Foundational Knowledge / Basic Science Flashcards

1
Q

“Why are medical boards involved with determining the scope of practice for medical assistants?”

A

These boards oversee the practice of medicine within a state and play a role in setting standards and guidelines.

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2
Q

How do state regulations play such a crucial role in determining the limitations of a medical assistant’s duties in medical facilities?

A

Medical facilities create their own policies to further define the roles and responsibilities of their medical assistants.

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3
Q

Why might a medical assistant pursue further certification?

A

Obtaining additional certifications such as CETS and CBCS, will increase the scope of work of an MA and can lead to better job opportunities

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4
Q

What are the advantages of being certified as a medical assistant, even if it not legally required in a state?

A

Increased initial job placement, higher wages, career advancement opportunities

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5
Q

Why does a patient require admission to a hospital or facility for inpatient care?

A

Hospitals and facilities provide 24/7 monitoring of vital signs, medication administration, and other aspects of patient care.

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6
Q

Why is it important to make healthcare services as easily accessible as possible, as mobile health units do?

A

Mobile health units overcome geographical and logistical barriers to healthcare access.

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7
Q

Which of the following visits may be appropriate for a telehealth?

A

Follow up on medical adjustments, patient education, and review of lab results

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8
Q

Which of the following visits may be appropriate for an in-person visit?

A

New pain symptoms or a physical examination

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9
Q

Describe MA’s role in patient portals

A

Enrolling in portal, necessary paperwork completed, enrollment instructions on how to use it effectively, may be responsible for uploading/updating data in the portal

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10
Q

How do value-based plans incentivize healthcare providers to improve patient outcomes?

A

Reimbursement is tied to performance, encouraging providers to focus on value (quality vs. quantity)

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11
Q

Why do HMOs, PPOs, and POS plans fall under the umbrella of managed care?

A

It emphasizes proactive healthcare to prevent illnesses and reduce long-term costs by contracts with providers create networks that patients can access

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12
Q

How does an HMO’s contract with a medical center or provider group affect patient access to care?

A

Patients typically need a referral from their primary care physician to see a specialist and require approval for certain procedures and treatments to control health care cost

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13
Q

Why do PPOs offer more flexibility than HMOs?

A

Patients can see specialists without needing a referral and have a network of preferred providers, but patients can also see out-of-network providers at a higher cost.

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14
Q

Why are POS plans considered a hybrid of HMO and PPO models

A

POS plans aim to balance cost control encouraging PCP coordination (HMO-like) with patient choice / in-network utilization (PPO-like)

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15
Q

How does capitation work in practice

A

Providers receive a fixed monthly payment per enrolled patient, which encourages providers to focus on keeping patients healthy to reduce the need for costly treatments

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16
Q

What is the primary difference between fee-for-service and value-based care

A

In fee-for-service model - determined by the cost of services provided
value-based models - determined by the value to the patient and their long-term health

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17
Q

When and why a patient benefit from going to urgent care rather than an emergency department?

A

Urgent care costs less, has a shorter wait time, and is often conveniently located. Most have flexible hours and offer walk-in appointments.

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18
Q

Analgesics

A

Relieve pain

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19
Q

Acetaminophen

A

Analgesics -Think “Aches” and “Temp” for temperature. This can help you remember that it reduces aches (pain) and fever.

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20
Q

Hydrocodone

A

Analgesics - “Hydro” can sound like “high,” which can remind you that it’s a stronger opioid pain reliever.

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21
Q

Codeine

A

Analgesics - Associate “code” with a strong, controlled substance, as it’s an opioid.

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22
Q

Antacids / anti-ulcer

A

for Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)

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23
Q

Esomeprazole

A

Antiacid

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24
Q

Calcium Carbonate

A

Antiacid

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25
Q

Famotidine

A

Antiacid

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26
Q

Antibiotics

A

To treat Bacterial infections

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27
Q

Amoxicillin

A

antibiotic

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28
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A

Antibiotic

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29
Q

Sulfamethoxazole

A

Antiacid

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30
Q

Anticholinergics

A

Smooth muscle spasms

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31
Q

Ipratropium

A

Anticholinergics

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32
Q

Dicyclomine

A

Anticholinergics

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33
Q

hyoscyamine

A

Anticholinergics

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34
Q

Anticoagulants

A

Delay blood clotting

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35
Q

Warfarin

A

Anticoagulants

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36
Q

Apixaban

A

Anticoagulants

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37
Q

Heparin

A

Anticoagulants

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38
Q

Anticonvulsants

A

Prevent or control seizures

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39
Q

Clonazepam

A

Anticonvulsants

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40
Q

Phenytoin

A

Anticonvulsants

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41
Q

Gabapentin

A

Anticonvulsants

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42
Q

Antidepressants

A

Relieve depression

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43
Q

Doxepin

A

Antidepressants

44
Q

Fluoxetine

A

Antidepressants

45
Q

Duloxetine

A

Antidepressants

46
Q

Selegiline

A

Antidepressants

47
Q

Antidiarrheals

A

Reduce nausea, vomiting

48
Q

Metoclopramide

A

Antidiarrheals

49
Q

Ondansetron

A

Antidiarrheals

50
Q

Antifungals

A

Treat Fungal infections

51
Q

fluconazole

A

Antifungals

52
Q

nystatin

A

Antifungals

53
Q

miconazole

A

Antifungals

54
Q

Antihistamines

A

Relieve allergies

55
Q

Diphenhydramine, Cetirizine, Loratadine

A

Antihistamines

56
Q

Antihypertensives

A

Lower blood pressure

57
Q

Metroprolol, Lisinopril, Valsartan, clonidine

A

Antihypertensives

58
Q

Anti-inflammatories

A

Reduce inflammation

59
Q

Ibuprofen, Celecoxib, Naproxen

A

Anti-inflammatories

60
Q

AntiLIPemics

A

Reduce cholesterol

61
Q

Atorvastatin, Fenofibrate, cholestyramine

A

Antilipemics

62
Q

Antimigraine agents

A

Relieve migraine headaches

63
Q

tópica mate, Sumatriptan, Rizatriptan, Zolmitriptan

A

Antimigraine agents

64
Q

Anti-osteoporosis agents

A

Improve bone density

65
Q

Alendronate, Raloxifene, Calcitonin

A

Anti-osteoporosis agents

66
Q

Antipsychotics

A

to treat Psychosis

67
Q

Quetiapine, Haloperidol, Risperidone

A

Antipsychotics

68
Q

AntiPYRetics

A

Reduce fever (Acetaminophen, ibuprofen, aspirin)

69
Q

Skeletal/muscle relaxants

A

Reduce or prevent muscle spasms

70
Q

Cyclobenzaprine, methocarbamol, Carisoprodol

A

Skeletal/muscle relaxants

71
Q

Antitussives/expectorants

A

control cough, promote the elimination of mucus

72
Q

Dextromethorphan, Codeine, Guaifenesin

A

Antitussives/expectorants

73
Q

Antivirals

A

Viral infections

74
Q

acyclovir, interferon, oseltamivir

A

Antivirals

75
Q

Anxiolytics (anti-anxiety)

A

Reduce anxiety (clonazepam, diazepam, lorazepam)

76
Q

clonazepam, diazepam, lorazepam

A

Anxiolytics /. treat anxiety disorders

77
Q

Bronchodilators

A

Relax airway muscles (albuterol, isoproterenol, theophylline)

78
Q

albuterol, isoproterenol, theophylline

A

Bronchodilators

79
Q

Central nervous system stimulants

A

Reduce hyperactivity

80
Q

methylphenidate, dextroamphetamine, lisdexamfetamine

A

Central nervous system stimulants

81
Q

Contraceptives

A

Prevent pregnancy (medroxyprogesterone acetate, ethinyl estradiol, drospirenone)

82
Q

medroxyprogesterone acetate, ethinyl estradiol, drospirenone

A

Contraceptives

83
Q

Decongestants

A

Relieve nasal congestion

84
Q

pseudoephedrine, phenylephrine, oxymetazoline

A

Decongestants

85
Q

Diuretics

A

Eliminate excess fluid

86
Q

furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, bumetanide

87
Q

Hormone replacements

A

Stabilize hormone deficiencies (levothyroxine, insulin, desmopressin, estrogen)

88
Q

levothyroxine, insulin, desmopressin, estrogen

A

Hormone replacements

89
Q

Laxatives / stool softeners

A

Promote bowel movements

90
Q

(metformin, glyburide, pioglitazone)

A

Oral hypoglycemic

90
Q

magnesium hydroxide, bisacodyl, docusate sodium

A

Laxatives / stool softeners

91
Q

Oral hypoglycemic

A

Reduce blood sugar

92
Q

Sedative-hypnotics

A

Induce sleep/relaxation

93
Q

zolpidem, temazepam, eszopiclone

A

Sedative-hypnotics

94
Q

Why are Schedule I drugs, like heroin, classified as such?

A

Schedule I drugs, like heroin, have a high abuse potential and no accepted medical use in the U.S.

95
Q

Why are Schedule II drugs, like oxycodone, considered dangerous?

A

Schedule II drugs, like oxycodone, have a high abuse potential and can cause severe psychological and physical dependence

96
Q

Why are Schedule III drugs, like Tylenol with codeine, classified as such?

A

Schedule III drugs, like Tylenol with codeine, have a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological dependence.

97
Q

Why are Schedule IV drugs, like diazepam (Valium), classified as such?

A

Schedule IV drugs, like diazepam (Valium), have a low potential for abuse and dependence.

98
Q

Why are Schedule V drugs, like cough syrups with codeine, classified as such?

A

Schedule V drugs, like cough syrups with codeine, contain limited narcotics and have a low potential for abuse.

99
Q

Which schedules of medication can include refills on prescriptions

A

Schedule III, Schedule IV, and Schedule V

100
Q

Indication

A

Is the symptoms or reason medication is prescribed

101
Q

Contraindications

A

Symptoms or conditions that make a particular treatment or medication inadvisable or even dangerous

102
Q

How does a side effect differ from an adverse reaction?

A

An adverse reaction is an unintended, harmful action of a medication, that can be unexpected and cause serious damage

103
Q

Why does distribution, a pharmacokinetic action, significantly affect medication safety during pregnancy?

A

During distribution, medications travel throughout the body. Many can cross the placental barrier, potentially harming the fetus.

104
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

105
Q

Which are the fundamental rights of medication administration?

A

Right patient, right dose, right route, right medication, right time