Fracture Classification Flashcards

1
Q

what must you always do before fixing ortho injury?

A

TRIAGE!!

and a complete physical, orthopaedic, and neuro assessment prior to definitive care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the sequence of triage checkpoints to ensure a patient is stable?

A

A - airway is patent
B - animal is breathing spontaneously and effectively
C - evidence of circulation
D - assess other disabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are examples of visible signs of a fracture?

A
  • Pain or localized tenderness
  • Deformity, change in angulation of bone, or altered alignment of joints
  • Perceived abnormal motion
  • Local swelling (this may appear almost immediately or not until several days afterward and usually persists for 7-10 days because of disturbed flow of blood and lymph)
  • Loss of function
  • Crepitus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

during ortho exam (following traumatic injury or not), you are assessing long bones and joint for … (5 points)

A

Pain
Range of Motion
Instability
Crepitus
Effusion or Swelling

= PRICE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what do you need for proper radiographic diagnosis (and subsequent selection of best procedures for reduction/immobilization)?

A

need at least 2 views at right angles to each other, aka orthogonal views

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

can computed tomography (CT) help diagnose a bony injury?

A

yes - especially useful in trauma cases with multiple injuries

single or multiple scans can be performed with minimal manipulation of the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

if the patient’s physiological status is poor, what can we do for diagnostics?

A

obtain a single view of the area of interest (without sedation) to confirm presence & severity of fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

should i use sedation to get a radiograph?

A

YES!!! radiographs require uncomfortable positioning which can be stressful for the animal. to get an appropriately positioned radiograph you MUST SEDATE!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is a pathologic fracture? how to fix this?

A

bone disease causing destruction or weakening of the bone in which trivial trauma produces a fracture

predisposing cause must be resolved before repairing fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what type of fracture is more common when there are pathologic causes of bone weakness?

A

compressive fractures are more common than an oblique fracture

loss of mineral in bone matrix = decrease in compressive strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

trauma is the most common cause of fractures in vet med. what are the 3 subdivisions of fractures?

A
  1. direct violence applied to bone
  2. indirect violence - force transmitted thru bone/muscle to point of fracture
  3. repeated stress - repetitive loading causing damage at faster rate than can be repaired
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

there are two types of soft tissue wounds: closed and open. what are the subcategories for open wounds?

A
  • Type I: <1cm, clean laceration; bone creates a puncture wound
  • Type II: >1cm, mild soft tissue trauma (external source), no flaps/avulsions
  • Type III: extensive soft tissue injury, variable skin loss, result of high-energy trauma
  • Type IIIa: soft tissue available for wound coverage
  • Type IIIb: soft tissue loss, bone exposure with periosteum stripped from bone
  • Type IIIc: arterial supply to distal limb damaged, must repair arteries to salvage limb
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what seven things must you remember for the successful management of an open fracture?

A
  1. patient assessment
  2. fracture classification
  3. antibiotic therapy (broad spectrum)
  4. debride & irrigate
  5. wound management
  6. restore soft tissue
  7. fracture stabilization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

True or False: physeal fractures occur in animals of all ages

A

FALSE!

physeal fractures only occur in young animals who still have growth potential of their bones!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the 6 types of Physeal Fractures classified by the Salter-Harris classification system?

A

SH-I: thru physis
SH-II: thru physis & portion of metaphysis
SH-III: thru physis, portion of epiphysis, intra-articular
SH-IV: articular fractures, thru epiphysis, across physis, thru metaphysis
SH-V: crushing of physis (not visible on radiograph) - physeal growth ceases
SH-VI: partial physeal closure resulting from damage to portion of physis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what happens with fractures that crush or cross the growth plate?

A

these could:
- irreversibly injure chondrocytes of the reserve (resting) cell layer of the growth plate, or
- damage the branch of the epiphyseal artery that nourishes these cells

17
Q

how are fractures classified according to AO foundation?

A

first by number of long bone
* 1= humerus
* 2 = radius/ulna
* 3 = femur
* 4 = tibia/fibula

second by “bone zone”
* 1 = proximal
* 2 = shaft
* 3 = distal

third by severity of fracture
* A = single fracture
* B = wedge
* C = complex, more than 1 fragment
each of the above can be further grouped into degree of complexity based on extent of bone fragmentation

18
Q

what are three terms that describe the orientation of the fracture line relative to bone’s long axis?

A

Transverse - crosses bone not more than 30deg
Oblique - crosses bone at greater than 30deg
Spiral - fracture line curves around diaphysis

19
Q

extent of damage: what is an infarction?

A

fractures of trabecular bone without external deformation of the cortex

often associated with necrosis or inflammation of bone as predisposing factors

20
Q

extent of damage: what is an incomplete fracture?

A

fractures that disrupt only 1 cortex

a greenstick fracture in young animals (bending of non-fractured cortex)

21
Q

extent of damage: what is a complete fracture?

A

single circumferential disruption of bone

any fragmentation that results in defect at site must be smaller than 1/3 bone diameter

22
Q

extent of damage: what is a multi-fragmented fracture?

A

aka comminuted fractures

these have one or more completely separated fragments of intermediate size, such as:
- wedge fracture
- reducible wedges
- nonreducible wedges
- multiple or segmental fracture

23
Q

what specific nomenclature is used to describe fractures seen at proximal and distal metaphyseal bone zones?

A
  1. extra-articular fracture = articular surface separated from diaphysis but isn’t fractured; aka metaphyseal fractures
  2. partial articular fracture = part of joint surface involved, remaining part still attached to diaphysis
  3. complete articular fracture = joint surface fractured, completely detached from diaphysis
24
Q

what is an impacted fracture?

A

bone fragments driven firmly together as a result of compressive forces

25
Q

what is an avulsion fracture?

A

fragment of bone (at the site of muscle/tendon/ligament insertion) is detached due to forceful pull or tensile forces

26
Q

difference between stable vs unstable fractures? give examples of each.

A

stable: fragments interlock and resist shortening forces (ex. transverse, greenstick, impacted fractures)

unstable: fragments don’t interlock and slide by each other and out of position (ex. oblique, non-reducible wedge factors)

27
Q

fill in the blank: fracture pattern is largely determined by the orientation of the ______ that caused the fracture, coupled with the relative ______ of the bone in each loading orientation

A

forces
strength

28
Q

compressive forces result in what types of fractures and why?

A

oblique

because bone is dramatically weaker in shear than compression (because of osteonal & collagen fibre orientation within the bone)

29
Q

what forces result in transverse fractures?

A

tensile & bending forces

30
Q

bone is weakest in ________ forces?

A

tension

31
Q

a bone loaded in bending and compression results in what type of fragment?

A

butterfly fragment on the compressive side

32
Q

torsional loads result in what type of fractures?

A

spiral fractures, initiating by the crack along the long axis of the bone