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Foundations Flashcards

1
Q

What tissues/cells are derived from neural crest?

A

MAGICCOPS:

  • Melanocytes
  • Aorticopulmonary septum
  • Ganglia (autonomic, dorsal root, enteric)
  • Iris stroma
  • Chromafin cells
  • Cranial nerves
  • Odontoblasts/Ossicles
  • Parafollicular (C) cells of thyroid
  • Sclerae
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2
Q

What tissues/cells are derived from the neural tube?

A

CNS (neurons, oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, ependymal cells), pineal gland, posterior pituitary, retina

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3
Q

What tissues/cells are derived from surface ectoderm?

A

Lens, olfactory epithelium, inner ear, anterior pituitary, oral epithelium, parotid glands, enamel of teeth, epidermis, sweat glands, mammary glands, distal anal canal

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4
Q

What tissues/cells are derived from mesoderm?

A

Muscle, bone, marrow, blood cells, heart, blood vessels, lymphatics, upper vagina, kidneys, adrenal cortex, gonads, dermis

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5
Q

What tissues/cells are derived from endoderm?

A

GI tract, submandibular/sublingual glands, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, lungs, thymus, thyroid follicular cells, lower vagina, bladder epithelium, urethral epithelium

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6
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: melanocytes

A

Neural crest

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7
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: aorticopulmonary septum

A

neural crest

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8
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: autonomic ganglia

A

neural crest

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9
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: dorsal root ganglia

A

neural crest

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10
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: enteric ganglia

A

neural crest

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11
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: iris stroma

A

neural crest

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12
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: chromaffin cells

A

neural crest

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13
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: cranial nerves

A

neural crest

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14
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: odontoblasts

A

neural crest

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15
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: ossicles

A

neural crest

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16
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: thyroid parafollicular (C) cells

A

neural crest

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17
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: neurons, oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, ependymal cells

A

neural tube

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18
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: pineal gland

A

neural tube

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19
Q

Name the embryological structures from which these are derived: posterior pituitary vs. anterior pituitary

A

posterior pituitary: neural tube

anterior pituitary: surface ectoderm

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20
Q

Name the embryological structures from which these are derived: retina vs. sclerae vs. lens

A

retina: neural tube
sclerae: neural crest
lens: surface ectoderm

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21
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: olfactory epithelium, oral epithelium, inner ear

A

surface ectoderm

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22
Q

Name the embryological structures from which these are derived: parotid gland, submandibular gland, sublingual gland

A

parotid: surface ectoderm
submandibular: endoderm
sublingual: endoderm

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23
Q

Name the embryological structure from which these are derived: enamel of teeth vs. dentin of teeth

A

enamel: surface ectoderm
dentin: odontoblasts from neural crest

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24
Q

Name the embryological structures from which these are derived: epidermis vs. dermis

A

epidermis: surface ectoderm
dermis: mesoderm

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25
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: sweat glands, mammary glands

A

surface ectoderm

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26
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: anal canal (proximal vs. distal to pectinate line)

A

Proximal: endoderm
Distal: surface ectoderm

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27
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: muscle

A

Mesoderm

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28
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: bone, bone marrow

A

mesoderm

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29
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: blood cells

A

mesoderm

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30
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: heart

A

mesoderm

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31
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: blood vessels and lymphatics

A

mesoderm

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32
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: upper vagina vs. lower vagina

A

upper vagina: mesoderm

lower vagina: endoderm

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33
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: kidneys

A

mesoderm

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34
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: adrenal cortex

A

mesoderm

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35
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: gonads

A

mesoderm

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36
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: GI tract

A

endoderm

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37
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: liver, gallbladder, pancreas

A

endoderm

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38
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: lungs

A

endoderm

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39
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: thymus

A

endoderm

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40
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: thyroid follicular cells vs. thyroid parafollicular cells

A

follicular cells: endoderm

parafollicular cells: neural crest

41
Q

Name the embryological structure from which this is derived: bladder and urethral epithelium

A

endoderm

42
Q

VACTERL

A 
Vertebral defects
Anal atresia
Cardiac defects
Tracheo-Esophageal fistula
Renal defects
Limb defects

(these are mesodermal defects)

43
Q

During what period does organogenesis occur during fetal development?

A

Embryonic period, weeks 3-8; most susceptibility to teratogens

44
Q

At what embryonic age does the heart begin to beat?

A

4 weeks

45
Q

At what embryonic age do the limb buds form?

A

4 weeks

46
Q

At what embryonic age do fetal movements start?

A

8 weeks

47
Q

At what embryonic age do sex-specific genitalia become apparent?

A

10 weeks

48
Q

What birth defects are caused by: ACE inhibitors/ARBs

A

renal failure, oligohydramnios

49
Q

What are the teratogenic antibiotics/what are the associated birth defects?

A

Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): ototoxicity
Fluoroquinolones: cartilage damage
Tetracyclines: discolored teeth

50
Q

What birth defects are caused by: cyclophosphamide

A

ear/facial anomalies, limb hypoplasia, absence of digits

51
Q

What birth defects are caused by: methotrexate

A

neural tube defects

52
Q

What birth defects are caused by: carbamazepine

A

neural tube defects

53
Q

What birth defects are caused by: valproic acid

A

neural tube defects

54
Q

What birth defects are caused by: phenytoin

A

fetal hydantoin syndrome

55
Q

What birth defects are caused by: lithium

A

Ebstein anomaly

56
Q

What birth defects are caused by: statins

A

CNS and limb abnormalities

57
Q

What birth defects are caused by: warfarin

A

bone/cartilage defects, nasal hypoplasia

58
Q

What anticoagulant is contraindicated during pregnancy, and which one is safe?

A

Warfarin, heparin

59
Q

What birth defects are caused by: isotretinoin

A

spontaneous abortion, skull/CNS/heart/parathyroid defects

60
Q

What birth defects are caused by: diethylstilbestrol (DES)

A

clear cell vaginal adenocarcinoma

61
Q

What birth defects are caused by: thalidomide

A

phocomelia (limb hypoplasia)

62
Q

Teratogenic effects of: ionizing radiation

A

CNS malformations (early exposure), malignancy (late exposure)

63
Q

Teratogenic effects of: excess vitamin A

A

spontaneous abortion, microcephaly, cardiac defects, interferes with neural crest cell migration or HOX gene expression

64
Q

Teratogenic effects of: maternal diabetes

A

cardiac defects, neural tube defects, caudal regression syndrome

65
Q

Teratogenic effects of: maternal iodine deficiency

A

cretinism

66
Q

Teratogenic effects of: nicotine/cocaine

A

placental abruption, low birth weight, IUGR

67
Q

Teratogenic effects of: alcohol

A

fetal alcohol syndrome: facial abnormalities (narrow eye openings, wide-set eyes, smooth philtrum, thin upper lip, cleft palate), intellectual disability, microcephaly, holoprosencephaly

68
Q

HOX genes

A

Involved in segmental organization of embryo in craniocaudal direction; mutations cause appendages in wrong locations

69
Q

Sonic hedgehog gene

A

Produced at base of limbs in the zone of polarizing activity (ZPA); involved in patterning along anteroposterior axis; mutation can cause holoprosencephaly

70
Q

Wnt-7 gene

A

Organization along dorsal-ventral axis (n, t in Wnt for nose and toes)

71
Q

FGF gene

A

Responsible for limb lengthening; mutation in FGF3 leads to achondroplasia

72
Q

Nuclear localization signals

A

4-8 amino acid sequences rich in proline, arginine, and lysine that are necessary for proteins to gain entry into the nucleus (must be a PAL to get into nucleus, and bring a positive energy)

73
Q

What three proteins bind to and inactivate cyclin-CDK complexes?

A

p21, p27, and p57 (Note: p53 controls transcription of p21)

74
Q

Transition from G1 to S phase of cell cylce

A

Cyclin D/CKD4 -> phosphorylation of Rb protein -> Rb released from E2F -> cell can transcribe/synthesize components necessary for progression to S phase (cyclin E, DNA polymerase, thymidine kinase, DHF reductase) -> cyclin E/CDK2

75
Q

Transition from G2 to M phase of cell cycle

A

Cyclin A/CDK2 complexc for mitotic prophase, Cyclin B/CDK1 complex allows for breakdown of nuclear lamins and initiation of mitosis

76
Q

Nissl bodies

A

rough ER in dendrites of neurons

77
Q

COPI vs. COPII

A

COPII: anterograde trafficking (ER to Golgi)
COPI: retrograde trafficking

78
Q

Which four amino acids does the Golgi modify?

A

Serine and threonine (ads O-oligosaccharides)
Asparigine (adds mannose-6-phosphate for lysosomal enzymes)
Tyrosine (sulfation)

79
Q

I-cell (inclusion cell) disease

A

Deficiency in mannose-6-phosphate, lysosomal enzymes are secreted out of cells.

Features: corneal clouding, coarse facies, HSM, skeletal abnormalities, restricted joint movement, may have intellectual disability, death by age 8

80
Q

Functions of peroxisomes

A

Beta oxidation of very long chain fatty acids and branched chain fatty acids; synthesis of plasmalogens (impt phospholipids in myelin); oxidases and catalase for metabolizing EtOH and other toxic substances

81
Q

3 mechanims of proteolysis

A

Proteasomal (ubiquitin), lysosomal, calcium-dependent enzymes

82
Q

6 types of intermediate filaments, where they are found, and what tumors they can be used to identify when stained for

A
  • Cytokeratin: epithelial cells; carcinoma
  • Desmin: Muscle cells; rhabdomyosarcoma, leiomyosarcoma
  • Glial fibrillary acid proteins (GFAP): glial cells; glioblastoma
  • Neurofilaments: axons; neuroblastoma
  • Vimentin: connective tissue; sarcomas
  • Nuclear lamins: nuclear envelope and DNA (not stained for, but assx with certain muscular dystrophies and progeria)
83
Q

Drugs that act on microtubules

A
  • Vincristine/vinblastine (prevent polymerization)
  • Taxanes (hyperstabilize microtubules)
  • Benzimidazoles
  • Griseofulvin
  • Colchicine (blocks phagocyte movement)
84
Q

Proteins needed for slow axoplasmic transport

A

Kinesin (anterograde) and dynein (retrograde)

85
Q

Primary ciliary dyskinesia

A

Infertility, bronchiectasis, chronic sinusitis, situs inversus (50%)

86
Q

Kartagener syndrome

A

Situs inversus, bronchiectasis, chronic sinusitis

87
Q

Draw arachidonic acid pathway

A

see page 15 of workbook

88
Q

Intrinsic pathway of apoptosis

A

Bcl-2 is anti-apoptotic, BAX is proapoptotic and creates channels in mitochondrial membrane, causing cytochrome c to go to cytosol and activate caspases

89
Q

Extrinsic pathway of apoptosis

A
  1. TNF receptor and FasR (CD95) bind to ligands and activate caspases
  2. Killer T cells release perforin to poke holes in membrane and granzyme B to enter cell and activate caspases
90
Q

Coagulative necrosis

A

Seen in ischemia/infarcts in most tissues (except brain); histology with cell outlines preserved but no nuclei and eosinophilic staining

91
Q

Liquefactive necrosis

A

Seen in bacterial abscesses, brain infarcts, and pleural effusions; due to neutrophils releasing lysosomal enzymes that digest tissues

92
Q

Caseous necrosis

A

Seen in TB and systemic fungal infections; due to macrophages walling off infecting microorganism

93
Q

Fat necrosis

A

Seen in acute pancreatitis or traumatic injury (e.g. to breast tissue); due to damaged cells releasing lipase; saponification of fat appears dark blue on H+E stain

94
Q

Fibrinoid necrosis

A

Seen in immune reactions in vessels; due to immune complexes (type III hypersensitivity); vessel walls are thick and pink on histology

95
Q

Gangrenous necrosis

A

Dry: ischemia (toes/feet), looks like coagulative on histology
Wet: bacterial superinfections

96
Q

What cellular enzymes are responsible for handling oxygen free radicals?

A

Catalase: H2O2 -> O2 + H2O
Superoxide dismutase: O2 free radicals to H2O2
Glutathione peroxidase: catalyzes free radical breakdown

97
Q

Histologic features of apoptosis

A

Pyknosis, karyolysis, karyorrhexis, membrane blebbing, apoptotic bodies

98
Q

Irreversible cell injury

A

pyknosis, karyolysis, karyorrhexis, calcium influx, plasma membrane damage, lysosomal rupture, mitochondrial permeability

99
Q

Reversible cell injury

A

decreased ATP synthesis, cellular swelling, chromatin clumping, decreased glycogen, fatty change, ribosomal detachment

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