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FPMRS > FPMRS Exam Pro > Flashcards

FPMRS Exam Pro Flashcards

1
Q

Complications of CIC (3)

A

urethral false passage,
possibility of silent deterioration of upper urinary tract, and bladder perforation from forceful
incorrect catheterization.

Bladder cancer has not been associated with CIC.

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2
Q

how often should you change an indwelling catheter

A

At least every 3 months

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3
Q

ways to reduce indwelling cath obstruction

A
  1. acidify urine (if patient’s urine output is not low otherwise crystal will form)
    1. treat infections with Proteus mirabilis and P. stuartii as these may obstruct
  2. use a silicon catheter
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4
Q

operative cystoscopy: what size sheath do you need to pass a grasper, biopsy forceps, and bugbee?

A

greater than 17Fr

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5
Q

How long to keep stent after ureteral injury?

A

4-6 weeks

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6
Q

steps for stent placement

A

30° scope → open-end cath → contrast → guide wire → stent → pusher.

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7
Q

What are the indications for indwelling cath?

A

H. - hematuria

O. - obstruction

U. - urologic surgery

D. - does patient have pressure ulcer or wound

I. - Input and output

N. - neurogenic bladder (patient who has long term inability to empty bladder such as spinal cord injury, etc.)

I. - immobilization (due to physical constraints or multiple fractures etc.)

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8
Q

bladder cancer recurence rate

A

50%

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9
Q

urothelial cancer: monoclonal theory vs field theory

A

monoclonal theory states that multiple tumors descend from a single genetically transformed cell that populates the urothelium.

The field theory states that exposure to a carcinogen leads to “cancerization” of the entire urothelium

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10
Q

What are the four pillars of fecal continence?

A

Rectal sensation
Stool consistency
Rectal distensibility
Pelvic floor muscle function

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11
Q

Responsiveness of a questionnaire is…

A

its ability to detect clinical change.

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12
Q

Reliability of a questionnaire means?

A

Reliability is synonymous with reproducibility and repeatability. In other words, the level of agreement between measures either by the same individual, by different individuals, at same or different times is called reliability

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13
Q

What is the kings health questionnaire?

A

Urinary incontinence symptoms and quality of life
26 languages
10 domains
32 questions
100 pts, 5 pt change shows meaning difference

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14
Q

What is it the Bristol Female Lower Urinary Tract (BFLUTS?

A

Urinary incontinence Symptoms and quality of life, impact on sexual functioning
34 questions

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15
Q

Pelvic Floor Impact Questionnaire
How many questions?
What symptoms?

A

Long form is 31,
Short form 7

It assess the impact of pelvic floor dysfunction on all of the following areas:
household chores,
physical activities,
movie/concert going,
travel by car or bus > 30min,
participation in social activities away form home,
emotional health, and
feelings of frustration.

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16
Q

Manchester Health Questionnaire

Symptom assessed?

A

FI questionnaire adapted from kings health questionnaire

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17
Q

What size foley should be placed after cystotomy repair and why?

A

20fr to avoid obstructing blood clots

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18
Q

% estrogen and %testosterone drop after b/l oophorectomy

A

estrogen (» 80%) and testosterone (» 50%)

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19
Q

top 3 indications for benign hyst in the USA

A

1 fibroids, #2 endo, #3 pelvic organ prolapse

7-14% of all benign hyst in the USA are for prolapse

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20
Q

another name for the cardinal ligament?

A

the ligament of Mackenrodt,

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21
Q

What percentage of patients would decline hysterectomy if presented with equally efficacious alternative?

A

60%

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22
Q

FDA approved drug for hypoactive sexual desire disorder.
how is it given?

A

Vyleesi- peptide and acts by activating the melanocortin receptors.

subq injection into the thigh or abdomen

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23
Q

side effects of vyleesi

A

nausea, pain at injection site, headache, and darkening of skin around gums, face, and breasts

FDA approved drug for hypoactive sexual desire disorder

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24
Q

vyleesi contraindication

A

HTN

FDA approved drug for hypoactive sexual desire disorder

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25
Q

Why are renal transplant patients at greater risk of Urinary frequency, nocturia, and bladder pain?

A

one theory is that they are anuria before the transplant and decreased bladder compliance.
then they start making urine after the transplant and the bladder is pissed.

60% of renal transplant patients develop frequency, nocturia and bladder pain

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26
Q

psych med that increases night time urine production?

A

lithium

other meds: alcohol, caffeine, diuretic, theophylline

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27
Q

definition of nocturnal polyuria

A

> 1/3 total urine is produced at night

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28
Q

Your patient has nocturnal polyuria and you want to diureses her before bed. What med can you prescribe and what time should she take it?

A

furosemide at 4-6pm

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29
Q

medical conditions besides DM, peripheral vascular disease, CHF that cause noturnal polyuria

A

low albumin, hypercalcemia

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30
Q

urethral bulking:
Animal source material that does not require skin testing prior to injection

A

Porcine dermal collagen (Permacol) does not need skin testing

bovine collagen (Contigen) does

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31
Q

How is skin testing done for bovine collagen urethral bulking?

A

skin test into the volar aspect of the forearm to be done at least 30 days prior to the urethral injection because 3% of patients will have a reaction indicating a pre-existing sensitivity to bovine dermal collagen through dietary exposure

off market since 2011

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32
Q

Why was Polytetrafluoroethylene (Teflon) removed from market?

A

bulking agent, removed due to particle migration and granuloma formation in distant organs, Particles size of < 80 micrometers

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33
Q

Durasphere
-What is it?
-What was the second generation modification?

A

Nonabsorbable carbon-coated zirconium beads suspended in a water-based polysaccaride carrier gel

-decreased particle size due to difficulty injecting large particles through 18 gauge needle. 212 to 500 micrometer–> 90 to 212 micrometers

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34
Q

urethral bulking material that can be injected without cystoscopy

A

macroplastiq - silicone microimplants

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35
Q

Why was Ethylene vinyl alcohol (Tegress) taken off the market in 2007?

A

stone formation, urethral erosion,

its a liquid that turns semi-solid when it comes into contact with water within the periurethral tissue cells.

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36
Q

5 indications for SNM

A

FI, non-obstructive urinary retention, Urgency, frequency, UUI

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37
Q

UDS findings
VLPP and MUCP to dx intrinsic sphincter deficiency

A

VLPP<60 cm H2O and MUCP <20cm H2O

as in leakage with little vasalva force and weak urethral closure

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38
Q

mnemonic DIAPPERS

A

Transient causes of urinary incontinence

  • Delirium
  • Inection- Urinary tract infection or urethritis.
  • Atrophic urethritis or vaginitis
  • Psychologic
  • Pharmaceuticals
  • Endocrine / Metabolic (hyperglycemia, hypercalcemia)
  • Restricted mobility
  • Stool impaction
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39
Q

per AUA guidelines, basic eval for urinary incontinence

A

history
physical exam
PVR
UA to rule out infection

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40
Q

Steps for the pad test
how much to drink?
how many movements?
how many grams in one hour is postive

A

Test started without patient voiding first
Subject drinks 500cc (2 cups) of sodium free liquid
Must bend to pick up objects x5, cough x10, stand up x10, wash hands x30min, walks/stairs x30min
If pad saturated- weighed and another pad used
1g may be due to sweating/vag discharge
Change of >4g/ 24 hr is positive (1g/ 1 hour is a positive test)
No high correlation btw weight and UI severity

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41
Q

of leuks needed to dx pyuria by cytometry

A

By definition, “pyuria” is present when there are >10 leukocytes per MILLILITER on unspun urine by hemocytometer technique.

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42
Q

of leuks needed to dx pyuria by microscopic analysis

A

By definition pyuria is present when there are >3 leukocytes/HIGH POWER FIELD on unspun urine (by microscopy technique). Microscopy is not as sensitive as cytometry and thus just 3 leukocytes are enough to make the diagnosis of pyuria.

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43
Q

Which bacterial UTI results in false negative nitrite result on UA?

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus, Pseudomonas species, or enterococci because they do not have he enzyme to convert nitrates into nitrites

enterobacter is the only bacteria that has the enzyme to convert nitrates into nitrites

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44
Q

Number of hours for bacteria to convert nitrate to nitrite at levels that are reliably detectable

A

4 hours for bacteria to convert nitrate to nitrite in the urine at levels that can be reliably detected, so the urine dip for nitrites is best done on the 1st void of the morning.

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45
Q

urine must be plated within ________ hours to to avoid exaggeration of CFU and a false positive.

A

If the urine specimen is not plated on the culture medium within 2 hours then the # of CFU/mL on the culture will be exaggerated and false positive results will be reported.

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46
Q

Number of positives on combined UA dipstick (WBC, RBC, nitrite) needed before treating a symptomatic patient

A

0, you can treat symptomatic patients even if UA is negative.

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47
Q

you send a urine culture for fungus. how amny hours of “no growth” do you wait before the test is considered negative?

A

48 hours for fungus
24 for bacteria

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48
Q

Minimum # of CFU/mL for Gram stain of unspun urine to be able to reliably detect bacteria

A

> 100k, gram stains are for complicated patients and you need an answer NOW

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49
Q

Diagnostic criterion for a positive culture of catheterized urine (how many CFU/ML?)

A

> 100 CFU/ML

50
Q

What’s a normal spec gravity?

A

1.002 and 1.030

51
Q

What is 45 CFR part 46?

A

a law for human participant protection and regulation set forth by the US Department of Health and Human Services. This law protects a person from risks in research studies.

52
Q

list the 4 most common pessaries

A

ring with support
gelhorn
donut
cube

53
Q

most common demographic for urethral prolapse (2)

A

prepubertal black females or postmenopausal white women, should resolve in a few weeks

if persistent–>surgery

54
Q

Which chromosome has been linked to pelvic floor muscle coding and POP?

A

9

55
Q

DLPP for low compliance

A

< 20 mL/cm H2O

56
Q

DLPP for hydronephrosis

A

> 40 cm H2O

57
Q

cut off for Low VLPP

A

Low VLPPs (<60 cm H2O)

58
Q

define polyuria

A

> 40 mL/kg body weight during 24 hrs or > 2.8 litres of urine in 24 hrs for a woman weighing 70 kg.

59
Q

causes of Non-relaxing urethral sphincter obstruction (NUSO)

A

a sacral or infrasacral lesion such as menigomyelocoele, and after radical pelvic surgery

60
Q

define “pulsion” enterocele

A

A “pulsion” enterocele results from repetitive chronic increases in intra-abdominal pressure which herniates the culdesac peritoneum and bowel in between the rectovaginal septum and the posterior vaginal wall.

61
Q

IUGA/ICS mesh complication classification
what are the groupings for time since surgery?

A

clinically dx: 48 hrs, 48 hr-2months, 2-12 months, over 12 months

62
Q

IUGA/ICS mesh complication classification

what are the categories (affected organ systems)?

A

vaginal no epithelial separation/small or equal than 1cm
vaginal larger than 1 cm,
Urinary Tract,
rectum/bowel,
skin/msk/pt compromise

MSK is the highest grade

63
Q

IUGA/ICS mesh complication classification

what are the pain categories?

A

FIX THIS CARD

vaginal no epithelial separation/small or equal than 1cm
vaginal larger than 1 cm,
Urinary Tract,
rectum/bowel,
skin/msk/pt compromise

64
Q

IUGA/ICS mesh complication classification

Site categories

A

(vaginal suture line, away from suture line, trochar passage, other skin/msk, intra-abdominal)

65
Q

sample size calculation
you are conducting a 1:1 RCT. What variables do you need for the calculation

A

n = [(S1 + S2) / (m1 - m2)] / W

W= constant depending on alpha

  1. mean in the control group
  2. effect size you are looking for
  3. Power
  4. alpha
  5. Standard deviation if its a continuous variable
66
Q

Sample size calculation
you will need a larger sample size if the following are true?

( higher/lower) power level chosen,
(larger/smaller) alpha chosen,
(smaller/larger) the difference between the groups being compared (i.e. mean differences)
(larger/smaller) the standard deviation (more spread) within each group

A

higher power level chosen,
smaller alpha chosen,
smaller the difference between the groups being compared (i.e. mean differences)
larger the standard deviation (more spread) within each group

67
Q

Calculation for variance

A

variance is standard deviation squared

68
Q

calculation for effect size

A

variance aka standard dev squared…divided by the mean difference between groups

69
Q

formula to increase sample size for dropouts

A

sample size divided by 1 minus dropouts

ex. 66/(1-0.1)

70
Q

Continence is maintained by active and passive forces.

name active forces

A
  1. pressure in urethra increases before a cough
  2. Urethral attachment to pubourethral ligaments and to pelvic floor muscles actively changes the shape of the urethra during filling, coughing, and voiding
71
Q

Continence is maintained by active and passive forces.

name passive forces

A
  1. Coaptation of the urethra because of connective tissue and vascular seal of lamina propria layer - vascular cushions provide ⅓ of resting urethral pressure
  2. Delancey’s “hammock hypothesis” - connective tissue supports of the posterior urethral wall keep the posterior urethra a stable hammock, pressure of a cough presses the anterior wall into the stable posterior wall thereby closing it an preventing SUI
72
Q

The blood supply of the distal urethra is from the _______ artery .

The blood supply of the proximal urethra is from the ________ arteries .

A

vaginal artery

superior and inferior vesicle

73
Q

Innervation to the urethral striated sphincter is from the __________ nerve

A

pudendal s2,3,4

74
Q

bladder bx result

glandular-appearing tubules covered by cuboidal cells with normal appearing nuclei

dx?

A

nephrogenic ademona

-seen in patients with repeated trauma to the bladder (stones, rUTI, indwelling cath, etc)

75
Q

what is the biggest risk factor for bladder cancer?

A

aryl amines, rubber, coal, β-naphthylamine, benzidine

and cigarettes

76
Q

what makes a UTI complicated?
12

A

pregnant, elderly, diabetic, obstructed, stone, neurogenic bladder, renal insufficiency, immunosuppression, atypical sx, recurrent infxn, persistent infxn, functional/metabolic/anatomic condition that increases risk of tx failure

77
Q

rUTI

how long should you do daily ppx?

A

6 months then stop and see if they recur.

can restart ppx if recurs

78
Q

rUTI

What’s the dosage and frequency for the following daily ppx meds?

Nitrofurantoin
TMP-SMZ (40/200) or (80/400) 
TMP  
Cephalexin 
Fosfomycin
Ciprofloxacin
A

Nitrofurantoin 50 mg or 100 mg nightly
TMP-SMZ (40/200) or (80/400) nightly or three times per week
TMP 100 mg nightly
Cephalexin 125 mg or 250 mg nightly
Fosfomycin 3 grams every 10 days
Ciprofloxacin 250 mg twice per week - least common regimen

79
Q

persistent UTI with the same bacteria

what’s your plan? meds and dosage?

A

CT scan or ultrasound for structural problem like stones

Cipro 400 mg IV then Cipro 500 mg bid for 7 days
Cipro 500 mg bid for 7 days
Levofloxacin 750 mg daily for 5 days
80
Q

Whats a fever in Celsius?

A

38 degrees

81
Q

What is a staghorn calculus?

A

stones that include the renal pelvis and extend into at least 2 calyces.

82
Q

Staghorn calculi are most often composed of ___________

A

struvite (or magnesium ammonium phosphate)

83
Q

80% of stones are composed of __________

A

calcium oxalate

84
Q

most common location for renal stone obstruction

A

ureteropelvic junction

85
Q

most common bacterial UTI associated with struvite stones (mag ammonium phosphate)?

beside proteus which is the most common

A

Pseudomonas
Providencia
Klebsiella
Staphylococcus

86
Q

three reasons to have stone analyzed after a 24hr urine collection

A

multiple calculi,
recurrent calculi,
stone in young person (<40 yrs)

87
Q

Macrobid

common side effects?
rare side effects?

A

Nitrofurantoin
common SE: flatulence, nausea, headache
rare toxicity: pulmonary hypersensitivity, chronic hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, hemolytic anema

88
Q

Bactrim

common side effects?
rare side effects?

A

TMP-SMZ
common SE: photosensitivity, hematologic complications (neuropenia, thrombocytopenia), urticaria, rash, nausea, vomitting, anorexia
rare toxicity: Steven-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrosis, fever

89
Q

Ciprofloxacin

common side effects?
rare side effects?

A

Ciprofloxacin

common SE:  insomnia, restlessness, headache, drowsiness, nausea, vomitting, diarrhea
rare toxicity:  Achilles tendon rupture, seizures, confusion
90
Q

why is nitrofurantoin contraindicted in patients over 65yrs old?

A
  1. nitrofurantoin is not effective in patients with creatining clearance of less then 40 mL/min^2
  2. reduced renal function puts older patients at higher risk of drug accumulation
  3. older patients have a higher risk of having the side effects of nitrofurantoin
91
Q

risk factors for fungal UTi (5)

A

prior antibiotic therapy,
presence of an chronic indwelling catheter,
diabetes mellitus,
renal transplant,
immunocompromised condition.

92
Q

What are Tamm-Horsfall protein?

A

protein in the renal tubules of the outer medula that bindto bacteria and allow them to wash out in the urine

93
Q

what are the three gram + bacteria associated with UTIs?

A

Staphlyococcus saprophyticus is the most common (Enterococcus faecalis
Streptococcus agalactiae, aka GBS) usually represent contamination if isolated from a voided urine sample.

94
Q

why do elderly patients have more urine production at night?

A

ANP increase with age and this lead to increased urine production at night.

95
Q

when should you use Spearman’s rank?

A

Spearman’s rank is a measure of correlation between two non-normally distributed variables and thus gives a correlation coefficient.

96
Q

When to use each of the following tests?

one way ANOVA

two way ANOVA

A

Difference between means (medians) of ≥ 3 groups

normally distribution, comparing one or 2+ factors,

97
Q

most common cause of gross hematuria in a 9 year old:

A

IgA nephropathy

98
Q

your hematuria patient needs CT urogram, but is allergic to contrast.

Name alternative test option.

A

non-contrast CT with retrograde pyleogram

99
Q

describe the three components of urethral resting pressure.

A
  1. submucosal vascular cushions
  2. smooth urethral sphincter muscles
  3. striated urogenital sphincter (extrinsic urethral sphincter mechanism - compressor urethrae, urethrovaginal sphincter, and sphincter urethrae)
100
Q

Components of the urethral sphincter

Which layer is used from continence?
Which layer is used for micturition?

A

thin outer circular layer increases urethral resistance
thick inner longitudinal layer facilitates micturition when stimulated.

101
Q

which two parts of the female urinary tract contain squamous epithelium?

A

trigone, distal urethral

all the rest is transitional epithelium

102
Q

What is the line of Hart?

A

keratinized squamous epithelium external to the vestibule and the nonkeratinized squamous epithelium lying within the vestibule and vaginal canal.

103
Q

What is the ileopectineal ligament?

A

coopers ligament

burch connects coopers and pubocervical fascia

104
Q

what are the components of the pelvic diaphragm?

A

levator ani (IC, PR, PC) and coccegyeus muscles

105
Q

What are the subdivisions of the pubococcygeus muscle?

A

puboperineal, pubovaginalis, puboanalis

106
Q

What are the components of the levator plate?

A

where the levator muscles meet in the midline

107
Q

What are the borders of the presacral space?

A

superior- aortic bifurcation
inferior- pelvic floor
anterior- rectosigmoid
posterior-sacrum
right lateral-urethers and internal illiac vessels
left lateral-left common iliac vein

108
Q

Senior living facilities

If a patient has impaired ADLs and IADLs, which type of facility should they be discharged to?

A

SNF

109
Q

Senior living facilities

If a patient has normal ADLs, but impaired IADLs, which type of facility should they be discharged to?

A

Assisted Living facility

109
Q

Senior living facilities

If a patient has impaired ADLs and IADLs, which type of facility should they be discharged to?

A

SNF

110
Q

Senior living facilities

If a patient has normal ADLs AND normal IADLs, which type of fac

A

Independent living facility

111
Q

out to in TOT muscles

A

skin → subcutaneous fat → Gracillis → Adductor brevis → ±Adductor magnus → Obturator externus → Obturator membrane → Obturator internus → pubocervical “fascia” (periurethral fascia) –> index finger.

112
Q

Senior living facilities

If a patient has impaired ADLs, but the spouse has normal ADLs and IADLs, where can they go together?

A

Continuing Care retirement community

113
Q

MAKE CARDS FOR PELVIC SPACES
REVIEW WK ON MESH CONTROVERSY
rectal prolapse surgeries

A
113
Q

out to in TOT muscles

A

skin → subcutaneous fat → Gracillis → Adductor brevis → ±Adductor magnus → Obturator externus → Obturator membrane → Obturator internus → pubocervical “fascia” (periurethral fascia) –> index finger.

114
Q

layers of the urothelium

A

GAG
umbrella cell stratum-covered in a protein called uroplain that E. coli attach to
intermediate cell stratum
basal cell stratum
basil lamina

115
Q

out to in TOT muscles

A

skin → subcutaneous fat → Gracillis → Adductor brevis → ±Adductor magnus → Obturator externus → Obturator membrane → Obturator internus → pubocervical “fascia” (periurethral fascia) –> index finger.

115
Q

how does bactrim affect coumadin?

A

increases coumadin levels

reduces coumadin metabolism
decreases serum protein binding
changes CYP2C9/10 enzyme activity

116
Q

risk of stone formation in diverticulum?

A

10%

117
Q

Most common diverticula symptoms

A

Recurrent urinary tract infections
Stress urinary incontinence
Incomplete voiding
Dysuria
Urgency
Urgency incontinence

118
Q

4 stages of wound healing

A

Stages of wound healing are:

  1. hemostasis or coagulation
  2. Inflammation
  3. proliferation and fibroplasia (oxygen and nutrient sensitive phase)
  4. remodelling and maturation
119
Q

Vaginal injury occurs with __________ rads of cumulative radiation

A

> 8000 rads

FPMRS (4 decks)

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