
What are the two areas of an aerodrome?
A
Landside and airside
The airside is further divided into movement areas and maneuvering areas.
20
Q
What colors are runway markings and taxiway markings?
A
Runway markings are white; taxiway markings are yellow.
21
Q
What does the aiming point marking indicate?
A
The point to aim for landing and the origin for the PAPI and ILS glide path.
22
Q
What are the two types of holding point markings?
A
Main holding position and secondary holding position.
23
Q
What is the purpose of approach lights in aerodrome lighting?
A
To assist in the approach and landing of aircraft.
24
Q
What does a steady green light signal to an aircraft in flight?
A
Cleared to land.
25
What does a red flash light signal to an aircraft on the ground?
Taxi clear of landing area.
26
What is the separation standard below FL290?
1000 feet.
27
What is QNH?
Barometric pressure at the station corrected with ISA lapse rate to indicate the ISA barometric pressure at medium sea level.
28
What is the transition altitude?
The point where a switch to QNE is required, set by definition not lower than 3000 feet.
29
What is RVSM?
Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum, allowing 1000 feet separation at or above FL290 and below FL410.
30
What is the standard longitudinal separation based on time for same track at the same level?
15 minutes.
31
What is the standard radar separation distance?
5 nautical miles.
32
What is the maximum allowable TAS difference for reducing longitudinal separation to 5 minutes?
20 knots.
33
What is a flight plan required for?
Any route crossing controlled airspace, IFR flight within advisory airspace, or when required by authority.
34
What must be reported if the average TAS differs more than 5% from the planned one?
Advise the appropriate ATCU.
35
What does squawking 7600 indicate?
Communications failure.
36
Fill in the blank: The aerodrome is divided into _______ and _______.
Landside, airside.
37
True or False: The holding point marking for ILS is used for main holding positions only.
False.
38
What category is assigned to an aircraft with MTOW ≥ 136000 kg?
Heavy.
39
What is the standard separation for wake turbulence between a light and heavy aircraft on the same runway?
3 minutes for light following heavy arrival.
40
What are the three types of barometric pressure references?
* QNH
* QFE
* QNE
41
What is the significance of the transition layer?
A buffer zone where aircraft change pressure reference.
42
What does a steady red light signal to an aircraft in flight?
Give way and circle.
43
What should a pilot do if the flight route is no longer valid?
Join the flight route no later than the next significant point and squawk 7600.
44
How long should a pilot continue according to the latest clearance when on a route under radar control?
7 minutes.
45
What is the continuation time for an aircraft outside radar control after missing to report over a compulsory reporting point?
20 minutes.
46
What should a pilot do upon arriving at the destination aerodrome?
Hold over the navigation aid serving the airport and then commence the descent as close as possible to the Expected Approach Time.
47
Under what conditions is Visual Flight Rules (VFR) permitted?
VFR is only permitted when VMC exist and below FL285.
48
What are the visibility and ceiling requirements for takeoff and landing under VFR?
Ceiling less than 1500’ and visibility more than 5 km.
49
Is VFR clearance required outside control areas for flights above FL200?
Yes.
50
What is the minimum altitude for VFR flight over congested areas?
Less than 1000’ over the highest obstacle within a radius of 600m.
51
What is the obstacle clearance requirement for VFR flight below 500’?
Height can be less than 500’ from the highest obstacle within 150m from the aircraft.
52
What is the minimum ceiling for night VFR?
Shall not be less than 1500’ in any phase of flight.
53
What is Special VFR?
A clearance for VFR traffic in CTR, allowing departure with visibility not less than 3000m and landing with ground visibility not less than 1500m.
54
What is simulated IMC?
A VFR flight following VFR rules with reduced forward visibility, requiring a safety pilot.
55
What equipment must an aircraft following IFR be equipped with?
Instruments and navigation equipment appropriate to the route.
56
What is the obstacle clearance requirement for IFR flights?
1000’ above the highest obstacle within a radius of 5nm.
57
What is the climb gradient requirement for mountainous areas under IFR?
2000’ obstacle clearance.
58
What must a pilot do to cancel their IFR flight plan?
Communicate on the radio with the words 'cancelling my IFR flight.'
59
What is the purpose of instrument procedures?
To provide track guidance and terrain avoidance for all weather operations.
60
What is a Standard Instrument Departure (SID)?
An instrument procedure providing complete guidance up to the first waypoint.
61
What is the difference between a straight-in and a turning departure?
A straight-in departure does not deviate more than 15° from the runway axis, while a turning departure does.
62
What is the minimum safe altitude (MSA)?
The lowest safe altitude for a defined sector from a navigation facility to a range of 25NM.
63
What defines a precision approach?
Provides accurate track guidance and elevation information.
64
What are the categories of aircraft based on approach speed for precision approaches?
* A (0-91knt) * B (91-120knt) * C (121-140knt) * D (141-165knt) * E (166-210knt)
65
What is the maximum descent gradient in the final approach?
Should not exceed 5.2%, or 3° around 300’/NM.
66
What is the difference between precision and non-precision approaches?
Precision approaches provide elevation indication; non-precision approaches do not.
67
What is a circling approach?
The visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach to land on a runway not located for a straight-in approach.
68
What is the standard timing for holding legs below 14000’?
1 minute.
69
What is the maximum bank angle for holding turns?
25°.
70
What are the speed limitations for holding patterns for Cat A aircraft?
* FL340: 0.83 Mach
71
What is the maximum speed for Cat A aircraft at altitudes above FL340?
0.83 Mach
72
What is the turbulence entry speed for Cat A aircraft?
The smaller between 280 knt or 0.8 Mach
73
What are the three published methods a pilot can use to enter a holding pattern?
1. Standard method 2. Offset method 3. Direct entry method
74
What must a pilot ascertain before commencing a flight?
Adequacy of ground/water facilities, communication facilities, and navigation aids
75
What is the planning requirement for IFR flights regarding weather?
Study of current weather reports and forecasts, planning an alternative course of action
76
What factors are determined during flight planning?
Timings, fuel consumption, Top of Climb, Top of Descent, Wind Correction Angles
77
What rules must VFR flights adhere to for altitude planning?
Semi-circular rules for cruise altitudes
78
What does MEA stand for in IFR route planning?
Minimum Enroute Altitude
79
What is the purpose of MOCA?
Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude along a route
80
What is MAA in the context of IFR flight planning?
Maximum Authorized Altitude
81
Define MORA.
Minimum Off-Route Altitude providing obstacle clearance within 10nm
82
What is MHA?
Minimum Holding Altitude for obstacle clearance and radio coverage
83
What does MSA stand for?
Minimum Safe Altitude
84
Under what conditions can a flight be conducted below MSA?
1. Under radar vectors 2. On a promulgated route 3. In visual contact with the ground
85
What is required for IFR flights regarding alternate aerodromes?
Specify at least one weather-permissible destination alternate aerodrome
86
When are VFR flights not required to have an alternate?
When VMC are forecasted on the route and at destination at ETA
87
What is the fuel requirement for VFR flights during the day?
To fly the intended route and thereafter for 10 min
88
What are the minimum descent height (MDH) requirements for NPA operations?
1. OCH for category of aircraft 2. System minimum specified 3. Minimum MDH from AFM
89
What is the decision height (DH) for a non-precision approach?
Not lower than the highest of specified criteria
90
What is the requirement for documents onboard for a pilot?
Valid licence, medical, personal ID, flight time record
91
What instruments are required for VFR flights?
1. Magnetic heading 2. Time 3. Pressure altitude 4. Indicated airspeed 5. Mach number
92
What additional instruments are required for night VFR flights?
1. Turn and slip 2. Attitude 3. Vertical speed 4. Stabilised heading
93
What must the pilot ensure regarding supplemental oxygen?
Used continuously when lack of oxygen may impair faculties
94
What is the take-off alternate requirement for IFR flights?
Must have weather reports indicating conditions at or above operating minima
95
What is the maximum time for a take-off alternate to be located from departure aerodrome?
Within one hour flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruise speed for two-engine aircraft
96
For IFR flights, under what conditions is a destination alternate not required?
1. Isolated aerodrome 2. Flight duration does not exceed 6 hours 3. Two usable runways at destination
97
What is the maximum planned duration of a flight from take-off to landing for it to be considered an isolated aerodrome?
6 hours
98
What weather conditions must be met for an aerodrome to be classified as an isolated aerodrome?
Ceiling at least 2000 feet or circling height + 500 feet, and visibility at least 5 km
99
What is required for runways to be considered separate at the same aerodrome?
Separate landing surfaces with distinct approach procedures
100
When must two destination alternate aerodromes be selected?
When weather conditions are below planning minima or no meteorological information is available
101
What are the met conditions for an alternate aerodrome when the 3% contingency procedure is applied?
Approach minima for CAT II-III, CAT I, NPA, and Circling
102
True or False: An IFR flight can continue to the destination if there are no operating minima at either the destination or the alternate.
False
103
How are landing minima determined?
Based on the speed at threshold and must be higher than system minima and CAA published minima
104
What does the take-off minimum require?
RVR/visibility according to the number of engines and performance
105
What is the RVR/Vis requirement for multi-engine aircraft able to clear obstacles during take-off?
500m
106
Fill in the blank: Low Visibility Operations occur when RVR/Vis is lower than ______.
400m
107
What is the minimum RVR for take-off with high intensity runway lighting at night?
300m
108
What lighting elements must be available for a CAT III operation?
Runway protection and facilities equivalent to CAT III landing operations
109
What visual references are required to continue an approach below DH/MDH?
Elements of the approach light system, threshold, threshold identification lights, visual glide slope indicator, touchdown zone, runway edge lights
110
What is the fuel policy an operator must establish for flight planning?
Based on aircraft manufacturer’s data, anticipated masses, weather conditions, and expected procedures
111
What does the contingency fuel calculation depend on?
Higher of 5% of planned trip fuel or other specified conditions
112
How is final reserve fuel defined for turbine engine aircraft?
Fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500' above aerodrome elevation
113
What is the purpose of the reduced contingency fuel (RCF) procedure?
To plan to a destination using a decision point along the route
114
What does PSR stand for in flight planning?
Point of Safe Return
115
What does PET stand for in flight planning?
Point of Equal Time
116
What is performance planning related to?
Calculation of weights and distances during take-off and landing
117
Class A aircraft includes which types?
* Multi-engine turboprop over 5700kg
* Multi-engine jets
118
What is the maximum landing distance for Class A aircraft?
Jet LD < 0.6 LDA
119
What is the ROC requirement for enroute for Class A aircraft?
ROC > 300ft/min
120
Fill in the blank: The minimum additional fuel should permit the aeroplane to descend and proceed to an adequate alternate in the event of ______.
engine failure or loss of pressurization
121
What is the ROC(N-1 eng.) requirement at 1500’ AAL?
>0.75%
## Footnote
AAL stands for Above Aerodrome Level, and ROC refers to Rate of Climb.
122
What is the maximum take-off distance (TOD) for Class A?
Greatest of:
* 115% TOD(N-eng)
* TOD(N-1 eng)
* TOD(N-1 eng, 15 feet)
123
What is the maximum landing distance (LD) for jet aircraft?
<0.6 LDA
## Footnote
LDA stands for Landing Distance Available.
124
What is the required slope for landing distance calculations?
>±2%
125
What is the ROC requirement for missed approach?
ROC(N-1 eng.)>2.5%
126
What are the obstacle clearance requirements during take-off for multi-engine aircraft?
35’ for Class A and 50’ for Class B along a horizontal distance of:
* 90m + 0.125D
* 60m + b/2 + 0.125D (for wingspan < 60 m)
127
What documentation is required for commercial operations?
Documentation for NCO plus:
* Air operator certificate
* OM for flight crew duty
* OFP
* NOTAM
* Meteorological information
* Mass and balance
* Special documentation for passenger and cargo
128
What is included in the Operation Manual?
Consists of 4 parts:
* Part A: Organization and quality of the system, crew composition limitation and qualification, general operating procedures
* Part B: Information related to the aircraft; limitations, normal procedures, emergencies, performance, flight planning, MEL
* Part C: Route and aerodrome instruction and information
* Part D: Training details about method and requirement
129
What additional equipment is required for VFR Commercial Operations?
All equipment for day and night VFR plus an Outside Air Temperature indicator.
130
What is the oxygen requirement for pressurized airplanes above 10,000 ft?
Must have supplemental oxygen equipment capable of storing and dispensing oxygen supplies as per specific tables.
131
What may occur following a transponder failure?
May lead to:
* Incorrect assumption about aircraft level
* Wrong ATC clearance
* Fake surveillance track
* False alerts
* Loss of communication
* Incomplete situational awareness
* Airspace infringement
* Loss of separation
* CFIT risk
* Inefficient TCAS operation
132
What are mandatory reports in case of air traffic incidents?
Mandatory reports include:
* Near collision
* Faulty ATS procedures
* ACAS resolution advisory
* Bird hazards and strikes
* Dangerous goods incidents
* Unlawful interference
* Potential hazardous conditions
133
What is the maximum RVR?
2000m
134
What does VS0 represent?
Stall speed in landing configuration.
135
What does VS1g represent?
Stall speed in clean configuration at 1g.
136
What is the definition of CAT?
Commercial Air Transport operations.
137
What does NCC stand for?
Non Commercial with Complex aircraft operations.
138
Fill in the blank: TR stands for _______.
Type ratings required for each type of multi crew A/C
139
What is the definition of PIC?
The pilot responsible for the safety and compliance to flight rules during flight time.
140
What is the definition of SPIC?
Student Pilot in Command.
141
What is the definition of flight time?
Total time during which the aircraft moves under its own power (e.g., block to block).
142
What is the definition of service ceiling?
Ceiling reached with vertical speed not less than 100ft/min.
143
What does the acronym PBN stand for?
Performance Based Navigation.
144
What is the definition of certified operating ceiling?
Certified ceiling for normal operation for pressurized aircraft.
