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Questions Mixed FRCR > FRCR 2A > Flashcards

FRCR 2A Flashcards

1
Q

Solid intrarenal tumour of infancy

A

Mesoblastic nephroma

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2
Q

Which single chest x-ray view would you advise to maximise the chances of confirming foreign body inhalation in the paediatric Group?

A

Expiratory Scan

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3
Q

Regarding germinal matrix haemorrhage

Intraventricular with no dilation

A

Grade 2

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4
Q

GMH: intraventricular haemorrhage with dilation

A

Gade 3

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5
Q

GMH: intraparenchymal haemorrhage

A

Grade 4

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6
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of secondary craniodysostosis?

  1. Crouzon’s syndrome
  2. Hypothyroidism
  3. previous shunt procedure
  4. Ricketts
  5. thalassaemia
A

Hypothyroidism

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7
Q

18 month old boy presents with fever and watery diarrhoea. Hypertension. Palpable mass superior to left kidney containing hypoechoic area ultrasound and low density areas on CT.

  1. Adrenocortical carcinoma
  2. adrenal haemorrhage
  3. neuroblastoma
  4. TB
  5. Wilm’s
A

Neuroblastoma

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8
Q

Regarding enteric duplication cyst, which one is true?

  1. most commonly located in duodenum
  2. Majority communicate with lumen
  3. Usually calcification in the wall
  4. Located on the anti mesenteric side
  5. Capsule contains two Wall
A
  1. Capsule contains two Wall

Most commonly located in TI.
Located on the mesenteric side
No communication
No calcification

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9
Q

What is the commonest presenting feature of a Meckel’s diverticulum?

Obstruction
Volvulus
Bleeding
Diverticulitis
Perforation
A

Bleeding

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10
Q

Which of the following features not a typical finding of normal thymus on CXR

Wavy inferior margin
Change in inspiration and expiration
No mass effect
convex lateral borders
Homogenous density
A

Wavy inferior margin

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11
Q

Which of the following is not a risk factor for neonatal renal vein thrombosis?

Birth trauma
Dehydration
Diabetic mother
Right adrenal haemorrhage
Sepsis
A

Right adrenal haemorrhage

Left adrenal haemorrhage is the cause of renal vein thrombosis. The left adrenal vein drains to the left renal vein. The right adrenal drains directly into IVC

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12
Q

Which of the following favours a diagnosis of chronic periventricular leucomalacia over porencephaly?

  • anechoic cyst
  • persistence of cysts on follow-up
    Separated cyst
    Symmetrical distribution
    Watershed territory
A

Symmetrical distribution

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13
Q

Neonate with a history of IUGR has bilateral deformity of the knees. X-ray shows dense femoral diaphysis with alternating Lucent/ dense Lines through the metaphysics. No periosteal reaction

Achondroplasia
Ricketts
Rubella
Scurvy
Syphilis
A

Rubella

Celery stalk

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14
Q

What future would make the diagnosis of SUFE more likely than Perthes?

Bilateral changes
Fragmented epiphyses
Reduced epiphysis height
Subchondral fissure
Widened growth plates
A

Reduced epiphysis height

Early signs of SUFE:
Widened growth plates and reduced epiphysis height.

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15
Q

Which of the following should be avoided prior to Pertechnetate studies for Meckel’s diagnosis.

Cimetidine
Glucagon
Pentagastrin
Perchlorate
Pertechnetate
A

Perchlorate

This is usually given after this study to protect the thyroid gland from accumulation of tracer. However if this is given prior to scanning it will block tracer uptake by gastric mucosa

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16
Q

Which is abnormal in the context of traumatic injury in a 10 year old child?

Anterior wedging of C3 vertebral body.
Anterior list thesis in flexion at C2/3
Pre vertebral soft tissue thickness of 15 mm at C6
Predental space of 6 mm in flexion
Predental space of 3mm in neutral
A

Predental space of 6 mm in flexion

The maximum space is 2.5- 3 mm in adults and 5 mm in children. Any widening suggests injury to the alar ligamentous complex in the context of trauma.

Other causes of widening: down syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, neurofibromatosis and OI.

Anterior wedging C3 and pseudosubluxation at C2/3 and C3/4 are within normal limits in children

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17
Q

15 year old female whose father had progressive renal failure presents the anaemia, polyuria and haematuria. Ultrasound kidneys are small and smooth. Which associated finding is most likely?

Pancreatic cysts
Posterior fossa haemangioblastoma
Cystocoel
Nerve deafness
Hypertension
A

Nerve deafness

Alports syndrome. Ocular abnormalities can occur including congenital cataracts, Nystagmus, myopia. Hypertension is not feature.

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18
Q 
Bilateral bowing of femoral and tibia. Generalised osteopenia, deficient trabeculation, multiple fractures, Cortical thinning. Diagnosis?
Ricketts
Blounts
OI
Neurofibromatosis
Yaws
A

OI

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19
Q

Test used for detection of accessory spleen

A

Sulfor colloid

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20
Q

Small foci of haemorrhage in spleen , signs of P HTN. T2 dark

Diagnosis?

A

Gamma Gandy Bodies- sideritic nodule

Gradient is the most sensitive sequence

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21
Q

Triad of Felty’s syndrome

A
  1. Splenomegaly
  2. rheumatoid arthritis
  3. neutropenia
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22
Q

abnormal loops of bowel bwn PV and IVC. What type of hernia?

  • Foramen of Winslow
  • Lt paraduodenal
  • Transmesenteric
  • Rt Paraduodenal
  • Intersigmoid
A

Foramen of Winslow

Lt Paraduodenal: defect in the descending colon and lie to the left of D4.

Rt paraduodenal: behind SMA and is associated with malrotation

Trans mesenteric hernia commoner following surgery

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23
Q 
MRI shows fluid tracks extending from the perineum on the right running medial the External anal sphincter throughout its course on entering the anus at 6 o'clock position. How should you report this?
Horseshoe fistula
Extra sphincteric fistula
Trans sphincteric fistula
Supra sphincteric fistula
Inter sphincteric fistula
A

Inter sphincteric fistula-this is the only one that doesn’t pass through the external sphincter (always medial to it).

If a fistula extends around both sides of the anal canal it’s called horseshoe extension.

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24
Q

Which of the following condition it Is not associated with Helicobacter pylori colonisation?

  • Oesophageal carcinoma
  • gastric ulcer
  • gastric carcinoma
  • MALT lymphoma
  • Du ulcer
A

Oesophageal carcinoma

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25
Q

MRI liver: smooth contour, Dark T1/T2. What is the diagnosis?

  • acute hepatitis
  • focal fatty liver
  • haemochromatosis
  • autoimmune liver disease
  • Wilson disease
A

haemochromatosis

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26
Q

A 32-year-old man undergoes an MRI scan for back pain. The MRI scan demonstrates a split cord with a bony bar in the canal.

Which of the following is NOT associated with diastematomyelia?

Spinal cord lipoma
Scoliosis
Tethered cord
Clubfoot
Narrowed interpeduncular distance
A

Narrowed interpeduncular distance

asso with
Meningocoele
Hemivertebrae and scoliosis
Widened interpeduncular distance (as opposed to narrowed distance)
Neurenteric cyst
Talipes equinovarus
Dermoid
Spinal haemangioma
Spinal cord lipoma
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27
Q

What is a typical feature of the joint affected by gout?
Joint space preserved until late in disease
No joint effusion
Periarticular de mineralisation
Erosion with thick sclerotic margin
Chondrocalcinosis in the majority of cases

A

Joint space preserved until late in disease

Effusion is the earliest sign with periarticular swelling and preservation of joint space until late in the disease

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28
Q 
What findings would be typical for haemochromatosis?
Osteosclerosis
Geodes
Chondrocalcinosis
Asymmetrical joint space narrowing
Narrowing of metacarpal head
A

Chondrocalcinosis
Skeletal features include: generalised osteoporosis small subchondral cyst like lesions in the metacarpal heads colour uniform joint space narrowing, Enlargement of metacarpal heads, Osteophyte formation and chondrocalcinosis
Differentials include psoriatic arthritis, OA, RA and gout

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29
Q

What future would be in keeping with a charcot joint?

  • Juxta-articulate is the process
  • loose bodies
  • severe pain
  • blunted shape of metatarsal heads
  • widened joint space
A

Loose bodies

30
Q

Middle aged man presented to ED with right hip pain that started suddenly a few weeks previously and resulted in reduced range of movement. X-ray: osteoporosis of the hip joint and loss of subchondral cortex of the femoral head with preservation of joint space. What’s diagnosis?

Avascular necrosis
Transient osteoporosis
Sinovial chondromatosis
Disuse atrophy
Villonodular synovitis
A

Transient osteoporosis

Loss of subchondral cortex is pathognomonic. No joint space narrowing. No collapse.

31
Q

46-year-old man presented with back pain and was noted to have marked calcification and loss of height of multiple intervertebral discs predominantly in the lumbar spine. Previous radiograph of his knee also shows premature osteoarthritic changes with pronounced chondrocalcinosis. What’s your diagnosis?

Ankylosing spondylitis
Ochronosis
Hyperparathyroidism
Wilsons disease
Reiters syndrome
A

Ochronosis

or alkaptonuria he is an inherited enzyme deficiency resulting in the deposition of black pigment in cartilage. The features described are typical and they may also suffer from renal and cardiac failure.

32
Q

What finding would be most consistent with hibernating myocardium?

75% subendocardial delayed enhancement
Normal myocardial contractility at rest
No myocardial delayed enhancement
Epicardial hyper enhancement
Patchy hyper enhancement of my recording
A

No myocardial delayed enhancement

33
Q

43 year old female presented with fatigue and dyspnoea to her GP who requested chest x-ray. This showed an enlarged heart and pulmonary outflow tract with a small aorta and pulmonary plethora. What is the diagnosis?

VSD
ASD
Aortic regurgitation
Pulmonary stenosis
Epstein Anomaly
A

ASD

Enlarged heart and pulmonary plethora suggests a left-to-right shunt. At this age the only that likely cause is an ASD

34
Q

Six weeks echo post MI : akinetic portion of left ventricular wall and delayed enhancement cardiac MR images shows high signal at 10 minutes in the same area of LV wall. What is the cause?

LV aneurysm
Stunned myocardium
Focal myocarditis
Focal myocardial fibrosis
Hibernating myocardium
A

Focal myocardial fibrosis

35
Q

A 53-year-old man has AP and lateral radiographs of the right ankle after twisting it whilst playing football. There is no fracture seen, however a central, triangular radiolucent area is seen on the lateral projection in the talar dome. It is well defined with a narrow zone of transition and communicates with the joint space.

What is the most likely diagnosis? Select ONE answer only.

Pseudo-cyst of calcaneus
Geode
Intraosseous lipoma
Chondroblastoma
Unicameral bone cyst
A

Geode

This is a subchondral cyst associated with OA which should have communication with the joint space and be present in an older patient.

36
Q

A 15-year-old boy who plays rugby for his local club injures his leg following a particularly hard tackle. He makes a good recovery initially but three months later is still experiencing symptoms at the site of bruising and he undergoes an x-ray. The x-ray points to a diagnosis of myositis ossificans which is subsequently confirmed with CT.

Which of the following patterns of calcification would be most specific for myositis ossificans?

  1. Poorly defined mass with marginal calcification
  2. Well-defined mass with central calcification
  3. Poorly defined mass with diffuse calcification
  4. Poorly defined mass with central calcification
  5. Well-defined mass with marginal calcification
A

Well-defined mass with marginal calcification

37
Q

A 53-year-old man collides with one of the hurdles during his son’s sports day. Two months later he is still noticing a lump around the distal femur and undergoes an x-ray. There is a well defined partly calcified soft tissue mass underlying the tender area. There is cortical erosion of the underlying bone.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Osteosarcoma
Tumoral calcinosis
Gout
Myositis ossificans
Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
A

Malignant fibrous histiocytoma

Cortical erosion of the underlying bone is an important diagnostic feature. On MRI it returns high signal on both T1 and T2 weighted sequences.

38
Q

Based on age alone, what’s the most likely primary Bone tumour in 45 year old male?

Osteosarcoma
Chondrosarcoma
Giant cell tumour
Aneurysmal bone cyst
Osteoid osteoma
A

Chondrosarcoma

39
Q

Which areas is most likely to be involved in spinal cord astrocytoma?

Brainstem
Cervical spine
Thoracic spine
Lumbar spine
Sacrum
A

Thoracic spine

Eccentric location
Long segments

40
Q 
38-year-old man presented with a lump on the dorsal aspect of his hand that moved with the tendon on flexion and extension of his fingers. X-ray and MRI performed. Expected?
Dense calcified mass 
Low signal on T2
High signal on T1
No internal septation 
Periosteal bone formation
A

Periosteal bone formation

This is ganglion attached to tendon
Low T1, high T2, internal septation and periosteal new bone formation

41
Q

What distribution of involvement is typical in haemochromatosis?

Interphalangeal joint of thumb 
PIP of all fingers
DIP middle and ring
MCP index and middle finger
MCP ring and little fingers
A

MCP index and middle finger

42
Q 
Patient is in the wheelchair and is complaining of sore knee. X-ray shows Long gracile femur and tibia indicating under tabulation. What is the most likely cause?
Dwarfism
Gauchers disease
cerebral palsy
Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
A

cerebral palsy

43
Q

What radiographic features are consistent with hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy?

Metaphyseal lamellar periosteal reaction
Irregular epiphyseal periosteal proliferation
Asymmetrical feathery periosteal reaction
Cortical thickening and coarsening
Symmetrical solid periosteal and new bone formation

A

Metaphyseal lamellar periosteal reaction

Symmetrical solid periosteal and new bone formation- seen in hypervit A

44
Q

Which of the following findings considered pathognomonic for nail patella syndrome?

Patellar hypoplasia
Lateral elbow hypoplasia
Posterior iliac horns
calcanea valgus feet
Madelung deformity
A

Posterior iliac horns

45
Q

Which of these features is atypical of rheumatoid arthritis?

Symmetrical disease
Synovitis on ultrasound but no erosions radiologically
Erosions in radioulnar joint andradiocarpal joint preceding MCP erosion
Bony ankylosis of the carpal bones
Peri articular osteoporosis

A

Bony ankylosis of the carpal bones

46
Q

25 man presented with a painful knee. An x-ray shows Lucent area with wide zone of transition in the distal femoral metaphysis. MRI shows fluid fluid levels. Diagnosis?

Aneurysmal bone cyst
GCT
Osteosarcoma
Chondroblastoma
Osteoblastoma
A

Osteosarcoma

47
Q

35-year-old man sprained ankle and attended ED. X-ray shows no fracture. the lateral view shows well defined radiolucent lesion with a faint sclerotic margin in the mid calcaneus. Some central classification within the lesion. Diagnosis?

Simple bone cyst
Normal variant
Enchondroma
Intraosseous lipoma
Bone infarcts
A

Intraosseous lipoma

Central dystrophic calcification in 62% of cases is considered to to be pathognomonic.

Simple bone cyst does not contain Central classification.

48
Q

30-year-old runner presented with history of pain in legs on Running. X-rays unremarkable. Isotope bone scan shows a subtle longitudinal linear uptake on the delayed bone can images with normal angiogram and blood pool images. What is the diagnosis?

Stress fracture
Shinsplints
Osteoid osteoma
Osteomyelitis
Hypertrophy osteoarthropathy
A

Shinsplints

In stress fracture angiogram and blood pool images are abnormal with hyperperfusion and hyperaemia. On delayed images focal fusiform uptake is seen stress fracture.

49
Q

39-year-old man presents with gradually enlarging swelling in the upper lateral aspect of right calf. Ultrasound and MRI shows well-defined, thinly septated cystic lesion intimately related to proximal tibiofibular joint and extending into the adjacent soft tissue. It measures approximately 4 cm in maximum diameter. No enhancement of soft tissue component postinjection Gd. What is the diagnosis?

Para meniscal cyst
Bursitis
Focal Tenosynovitis
Ganglion cyst
Chronic seroma
A

Ganglion cyst

This is a ganglion cyst adjacent to tibiofibular joint causing comment peroneal nerve palsy.

50
Q

Middle aged man with no significant medical history undergoes Xray of pelvis following a fall. Multiple longitudinally orientated 2 - 10 mm roundup density similar to cortical bone are seen throughout the cancellous bone in a diffuse symmetrical pattern concentrated around the acetabulum. No fractures. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Osteopathia striata
Osteopetrosis
Bony metastasis
Melorrrhoestosis
Osteopoikilosis
A

Osteopoikilosis

This is causing multiple bone islands which are asymptomatic and usually have no clinical significance.

They represent deposits of normal cortical bone within cancellous bone.

Osteopathic striata- this is similar but it consists of linear longitudinal or sunburst striation rather than rounded densities.

Osteopetrosis causes generalised increase in bone density

51
Q

30 year old man undergoes shoulder MRI for chronic anterior pain. No history of trauma. Sag images showed absent anterior Labrum and thickend middle glenohumeral ligaments. Diagnosis?

Anterior labral tear
Bankart lesion
SLAP lesion
GH tendinitis
Normal variant
A

Normal variant

This is Buford complex- absent anterior Labrum with thickened cord liked middle GH ligament.

52
Q

List the differential diagnosis for lytic expansile metastatic deposits (4)

A

Renal
Thyroid
Melanoma
Pheochromocytoma

53
Q

Volar tilt of lunate seen as a triangular or pie shaped lunate on AP projection of the wrist is most commonly a feature which of the following?

scapholunate dissociation
Perilunate dislocation
Lunate dislocation
VISI
DISI
A

Lunate dislocation

54
Q

Which MRI finding is the most specific indication of an unstable osteochondral fragment?

Joint effusion
Subfragmental bone resorption
3mm cyst deep to the lesion
Underlying linear high signal on T2 WI
Multiple lesions
A

Underlying linear high signal on T2 WI

Other signs include:
Cartilaginous defect on T1 weighted images.
Hi signal in articular cartilage and a cystic lesion in the bed (>5mm)

55
Q 
Gastroduodenal artery has its origin from which vessel?
SMA
Common Hepatic Artery
Left gastric artery
coeliac axis
Aorta
A

Common Hepatic Artery

56
Q

CT shows multiple irregular calcified low-density lesions in the liver suggestive of metastasis. What’s the most likely primary lesion?

IDC Breast
Mucinous adenocarcinoma of GI track
Osteosarcoma
Non small cell lung cancer
Carcinoid
A

Mucinous adenocarcinoma of GI track

Is most commonly seen with mucinous carcinoma of gastrointestinal tract.

57
Q

A 50-year-old woman has an USS thyroid which shows a mixed cystic and solid region in the left lobe with low reflectivity overall. There are associated malignant looking lymph nodes in the left cervical chain. What is the most likely diagnosis

Papillary thyroid cancer
Anaplastic thyroid cancer
De-Quervain thyroiditis
Hashimoto thyroiditis
Lymphoma
A

Papillary thyroid cancer

58
Q

A 48-year-old man undergoes a CT scan for follow up at 12 months post resection of an adrenal malignancy. His past surgical history also includes resection of a parathyroid tumour. The CT shows a solitary pancreatic mass with significant enhancement on the arterial phase. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Adenocarcinoma	
Choledochal cyst	
Glucagonoma	
VIPoma	
Adrenal metastasis
A

Glucagonoma

4 Ds:
Diabetes, 
Deep vein thrombosis, 
Depression and 
Dermatitis although this is relatively rare.

necrolytic erythema migrans which is an intensely itchy maculopapular rash.

Although less common than insulinomas and gastrinomas, glucagonomas are associated with MEN as well.

VIPomas cause a watery diarrhoea and hypokalaemia termed Verner-Morrison syndrome. They are NOT associated with MEN.

59
Q

A 23-year-old man suffers an injury to the knee whilst playing basketball. Plain radiographs demonstrate a small flake of bone adjacent to the fibular head.

What is the most likely underlying ligamentous injury?

Posterior Cruciate Ligament Injury
Lateral meniscus tear
Anterior Cruciate Ligament Injury
Posterolateral Corner injury
Medial collateral ligament tear
A

Posterior Cruciate Ligament Injury

The ‘arcuate sign’ is an avulsion of the proximal fibula due to the insertion of the arcuate ligament. 90% of these are associated with a PCL injury.

60
Q

A 55-year-old lady with a worsening headache has an MRI scan which shows enlargement of optic nerve. On the post-contrast sequences there is linear peripheral enhancement with central non-enhancement. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orbital pseudotumour	
Sarcoidosis	
Optic neuritis	
Meningioma	
Orbital lymphoma
A

Meningioma

The tram-track sign refers to enhancement of the optic nerve sheath post-contrast.

Optic neuritis can sometimes be seen as high T2 signal within the optic nerve as opposed to post-contrast enhancement.

Glioma: causes kinking or buckling of the optic nerve which a meningioma does not.

61
Q

A 76-year-old gentleman known to have type 2 diabetes and receiving haemodialysis for renal failure attends his GP surgery. He is a retired manual labourer and is complaining of back pain. His GP believes his back pain to be degenerative in nature but none the less requests a lumbar spine x-ray anyway. This shows end-plate sclerosis but also bilateral calcification projected over the renal outline. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Secondary Hyperparathyroidism	
Sclerosing encapsulating peritonitis	
Primary Hyperparathyroidism	
Renal papillary necrosis	
Medullary sponge kidney
A

Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

This patient has renal osteodystrophy as evidenced by his history of dialysis x-ray findings. Secondary hyperparathyroidism goes hand in hand with renal osteodystrophy and medullary nephrocalcinosis is a finding in hyperparathyroidism.

62
Q

Contrasts in the Midcarpal compartment can be explained by which of the following structures?

Triangular fibrocartilage
Lunotriquetral ligament
Dorsal distal radioulnar ligament
Flexor retinaculum
Radio scapha lunate ligament
A

Lunotriquetral ligament

63
Q 
BM oedema in vertebra (low T1, Bright T2), is seen in all but which of the following?
Degenerative disc disease
Multiple myeloma
Osteoporotic collapse
Spondylolitis
AS
A

Multiple myeloma

64
Q 
Which of the following fractures is most likely to Indicate a significant injury to the underlying intrathoracic structures?
Glenoid
Scapula blade
Clavicle
First rib
Sternum
A

First rib

65
Q

All of the following are associations of chairi II malformations except….

Dysgenesis of corpus callous
Klippel Feil syndrome
Syringomyelia
Meningomyelocele
Tectal beaking
A

Klippel Feil syndrome

66
Q

All of the following features of contrast induced nephropathy except….

Alternative major insults to kidneys pulled out
Increase in serum Cr of 0.5 mg/dL
Rise in serum Cr level by more than 50% of baseline
Increase in Cr 48 to 72 hours after administration contrast
Raised Cr persists for 2 to 5 days

A

Rise in serum Cr level by more than 50% of baseline

Diagnostic criteria include exposure to contrast agent, increase in serum level of Cr 0.5 mg/dL or 25% greater than baseline, increase in level a Caring 1472 hours after administration persisting for 2 to 5 days

67
Q

Central mass with a homogenous Signal intensity on MRI in the fourth ventricle in a 4yr child. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Astrocytoma
Medulloblastoma
Ependymoma
Pontine glioma
Tectal plate glioma
A

Medulloblastoma

Most common infratentorial brain tumour. Presents as a midline non-calcified solid mass obstructing the fourth ventricle.

It typically arises from the roof of the fourth ventricle and is midline in location in 75 to 90% of cases.

It is hyperdense relative to brain on CT shows restricted diffusion on DWI.

68
Q

36-year-old woman with small cystic lesion in the liver had a CT KUB for suspected stone. CT shows speckled calcification in medulla of both kidneys. Review of an old IVU showed striated nephrogram and filling defect in the proximal right ureter. What’s the most likely diagnosis?

HyperPTH
Medullary sponge kidney
Medullary cystic disease
Acquired renal cystic disease
PCKD
A

Medullary sponge kidney

This involves dysplastic dilatation of medullary and papillary collecting ducts. It is associated with Ehlers Danlos syndrome, Parathyroid adenoma, Caroli’s disease.
Bunch of flower appearance and dense striated nephrogram

69
Q

46-year-old woman with a constant headache has a CT which shows suprasellar solid cystic lesion with some calcification. MRI shows high signal in both T1 and T2. Marginal enhancement of the peripheral solid rim portion of the lesion is also noted. Diagnosis?

Craniopharyngioma
Pituitary adenoma
Pineoblastoma
Meningioma
Dermoid cyst
A

Craniopharyngioma

70
Q

25 yr old man progressive pain in knee. X ray: OA with increased soft tissue swelling and density. Tomorrow: diffuse low signal on T2 with large joint effusion. Diagnosis?

Amyloid
Haemophilia
PVNS
Primary Sinovial osteochondromatosis
Rapidly destructive articular disease
A

Haemophilia

Haemorrthrosis- joint effusion
] synovial inflammation and hyperaemia- osteoporosis and epiphyseal overgrowth.
Subchondral erosion
Joint space narrowing
Osteophytosis
Widening of intercondylar notch, Flattening of condylar surface and squaring patella are very characteristics of chronic haemarthrosis of the knee.

71
Q

Regarding malignant thyroid nodules which of the following statement is true?

Punctate calcification is feature of papillary carcinoma
Anaplastic carcinoma is associated with MEN syndrome
Echogenic foci in medullary carcinoma are due to calcitonin deposit.
Characteristic lymphadenopathy in medullary carcinoma is hypoechoic to muscle
Follicular carcinoma can be differentiated from follicular adenoma on ultrasound

A

Punctate calcification is feature of papillary carcinoma

Microcalcifications appears as punctate hyper echoic foci without shadowing.

Coarse Ca is seen in medullary type.

72
Q 
All of the following causes BG Ca except...
PseudohypoPTH
Lead poisoning
Aging
HypoTSH
Wilson's disease
A

Wilson’s disease

Questions Mixed FRCR (1 decks)

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