FRACP questions Flashcards

1
Q

Recent cardiac surgery - presenting with fatigue, pain, fever, pain, heat/pus at surgical site, night swears. Suspect which bug?

A

Mycobacterium chimaera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

IRIS

A

Immune system begings to recover but then responds to a previously acquired opportunistic infection with an overwhelming immune response that makes the symptoms worse.

Two main scenarios can occur:

1/ ‘unmasking’ of an occult opportunistic infection

2/ ‘paradoxical’ symptomatic relapse of a prior infection despiet microbiologic treament success.

Best treatment option is not known, but mosty common is to administer Abx or antiviral drug against pathogenic bug.

Common pathognes include: CMV, MAC, HZV, pneumocystis pneumonia andf TB.

If HIV pt has LOW CD4 and opportunistic infecruiin , generally advised to treate/control infection first before HAART is initiated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Empirical Abx treatment for brain abscess from haematogenous spread?

A

Metronidazole and ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ertapenems any pseudomonal cover?

A

NO

Carbapenems broadest spectrum of the beta-lactam Abx,aerobic and anaerobic gram negatibe bacilli also cover pseudomonas aeruginosa.HOWEVER among the three known carbapenems ERTAPENEM has NO activity against pseudomonal aeruginosa.

Carbapenems generally inactive against MRSA, VRE and enteroccocus faecium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fidaxomicin used in what?

A

narrow spectrum macrocylcic antibiotic drug with selective eradication of pathogenic Clostridum diffcilie in mild to moderate.(but not against gram negative bacteria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

HIV patient with active TB, when to start AART?

A

ALL HIV patient should go on AART

TB treatment started immediately. And the AART based on CD4 counts:

  • IF CD 4 count <50, start 2 weeks after treatment
  • IF CD4 count >50 with severe HIV disease/manifestations, start 2-4 weeks after treatment
  • IF CD4 count >50 and nonsevere HIV disease, treatment should start within 8-12 weeks of treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Avibactam?

A

NEW CLASS DBOs (diazabicyclooctanes) is a non-b-lactam-b-lactamase inhibitor which has a broader spectrum of activity than other inhibitors.

Avi DOES NOT induce beta lactamase production (unlike clauvanic acid etc) but actually inactivates b-lactam and its inhibition is mostly reversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Best screening test for syphillis?

A

T.pallidum Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA)

detects both IgM and IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

HIV and TB, what is NOT recommended as part of treatment?

A

Rifapentin is NOT recommended for treatment of latent or active TB in HIV infected patients recieving ART

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

TB and Interferon Gamma Release Assay (IGRA)

A
  • IGRA detects T-cell responses to MTB
  • IGRA has very high specificty for TB when tested in low TB population with no risk factors
  • IGRA is not recommended for diagnosing active TB
  • Level of positivity of IGRA dos not predict active vs latent TB
  • A negative IGRA DOES NOT exclude active TB as IGRA cannot differentiate between active and latent TB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is a mantoux test considered postive?

A
  • > 5mm in HIV infected person, immunosupressed, close contact of infectious TB and presence of old TB on CXR
  • >10mm if medical risk factors, foreign born endemic TB area, healthcare worker, nursing home, prisoners
  • >15mm for all other persons, BCG vaccinated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name a drug not used in treatment of MDR TB

A

Clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When is Bedaquilline used?

A

for MDR TB

  • Oral diarylquinolone; targets ATP synthase
  • 1st drug with novel mechanism approved by FDA for TB since 1971
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When is Delamanid used?

A

In MDR TB

  • Nitroimidazole class; inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sensitivity of Xpert MTB/RIF at picking up smear positive TB and identifying rifampicin resistance from a sputum sample?

A

98%

for smear negative sensitivity is 72.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pneumococcal meningitis, Abx choice in pt with severe penicillin allergy?

A

Vancomycin + ciprofloxacin

Otehr option is moxifloxacin as single agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Class of Caspofungin?

A

Echinocandins

inhibits enzyme 1-> 3 beta D glucan synthase and DISRUPT the integretiy of the fungal cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Procedures requiring prophylactic Abx in patient with valvular disease?

A

Cephazolin

High risk GI procedures:

  • dilatation of oesophageal stricture
  • treatment of oesophageal varices
  • ERCP with obstruction
  • Endoscopic US with FNA
  • PEG

High risk resp procedures:

  • proc that involves incision or biopsy of the resp mucosa
  • tonsillectomy
  • adenoidectomy
  • bronchoscopy WITH biopsy

Other high risk procedures:

  • proc in patients with ongoing GI or GU tract infection
  • proc on infected skin, skin structure or MSK tissue
  • surgery to replace heart valves/intracardiac device
  • ALL dental procedures that invovle manipulation of eitehr gingival tissue or the periapical region of teeth or perforation of the oral mucosa

NOT recommended in:

  • colonoscopy
  • gastroscopy
  • C-section
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mechanism of gram negative resistance with linezolid

A

Efflux pump!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Male post TRUS biopsy given prophylactic norfloxacin, metro and gent - represents with sepsis. What treatment?

A

Meropenem!

suspected pathogen = ESBL bacteremia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which groups have the highest risk for developing invasive fungal infection?

A

AML

Allogenic HSCT

Heart, lung, liver transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Aspiration pneumonia treatment

A

Role of anaerobic organisms in aspiration pneumonia is frequently overestimated. In mild disease, penicillin effectively treats anaerobic organissm aspirated from the oropharnyx and the addition of metronidazole is not usually required.

The addition of metro is recommended in the following groups:

  • putrid sputum
  • severe peridontal disease
  • hx of chornic hazardous alcohol consumptom
  • development of lung abscess, empyema or necrotising pneumonia
  • do not respond to empirical therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Daptomycin aint useful in what?

A

Pneumonia!

Is inhibited by surfactangt and therefore not useful in pneumonia!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ambler classification of beta-lactamases

A

Class A = plasmid mediated and chromosomally-encoded: TEM and SHV enzymes

Class B = metalloenzymes: like New Delhi metallo-beta-lactamase (NDM-1)

Class C = chromosomally encoded cephalosporinases that may be inducible: AmpC enzymes

Class D = oxacillin hydrolising enzymes: OXA-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the most consistently observed risk factor for hospital acquistion of VRE?

A

Previous antimicrobial therapy

26
Q

MERS - epi and dx

A

First reported 2012, linked with countries near the Arabian Peninsula.

Mortality rate of 30%, spread person-to-person via close contact but without sustained community transmission

Evidence shows that resp tract specimens such as BAL, sputum and tracheal aspirates have the highest viral loads and these are recommended.

27
Q

Bordetella pertussis

A

Is a gram negative coccobacilli!

28
Q

Smallpox vs chicken pox rash

A

chicken pox = more truncal!

30
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of bordetella pertussis (gram negative coccibacilli)?

A

Culcture of B pertussis from NPA secretion is the gold standard for diagnosis (100% specific)

31
Q

Rationale for dexamethasone with Abx for treatment with suspected pneumococcal meningitis?

A

Diminish the rate of hearing loss, other neurologic complications and mortality

32
Q

Meningitis treatment

A
33
Q

Indications for surgery in native valve IE?

A
  • heart failure due to valvular regurgitation
  • paravalvular extension which signifies uncontrolled infection/difficult organism
  • recurrent emboli and vegetations despite appropriate antibiotics therapy
  • large mobile vegetaions irresepective of embolisation (>10mm)
34
Q

CMV prophylaxis

A

valganciclovir (ganciclovir not avail in AUS)

CMV prophylaxis is recommended for most solid organ transplant such as renal, liver, heart and lung.

For ALL allogenic stem cell transplant

CMV prophylaxis is NOT inidcated in pts receiving immunosuppressive drugs for non-transplant related medical conditions

35
Q

Most common cause of aseptic meningitis?

A

Enterovirus

aseptic meningitis during the summer or fall is most likely to be caused by enteroviruses - the most common cause of viral meningitis

36
Q

Abx regime for brain abscess follwoing a penetrating trauma?

A

Vancomycin and ceftriaxone

37
Q

Which Abx do not cross the BBB?

A

Aminoglycosides, erythromycin, tetracyclines, clindamycin + first gen cephalosporins

38
Q

Treatment in Group A strep infection?

i.e patient has nec fasciitis

A

(would surgically debride if had nec fasciitis obv)

Penicillin and clindamycin!

39
Q

Bacteremia, bugs and their association

A

Dental disease - strep viridans

Prolonged indwelling cath and IVDU - staph aureus

Gut procedures - enterococcus faecalis

Bowel malignancy - strep bovis

Soft tissue infection - staphylococci

40
Q

Culture negative endocarditis?

A

Coxiella burnetti, bortenella, chlamydia, legionella

41
Q

Q fever

A

Coxiella burnetti

positive blood culture is one of the major criteria in Dukes!

42
Q

Rationale for daily penicillin long acting IM injections for syphilis treatment?

A
  • to obtain continuous levels of penicillin to eliminate the treponemes.
  • T.pallidium divides v slowly and therefore requires continuous levels of penicillin to eliminate the treponemes
43
Q

Which test can be used to monitor disease activity in syphilis?

A

VDRL and RPR

VDRL and RPR are quantifiable tests which can be used to monitor treatment efficacy and are helpful in assessing disease activity. They generally become negative by 6 months after treatment in early syphillis. The VDRL may also become negative in untreated patients or remain positive after treatment in late stage.

False positives may occur in otehr conditions - particularly EBV, hepatitis, mycoplasma infections, autoimmune disease etc

44
Q

If allergy to penicillin, what to use in syphillis treatment?

A

doxycycline 100mg PO BD for 14 days

45
Q

Recommendation for treatmet of MAC infection

A

clarithromcyin or azithromycin PLUS rifampicin or rifabutin PLUS ethambutol

Penicillin is not effective against MAC

46
Q

What could explain the relative sparing of the >60 y.o popuylation in a 2009 H1N1 virus where kids and younger adults had higher attack rates?

A

Relative sparing of adults younger than 60 years of ages is presumably due o the exposure of persons in this age group to antigenically related influenza virsues earlier in life, resulting in the development of cross protective antibodies.

47
Q
A
48
Q

Antigenic shift vs antigenic drift

A

Anitgenic shift = new influenza A subtypes which emerge at irregular intervals and give rise to influenza pandemics.

Antigenic drift = minor changes in influenza A and B viruses results from point mutation leading to amino acid changes in the two surface glycoproteins -> enables the virus to evade previously infuced immune responses and is the process whereby annual influenza epidemics arise

49
Q

Administration of oseltamivr or zanamivir in H1N1?

A

The administrations of oseltamivir even after an interval of more than 48 hours since the onset of illness has been associated with reduced rates of death among hospitalized patients infected iwth the 2009 H1N1 virus.

No benefit in healthy patients after 48 hours of symptom onset. However treatment is reasnable if patients presenting earli < 48 hours of symptom onset

50
Q

Effect of neuraminidase inhibitors (ie oseltamivir) when given within 24 hours of onset of sx?

A

Reduction in the severity of influenza symptoms and shortening of the duration of symptoms by 1 to 2 days

51
Q

How does oseltamivir work?

A

Inhibition of neuraminidase

52
Q

Live attenuated vaccines - to be avoided in the immunosuppressed

A

BCG, MMR, yellow fever, polio, oral typhoid

53
Q

How do aminoglycosides work?

A

bacteriocidal - inhibit protein synthesis

54
Q

What is the most powerful predictor of the presence of MDR-TB?

A

Prior treatment for TB

55
Q

In adults older than 65, which vaccine is most likely to improve survival?

A

Studies have shown that influenza vaccination reduces all-cause mortality and hospitalizations in older persons and decreases work absences in younger persons.

56
Q

Which organism can cause a false negative for nitrites despite the presence of a true urinary tract infection?

A

Enterococcus faecalis

57
Q

Preventive antibiotics for endocardiitis in which valve conditions?

A

prostehtic heart valve, valve repair with prostethic material, prior hx of IE, many congenital heart abnormalities, tetraology of fallot.

PFO - does not require prophylaxis

58
Q

What carries the highest mortality rate in immunocompromised patients with invasive fungal infection?

A

Inveasive aspergillosis carries a mortality risk of 94%.

Risk factors: prolonged neutropenia >21 days, corticosteroids, CMV, GVH, radiotherapy

59
Q

Fever in a returned traveller

A

Think 1/ Malaria 2/Dengue 3/Enteric fever

Presence of rash? if YES, malaria UNLIKELY

60
Q

Dengue fever

A

Fever in returned traveller

“breakbone fever” - flavivirus psread by mosquitoes, Aedes aegyptil.

Incubation period 3-14 days

Four syndromes:

  • 1/ undifferentiated fever
  • 2/ classic dengue fever - abrupt fever, severe back pain, transitory maculoopapular rash. Defervesence and recrudescence of fever
  • 3/ dengue haemorrhagic fever - fever, haemorrhagic manifestations plt count <100, capillarly leak, high hct, low alb, neutropenia, in, inc transaminases
  • 4/ dengue shock syndrome

Treatment = supportive!

61
Q

Incubation periods for fever in returned traveler

A

<10 days - malaria, dengue

10-21 days - malaria, typhoid fever

>21 days - malaria

62
Q

Epi in fever in returned traveller

A
  1. Malaria - PNG, India, pakistan, africa, indonesia
  2. Enteric fever - South, central and SE asia
  3. Dengue - Africa, the Americas, the easter mediteraanian, SE Asia and Western pacific
63
Q
A