Fracture Management 101 Lecture Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two types of bone

A

Cortical: hard bit that makes up the outer cortex of bones, in direct contact with the periosteum
Cancellous: spongy woven in the middle + metaphyseal areas

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2
Q

What is the microscopic structure of cortical bone

A

Have closely packed osteons which contain:
- Central canal called the haversion canal: contains blood vessels, nerves and lymphatic vessels
- These vessels and nerves branch off at right angles through a perforating canal/Volkmann’s canals to extend to the periosteum and endosteum
- Surrounded by concentric rings (lamellae) of matrix and collagen fibers
- Between the lamellae are osteocytes in spaces called lacunae
- Canaliculi connect with canaliculi of other lacunae and the central canal which allows nutrients to be transported to the osteocytes and wastes removed

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3
Q

What is the microscopic structure of cancellous bone

A
  • Also contains osteocytes in lacunae but they aren’t arranged in concentric circles
  • Instead they’re in a lattice network of matrix spikes called trabeculae
  • Trabeculae are covered by the endosteum which can readily remodel them
  • Trabeculae form along lines of stress to direct forces out to the more solid compact bone to provide more strength and balance
  • The spaces in some cancellous bone contains the bone marrow
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4
Q

What is the macroscopic anatomy of long bones

A

Two main regions = diaphysis and epiphysis

  • Each epiphysis meats the diaphysis at the metaphysis and during growth this area contains the epiphyseal plate where long bone growth occurs –> becomes the epiphyseal line in adults
  • Lining the inside of the bone adjacent to the medullary cavity is the endosteum which contains osteogenic cells and osteoblasts
  • On the outside of bones is the double layered periosteum adjacent to cortical bone and covered by an outer fibrous layer of dense irregular connective tissue
  • The periosteum covers the whole outside of bones except where the epiphysis meets other bones –> covered with articular cartilage
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5
Q

What is inside the diaphysis?

A

The medullary cavity filled with yellow bone marrow in adults

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6
Q

What is the epiphysis filled with?

A

Cancellous bone

Some long bones have red bone marrow filling the spaces of the cancellous bone

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7
Q

What is the epiphyseal plate and what does it become in adulthood?

A

The epiphyseal plate occurs at the metaphysis where the diaphysis meets the epiphys

Where long bone elongation occurs during growth until 18/21

Becomes an epiphyseal line in adulthood

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8
Q

What is the endosteum?

A

The lining of the inside of bone adjacent to the medullary cavity

Made of osteogenic cells and osteoblasts to grow, repair and remodel bones. Also has osteoclasts

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9
Q

What is the periosteum?

A

The double layered structure on the outside of bones
- Outer layer is dense irregular fibrous tissue
- Inner cellular layer contains osteoclasts for bone resorption and osteoblasts
- Contains blood vessels, nerves and lymphatic vessels to nourish cortical/compact bone
- Tendons and ligaments attach to bone via the periosteum

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10
Q

What makes up the ends of bones?

A

Articular cartilage (hyaline cartilage)

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11
Q

What is an osteoblast?

A

Forms new bone
- Found in the endosteum and the cellular layer of the periosteum
- No mitotic activity (don’t divide)
- Synthesise and secrete collagen matrix –> matrix calcifies and traps the osteoblast –> becomes a mature osteocyte

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12
Q

What is an osteocyte?

A

The mature primary cell of bone
- Found in lacunae
- Maintain the mineral concentration of the matrix via the secretion of enzymes
- No mitotic activity
- Communicate with other osteocytes and receive nutrients via long cytoplasmic processes that extend through the canaliculu

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13
Q

What are osteogenic cells?

A
  • The only bone cells that divide –> have a high level of mitotic activity
  • They differentiate and develop into osteoblasts
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14
Q

What are osteoclasts?

A

The cells responsible for bone breakdown/bone resorption
- Multinucleated
- Originate from monocytes and macrophages
- Found in the endosteum and the cellular layer of the periosteum

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15
Q

What are the two types of bone healing?

A

Primary bone healing and secondary bone healing

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16
Q

What is primary bone healing

A
  • Fracture is absolutely stable
  • Ends of bones are opposed
  • Bone heals directly
  • Absence of callus
  • Osteoclasts break down the bone and the howship’s lacuna drag osteoblasts behind them to form new bone
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17
Q

What is secondary bone healing?

A
  • Where you have more than 10% of movement within the fracture site
  1. Inflammation: week 1
    - Break, haematoma released outside periosteum, inflammatory cytokines released (IL-1, IL-6, TNFa), recruit pro-inflammatory cells, increase blood supply
  2. Soft callus: weeks 2-3
    - Cartilage framework between bones inside the periosteum
    - You can see this on X-Ray
  3. Hard callus: weeks 4-12
    - Development of cancellous bone across bridge (osteoblastic action)
    - Fracture relatively stable now, can come out of cast
  4. Remodelling: months to years
    - Becomes more linear osteons within in the cancellous bone
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18
Q

What 3 things influence the healing time of fractures

A
  1. Biological factors
    - Blood flow to the area
  2. Patient factors
    - Infection
    - Poor compliance
    - Smoking
    - T2DM (higher non-union rate: microvasc diabetes complications)
    - Malnutrition
  3. Fracture factors
    - Spiral fractures heal quicker because there’s a greater SA
19
Q

What are the general ‘rules’ for fracture healing times

A
  • Spiral fracture upper limb takes ~3 weeks to unite
  • x2 is transverse # pattern
  • x2 if lower limb
20
Q

How do you separate the diaphysis for fracture classification

A

Prox 1/3
Middle 1/3
Distal 1/3

21
Q

What is the ‘rule of 3s’ with fracture classification

A
  1. Either simple or comminuted/complex
    - Can then go further and name the type of fracture (spiral, oblique, transverse)
  2. Either intra-articular (involving the joint) or extra-articular (not involving the joint)
  3. Closed or open

E.g. simple fracture of prox 1/3 of the diaphysis of the tibula, extra-articular, closed

22
Q

How do you describe the position of the bones in relation to the fracture

A

ALWAYS TALK ABOUT THE DISTAL FRAGMENT IN RELATION TO THE PROXIMAL FRAGMENT

  • Displacement: %
    e.g off-ended # is 100% displaced
    e.g. shortened # is 50% displaced
  • Angulation in degrees
    Can say valgus or varus or degrees lateral/medial
  • Length in cm
23
Q

Which direction is valgus and varus for fractures

A

VaLgus: distal piece is pointing Lateral/away from midline

Varus; distal piece is pointing medial/to midline

24
Q

What is a segmental #

A

Multiple fractures in one long bone

25
Q

What is a butterfly fragment

A

Like the wing of a butterfly

26
Q

What is a # dislocation

A

a dislocation with a #
Will need to be reduced

27
Q

How to describe a patient’s X-Ray

A

I have an ‘AP/Lateral radiograph of [age] [gender] done on the [date]… the most obvious finding is…’
- Describe each fracture
- Check the other bones
- Check the joints
- Check the soft tissues

28
Q

Management of a trauma case

A

Management of a trauma case when there’s a fall of >3m = ATLS= Acute Trauma Life Support

Airway (ensure they are breathing or gain access) + C spine
Breathing: RR, Auscultate, SATs, CXR if needed
Circulatory: BP, HR, bleeding, skin colour, ECG, IV access, fluids if needed
Disability: GCS, pupils, BSL, neuro Ex to rule out ICH/decide if CT head, ensure nil base of skull # (battle sign, racoon eyes, bleeding from ear, CSF leak from nose)
E: exposure so take clothes off and check for bruising + swelling + pain EVERYWHERE

Secondary survey
- Chest, abdo, pelvis, limbs
- Log Roll

If open wound –> irrigate wound + empirical ABx + tetanus shot + TAKE PHOTO

29
Q

Important Ortho Hx Points

A
  • Mechanism is important: can point you toward other injuries they may have
  • PMHx: heart + lungs for GA, problems with previous anaesthetics, osteoporosis, T2DM
  • Social history: occupation, if they have help at home, dominance of hand, smoking, alcohol

AMPLE:
- Allergies
- Medications
- PMHx/SurgHx
- Last meal
- Events leading up to injury

30
Q

Limb specific examination points

A

Analgesia

Look
Feel
Move
Special Tests
Neurovascular assessment

31
Q

Describe this X-Ray

A

I have an AP and Lateral radiograph from a 65yo F who fell off a roof. The most obvious finding is a simple left radius fracture of the distal metaphysis. It is extra-articular and a closed fracture. Nil displacement but dorsal angulation.

First articular arthritis.
Osteoporosis or osteopenia.

There is swelling around the fracture site.

32
Q

How do you reduce fractures?

A
  • Classification
  • Sedation + analgesia
  • Worsen deformity
  • Traction
  • Reduction
  • Immobilisation
  • Reassess (compartment syndrome, 6Ps, neurovascular assessment) and re-image
33
Q

How do you present a case to refer to orthopaedics?

A

65yo F who fell from 3m height off a roof. Closed, distal L radius fracture that has had an attempted reduction. She is otherwise fit and well, R hand dominant. She’s been fasted for 4 hours. On nil blood thinners. Has previously had GA and been fine. May need further CT scan.

  • Summarise case super speedy
  • When do they need surgery?
  • Where does this patient need surgery?
  • Pre-operative planning: fasting, blood thinners, anaesthetic, operative planning
34
Q

What are the principles of stability?

A
  1. Absolute stability: primary bone healing
    - compression plating, lag screws, tension band wire
  2. Relative stability: secondary bone healing
    - Intramedullary nail, external fixation
  3. Load sharing: weight bearing through construct and bone
  4. Load bearing: weight bearing through construct only
35
Q

What are some methods of immobilisation?

A
  • Splints
  • Cast: plaster of paris or fiberglass, make sure you don’t put on a circumferential case in an acute injuries
  • External fixation (especially for open wounds)
  • Internal fixation: extramedullary, intramedullary (can put weight on it real quick)
36
Q

What is the Gustilo-Anderson Classification?

A

Applied to any open fractures/wounds

I. <1cm wound (puncture)

II. 1-10cm wound + minimal soft tissue damage

III: >10cm would + severe tissue damage

IIIC: need theatre urgently, have some sort of high contamination risk, neurovascular compromise etc

37
Q

How do you assess an open T3 tibia fracture

A

ABCs trauma assessment
Analgesia/sedation

Hx: dirty or clean (farming, water)
IV ABx
ADT
Ex: look at the wound, take a photo, NV assessment
Call ortho
Clean + Dress the wound
Immobilise the fracture
Prepare for theatre ASAP

38
Q

How do you classify paediatric fractures?

A

Salter Harris Classification: injuries involving the epiphyseal plate

II = most common

39
Q

What are insufficiency fractures?

A

Osteoporotic bone + a non-traumatic event
- Usually spine + pelvis
- Need to treat the underlying condition
- Very rarely need surgery

40
Q

What are some risk factors for osteoporosis

A

SHATTERED Family

Steroid use (>5mg/day pred)
Hyperthyroid, HyperPTH, Hypercalciuria
Alcohol + tobacco
Thin (BMI <22)
Testosterone low
Early menopause
Renal or liver failure
Erosive/inflammatory bone disease (RA or myeloma)
Dietary Ca low/malabsorption or T1DM
Family Hx

41
Q

What are some complications of fractures?

A
  • Malunion
  • Delayed/non-union
  • Infection or osteomyelitis
  • Post-traumatic OA
  • Stiffness/CRPS
  • Compartment syndrome
  • Neurovascular injury
42
Q

What is malunion?

A

Fracture healing in non-anatomical position

Things that change whether you will just accept non-union:

  1. Patient factors:
    - Are they still functioning?
  2. Location factors:
    - Intra-articular (increased arthritis risk so probs not)
    - Extra-articular
  3. Severity/cosmetics of it
43
Q

What is delayed/non-union and what causes it?

A

Failure of the fracture to heal within the expected timeframe for that fracture
- Pain
- Worse mobility
- Deformity

Causes:
- Patient: smoking, diabetes, PVD, malnutrition, drugs
- Fracture: bone, blood supply, injury, infection
- Surgical: soft tissue stripping, inadequate/excessive stabilisation

44
Q

How does infection and osteomyelitis present? How do you Mx?

A
  • Precipitating event
  • Slow onset
  • Increasing pain
  • OR draining sinus

Imaging:
- X-rays show late signs
- CT/MRI better at showing acute infection

Mx:
Often need biopsy + debridement + ABx ofc (tend to be 6wks-3mo)