FOUNDATION OF PROFESSIONAL NURSING

Question 1

1. The nurse In-charge in labor and delivery unit
   administered a dose of terbutaline to a client
   without checking the client’s pulse. The standard
   that would be used to determine if the nurse
   was negligent is:
   a. The physician’s orders.
   b. The action of a clinical nurse specialist
   who is recognized expert in the field.
   c. The statement in the drug literature
   about administration of terbutaline.
   d. The actions of a reasonably prudent
   nurse with similar education and
   experience.

Answer 1

Answer: (D) The actions of a reasonably
prudent nurse with similar education and
experience.

Rationale: The standard of care is determined
by the average degree of skill, care, and
diligence by nurses in similar circumstances

Question 2

2. Nurse Trish is caring for a female client with a
   history of GI bleeding, sickle cell disease, and a
   platelet count of 22,000/μl. The female client is
   dehydrated and receiving dextrose 5% in halfnormal
   saline solution at 150 ml/hr. The client
   complains of severe bone pain and is scheduled
   to receive a dose of morphine sulfate. In
   administering the medication, Nurse Trish
   should avoid which route?
   a. I.V
   b. I.M
   c. Oral
   d. S.C

Answer 2

Answer: (B) I.M
Rationale: With a platelet count of 22,000/μl,
the clients tends to bleed easily. Therefore,
the nurse should avoid using the I.M. route
because the area is a highly vascular and can
bleed readily when penetrated by a needle.
The bleeding can be difficult to stop

Question 3

3. Dr. Garcia writes the following order for the
   client who has been recently admitted “Digoxin
   .125 mg P.O. once daily.” To prevent a dosage
   error, how should the nurse document this order
   onto the medication administration record?
   a. “Digoxin .1250 mg P.O. once daily”
   b. “Digoxin 0.1250 mg P.O. once daily”
   c. “Digoxin 0.125 mg P.O. once daily”
   d. “Digoxin .125 mg P.O. once daily”

Answer 3

3. Dr. Garcia writes the following order for the
   client who has been recently admitted “Digoxin
   .125 mg P.O. once daily.” To prevent a dosage
   error, how should the nurse document this order
   onto the medication administration record?
   a. “Digoxin .1250 mg P.O. once daily”
   b. “Digoxin 0.1250 mg P.O. once daily”
   c. “Digoxin 0.125 mg P.O. once daily”
   d. “Digoxin .125 mg P.O. once daily”

Question 4

4. A newly admitted female client was diagnosed
   with deep vein thrombosis. Which nursing
   diagnosis should receive the highest priority?
   a. Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion
   related to venous congestion.
   b. Risk for injury related to edema.
   c. Excess fluid volume related to peripheral
   vascular disease.
   d. Impaired gas exchange related to
   increased blood flow

Answer 4

Answer: (A) Ineffective peripheral tissue
perfusion related to venous congestion.
Rationale: Ineffective peripheral tissue
perfusion related to venous congestion takes
the highest priority because venous
inflammation and clot formation impede blood
flow in a client with deep vein thrombosis

Question 5

5. Nurse Betty is assigned to the following clients.
   The client that the nurse would see first after
   endorsement?
   a. A 34 year-old post-operative
   appendectomy client of five hours who
   is complaining of pain.
   b. A 44 year-old myocardial infarction (MI)
   client who is complaining of nausea.
   c. A 26 year-old client admitted for
   dehydration whose intravenous (IV) has
   infiltrated.
   d. A 63 year-old post operative’s
   abdominal hysterectomy client of three
   days whose incisional dressing is
   saturated with serosanguinous fluid.

Answer 5

Answer: (B) A 44 year-old myocardial
infarction (MI) client who is complaining of
nausea.
Rationale: Nausea is a symptom of impending
myocardial infarction (MI) and should be
assessed immediately so that treatment can
be instituted and further damage to the heart
is avoided

Question 6

6. Nurse Gail places a client in a four-point restraint
   following orders from the physician. The client
   care plan should include:
   a. Assess temperature frequently.
   b. Provide diversional activities.
   c. Check circulation every 15-30 minutes.
   d. Socialize with other patients once a shift.

Answer 6

Answer: (C) Check circulation every 15-30
minutes.
Rationale: Restraints encircle the limbs, which
place the client at risk for circulation being
restricted to the distal areas of the
extremities. Checking the client’s circulation
every 15-30 minutes will allow the nurse to
adjust the restraints before injury from
decreased blood flow occurs.

Question 7

7. A male client who has severe burns is receiving
   H2 receptor antagonist therapy. The nurse Incharge
   knows the purpose of this therapy is to:
   a. Prevent stress ulcer
   b. Block prostaglandin synthesis
   c. Facilitate protein synthesis.
   d. Enhance gas exchange

Answer 7

Answer: (A) Prevent stress ulcer Rationale: Curling’s ulcer occurs as a
generalized stress response in burn patients.
This results in a decreased production of
mucus and increased secretion of gastric acid.
The best treatment for this prophylactic use of
antacids and H2 receptor blockers

Question 8

8. The doctor orders hourly urine output
   measurement for a postoperative male client.
   The nurse Trish records the following amounts of
   output for 2 consecutive hours: 8 a.m.: 50 ml; 9
   a.m.: 60 ml. Based on these amounts, which
   action should the nurse take?
   a. Increase the I.V. fluid infusion rate
   b. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
   c. Notify the physician
   d. Continue to monitor and record hourly
   urine output

Answer 8

Answer: (D) Continue to monitor and record
hourly urine output
Rationale: Normal urine output for an adult is
approximately 1 ml/minute (60 ml/hour).
Therefore, this client’s output is normal.
Beyond continued evaluation, no nursing
action is warranted

Question 9

9. Tony, a basketball player twist his right ankle
   while playing on the court and seeks care for
   ankle pain and swelling. After the nurse applies
   ice to the ankle for 30 minutes, which statement
   by Tony suggests that ice application has been
   effective?
   a. “My ankle looks less swollen now”.
   b. “My ankle feels warm”.
   c. “My ankle appears redder now”
   d. “I need something stronger for pain
   relief”

Answer 9

Answer: (B) “My ankle feels warm”.
Rationale: Ice application decreases pain and
swelling. Continued or increased pain, redness,
and increased warmth are signs of
inflammation that shouldn’t occur after ice
application

Question 10

10. The physician prescribes a loop diuretic for a
    client. When administering this drug, the nurse
    anticipates that the client may develop which
    electrolyte imbalance?
    a. Hypernatremia
    b. Hyperkalemia
    c. Hypokalemia
    d. Hypervolemia

Answer 10

Answer: (B) Hypokalemia
Rationale: A loop diuretic removes water and,
along with it, sodium and potassium. This may
result in hypokalemia, hypovolemia, and
hyponatremia

Question 11

11. She finds out that some managers have
    benevolent-authoritative style of management.
    Which of the following behaviors will she exhibit
    most likely?
    a. Have condescending trust and
    confidence in their subordinates.
    b. Gives economic and ego awards.
    c. Communicates downward to staffs.
    d. Allows decision making among
    subordinates.

Answer 11

Answer:(A) Have condescending trust and
confidence in their subordinates
Rationale: Benevolent-authoritative managers
pretentiously show their trust and confidence
to their followers.

Question 12

12. Nurse Amy is aware that the following is true
    about functional nursing
    a. Provides continuous, coordinated and
    comprehensive nursing services.
    b. One-to-one nurse patient ratio.
    c. Emphasize the use of group
    collaboration.
    d. Concentrates on tasks and activities

Answer 12

Answer: (A) Provides continuous, coordinated
and comprehensive nursing services.
Rationale: Functional nursing is focused on
tasks and activities and not on the care of the
patients.

Question 13

13. Which type of medication order might read
    “Vitamin K 10 mg I.M. daily × 3 days?”
    a. Single order
    b. Standard written order
    c. Standing order
    d. Stat order

Answer 13

Answer: (B) Standard written order
Rationale: This is a standard written order.
Prescribers write a single order for
medications given only once. A stat order is
written for medications given immediately for
an urgent client problem. A standing order,
also known as a protocol, establishes
guidelines for treating a particular disease or
set of symptoms in special care areas such as
the coronary care unit. Facilities also may
institute medication protocols that specifically
designate drugs that a nurse may not give

Question 14

14. A female client with a fecal impaction frequently
    exhibits which clinical manifestation?
    a. Increased appetite
    b. Loss of urge to defecate
    c. Hard, brown, formed stools
    d. Liquid or semi-liquid stools

Answer 14

14. Answer: (D) Liquid or semi-liquid stools
    Rationale: Passage of liquid or semi-liquid
    stools results from seepage of unformed
    bowel contents around the impacted stool in
    the rectum. Clients with fecal impaction don’t
    pass hard, brown, formed stools because the
    feces can’t move past the impaction.

Question 15

15. Nurse Linda prepares to perform an otoscopic
    examination on a female client. For proper
    visualization, the nurse should position the
    client’s ear by:
    a. Pulling the lobule down and back
    b. Pulling the helix up and forward
    c. Pulling the helix up and back
    d. Pulling the lobule down and forward

Answer 15

Answer: (C) Pulling the helix up and back
Rationale: To perform an otoscopic
examination on an adult, the nurse grasps the
helix of the ear and pulls it up and back to
straighten the ear canal. For a child, the nurse
grasps the helix and pulls it down to straighten
the ear canal. Pulling the lobule in any
direction wouldn’t straighten the ear canal for
visualization

Question 16

16. Which instruction should nurse Tom give to a
    male client who is having external radiation
    therapy:
    a. Protect the irritated skin from sunlight.
    b. Eat 3 to 4 hours before treatment.
    c. Wash the skin over regularly.
    d. Apply lotion or oil to the radiated area
    when it is red or sore.

Answer 16

Answer: (A) Protect the irritated skin from
sunlight.
Rationale: Irradiated skin is very sensitive and
must be protected with clothing or sunblock.
The priority approach is the avoidance of
strong sunlight

Question 17

17. In assisting a female client for immediate
    surgery, the nurse In-charge is aware that she
    should:
    a. Encourage the client to void following
    preoperative medication.
    b. Explore the client’s fears and anxieties
    about the surgery.
    c. Assist the client in removing dentures
    and nail polish.
    d. Encourage the client to drink water prior
    to surgery.

Answer 17

Answer: (C) Assist the client in removing
dentures and nail polish.
Rationale: Dentures, hairpins, and combs must
be removed. Nail polish must be removed so
that cyanosis can be easily monitored by
observing the nail beds

Question 18

18. A male client is admitted and diagnosed with
    acute pancreatitis after a holiday celebration of
    excessive food and alcohol. Which assessment
    finding reflects this diagnosis?
    a. Blood pressure above normal range.
    b. Presence of crackles in both lung fields.
    c. Hyperactive bowel sounds
    d. Sudden onset of continuous epigastric
    and back pain.

Answer 18

Answer: (D) Sudden onset of continuous
epigastric and back pain.
Rationale: The autodigestion of tissue by the
pancreatic enzymes results in pain from
inflammation, edema, and possible
hemorrhage. Continuous, unrelieved epigastric
or back pain reflects the inflammatory process
in the pancreas

Question 19

Which dietary guidelines are important for nurse
Oliver to implement in caring for the client with
burns?
a. Provide high-fiber, high-fat diet
b. Provide high-protein, high-carbohydrate
diet.
c. Monitor intake to prevent weight gain.
d. Provide ice chips or water intake.

Answer 19

Answer: (B) Provide high-protein, highcarbohydrate diet.
Rationale: A positive nitrogen balance is
important for meeting metabolic needs, tissue
repair, and resistance to infection. Caloric
goals may be as high as 5000 calories per day

Question 20

20. Nurse Hazel will administer a unit of whole
    blood, which priority information should the
    nurse have about the client?
    a. Blood pressure and pulse rate.
    b. Height and weight.
    c. Calcium and potassium levels
    d. Hgb and Hct levels

Answer 20

Answer: (A) Blood pressure and pulse rate.
Rationale: The baseline must be established to
recognize the signs of an anaphylactic or
hemolytic reaction to the transfusion

Question 21

21. Nurse Michelle witnesses a female client sustain
    a fall and suspects that the leg may be broken.
    The nurse takes which priority action?
    a. Takes a set of vital signs.
    b. Call the radiology department for X-ray.
    c. Reassure the client that everything will
    be alright.
    d. Immobilize the leg before moving the
    client.

Answer 21

Answer: (D) Immobilize the leg before moving
the client.
Rationale: If the nurse suspects a fracture,
splinting the area before moving the client is
imperative. The nurse should call for
emergency help if the client is not hospitalized
and call for a physician for the hospitalized
client

Question 22

22. A male client is being transferred to the nursing
    unit for admission after receiving a radium
    implant for bladder cancer. The nurse in-charge
    would take which priority action in the care of
    this client?
    a. Place client on reverse isolation.
    b. Admit the client into a private room.
    c. Encourage the client to take frequent
    rest periods.
    d. Encourage family and friends to visit.

Answer 22

Answer: (B) Admit the client into a private
room.

Rationale: The client who has a radiation
implant is placed in a private room and has a
limited number of visitors. This reduces the
exposure of others to the radiation.

Question 23

23. A newly admitted female client was diagnosed
    with agranulocytosis. The nurse formulates
    which priority nursing diagnosis?
    a. Constipation
    b. Diarrhea
    c. Risk for infection
    d. Deficient knowledge

Answer 23

. Answer: (C) Risk for infection
Rationale: Agranulocytosis is characterized by
a reduced number of leukocytes (leucopenia)
and neutrophils (neutropenia) in the blood.
The client is at high risk for infection because
of the decreased body defenses against
microorganisms. Deficient knowledge related
to the nature of the disorder may be
appropriate diagnosis but is not the priority.

Question 24

24. A male client is receiving total parenteral
    nutrition suddenly demonstrates signs and
    symptoms of an air embolism. What is the
    priority action by the nurse?
    a. Notify the physician.
    b. Place the client on the left side in the
    Trendelenburg position.
    c. Place the client in high-Fowlers position.
    d. Stop the total parenteral nutrition.

Answer 24

Answer: (B) Place the client on the left side in
the Trendelenburg position.
Rationale: Lying on the left side may prevent
air from flowing into the pulmonary veins. The
Trendelenburg position increases intrathoracic
pressure, which decreases the amount of
blood pulled into the vena cava during
aspiration.

Question 25

25. Nurse May attends an educational conference
    on leadership styles. The nurse is sitting with a
    nurse employed at a large trauma center who
    states that the leadership style at the trauma
    center is task-oriented and directive. The nurse
    determines that the leadership style used at the
    trauma center is:
    a. Autocratic.
    b. Laissez-faire.
    c. Democratic.
    d. Situational

Answer 25

Answer: (A) Autocratic.
Rationale: The autocratic style of leadership is
a task-oriented and directive

Question 26

26. The physician orders DS 500 cc with KCl 10
    mEq/liter at 30 cc/hr. The nurse in-charge is
    going to hang a 500 cc bag. KCl is supplied 20
    mEq/10 cc. How many cc’s of KCl will be added
    to the IV solution?
    a. .5 cc
    b. 5 cc
    c. 1.5 cc
    d. 2.5 cc

Answer 26

26. Answer: (D) 2.5 cc
    Rationale: 2.5 cc is to be added, because only a
    500 cc bag of solution is being medicated
    instead of a 1 liter-

Question 27

27. A child of 10 years old is to receive 400 cc of IV
    fluid in an 8 hour shift. The IV drip factor is 60.
    The IV rate that will deliver this amount is:
    a. 50 cc/ hour
    b. 55 cc/ hour
    c. 24 cc/ hour
    d. 66 cc/ hour

Answer 27

27. Answer: (A) 50 cc/ hour
    Rationale: A rate of 50 cc/hr. The child is to
    receive 400 cc over a period of 8 hours = 50
    cc/hr.

Question 28

28. The nurse is aware that the most important
    nursing action when a client returns from
    surgery is:
    a. Assess the IV for type of fluid and rate of
    flow.
    b. Assess the client for presence of pain.
    c. Assess the Foley catheter for patency
    and urine output
    d. Assess the dressing for drainage.

Answer 28

28. Answer: (B) Assess the client for presence of
    pain.
    Rationale: Assessing the client for pain is a
    very important measure. Postoperative pain is
    an indication of complication. The nurse
    should also assess the client for pain to
    provide for the client’s comfort.

Question 29

29. Which of the following vital sign assessments
    that may indicate cardiogenic shock after
    myocardial infarction?
    a. BP – 80/60, Pulse – 110 irregular
    b. BP – 90/50, Pulse – 50 regular
    c. BP – 130/80, Pulse – 100 regular
    d. BP – 180/100, Pulse – 90 irregular

Answer 29

28. Answer: (B) Assess the client for presence of
    pain.
    Rationale: Assessing the client for pain is a
    very important measure. Postoperative pain is
    an indication of complication. The nurse
    should also assess the client for pain to
    provide for the client’s comfort.

Question 30

30. Which is the most appropriate nursing action in
    obtaining a blood pressure measurement?
    a. Take the proper equipment, place the
    client in a comfortable position, and
    record the appropriate information in
    the client’s chart.
    b. Measure the client’s arm, if you are not
    sure of the size of cuff to use.
    c. Have the client recline or sit comfortably
    in a chair with the forearm at the level of
    the heart.
    d. Document the measurement, which
    extremity was used, and the position
    that the client was in during the
    measurement.

Answer 30

Answer: (A) Take the proper equipment, place
the client in a comfortable position, and
record the appropriate information in the
client’s chart.

Question 31

Asking the questions to determine if the person
understands the health teaching provided by the
nurse would be included during which step of
the nursing process?
a. Assessment
b. Evaluation
c. Implementation
d. Planning and goals

Answer 31

Answer: (B) Evaluation Rationale: Evaluation includes observing the
person, asking questions, and comparing the
patient’s behavioral responses with the
expected outcomes.

Question 32

32. Which of the following item is considered the
    single most important factor in assisting the
    health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or
    determining the person’s needs?
    a. Diagnostic test results
    b. Biographical date
    c. History of present illness
    d. Physical examination

Answer 32

Answer: (C) History of present illness
Rationale: The history of present illness is the
single most important factor in assisting the
health professional in arriving at a diagnosis or
determining the person’s needs

Question 33

33. In preventing the development of an external
    rotation deformity of the hip in a client who
    must remain in bed for any period of time, the
    most appropriate nursing action would be to
    use:
    a. Trochanter roll extending from the crest
    of the ileum to the mid-thigh.
    b. Pillows under the lower legs.
    c. Footboard
    d. Hip-abductor pillow

Answer 33

. Answer: (A) Trochanter roll extending from the
crest of the ileum to the mid-thigh.
Rationale: A trochanter roll, properly placed,
provides resistance to the external rotation of
the hip

Question 34

34. Which stage of pressure ulcer development does
    the ulcer extend into the subcutaneous tissue?
    a. Stage I
    b. Stage II
    c. Stage III
    d. Stage IV

Answer 34

Answer: (C) Stage III
Rationale: Clinically, a deep crater or without
undermining of adjacent tissue is noted

Question 35

35. When the method of wound healing is one in
    which wound edges are not surgically
    approximated and integumentary continuity is
    restored by granulations, the wound healing is
    termed
    a. Second intention healing
    b. Primary intention healing
    c. Third intention healing
    d. First intention healing

Answer 35

35. Answer: (A) Second intention healing
    Rationale: When wounds dehisce, they will
    allowed to heal by secondary Intention

Question 36

36. An 80-year-old male client is admitted to the
    hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Nurse
    Oliver learns that the client lives alone and
    hasn’t been eating or drinking. When assessing
    him for dehydration, nurse Oliver would expect
    to find:
    a. Hypothermia
    b. Hypertension
    c. Distended neck veins
    d. Tachycardia

Answer 36

Answer: (D) Tachycardia
Rationale: With an extracellular fluid or plasma
volume deficit, compensatory mechanisms
stimulate the heart, causing an increase in
heart rate.

Question 37

37. The physician prescribes meperidine (Demerol),
    75 mg I.M. every 4 hours as needed, to control a
    client’s postoperative pain. The package insert is “Meperidine, 100 mg/ml.” How many milliliters
    of meperidine should the client receive?
    a. 0.75
    b. 0.6
    c. 0.5
    d. 0.25

Answer 37

Answer: (A) 0.75
Rationale: To determine the number of
milliliters the client should receive, the nurse
uses the fraction method in the following
equation.
75 mg/X ml = 100 mg/1 ml
To solve for X, cross-multiply:
75 mg x 1 ml = X ml x 100 mg
75 = 100X
75/100 = X
0.75 ml (or ¾ ml) = X
38. Answer: (D) it’s a measure

Question 38

The nurse is assessing a 48-year-old client who
has come to the physician’s office for his annual
physical exam. One of the first physical signs of
aging is:
a. Accepting limitations while developing
assets.
b. Increasing loss of muscle tone.
c. Failing eyesight, especially close vision.
d. Having more frequent aches and pains

Answer 38

Answer: (C) Failing eyesight, especially close
vision Rationale: Failing eyesight, especially close
vision, is one of the first signs of aging in
middle life (ages 46 to 64). More frequent
aches and pains begin in the early late years
(ages 65 to 79). Increase in loss of muscle tone
occurs in later years (age 80 and older).

Question 39

38. A male client with diabetes mellitus is receiving
    insulin. Which statement correctly describes an
    insulin unit?
    a. It’s a common measurement in the
    metric system.
    b. It’s the basis for solids in the avoirdupois
    system.
    c. It’s the smallest measurement in the
    apothecary system.
    d. It’s a measure of effect, not a standard
    measure of weight or quantity.

Answer 39

Answer: (D) it’s a measure of effect, not a
standard measure of weight or quantity.
Rationale: An insulin unit is a measure of
effect, not a standard measure of weight or
quantity. Different drugs measured in units
may have no relationship to one another in
quality or quantity

Question 40

Nurse Oliver measures a client’s temperature at
102° F. What is the equivalent Centigrade
temperature?
a. 40.1 °C
b. 38.9 °C
c. 48 °C
d. 38 °C

Answer 40

Answer: (B) 38.9 °C
Rationale: To convert Fahrenheit degreed to
Centigrade, use this formula
°C = (°F – 32) ÷ 1.8
°C = (102 – 32) ÷ 1.8
°C = 70 ÷ 1.8
°C = 38.9

Question 41

41. The physician inserts a chest tube into a female
    client to treat a pneumothorax. The tube is
    connected to water-seal drainage. The nurse incharge
    can prevent chest tube air leaks by:
    a. Checking and taping all connections.
    b. Checking patency of the chest tube.
    c. Keeping the head of the bed slightly
    elevated.
    d. Keeping the chest drainage system
    below the level of the chest.

Answer 41

41. Answer: (A) Checking and taping all
    connections
    Rationale: Air leaks commonly occur if the
    system isn’t secure. Checking all connections
    and taping them will prevent air leaks. The
    chest drainage system is kept lower to
    promote drainage – not to prevent leaks

Question 42

42. Nurse Trish must verify the client’s identity
    before administering medication. She is aware
    that the safest way to verify identity is to:
    a. Check the client’s identification band.
    b. Ask the client to state his name.
    c. State the client’s name out loud and
    wait a client to repeat it.
    d. Check the room number and the client’s
    name on the bed.

Answer 42

Answer: (A) Check the client’s identification
band.
Rationale: Checking the client’s identification
band is the safest way to verify a client’s
identity because the band is assigned on
admission and isn’t be removed at any time. (If
it is removed, it must be replaced). Asking the
client’s name or having the client repeated his
name would be appropriate only for a client
who’s alert, oriented, and able to understand
what is being said, but isn’t the safe standard
of practice. Names on bed aren’t always
reliable

Question 43

43. The physician orders dextrose 5 % in water,
    1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours. The I.V.
    tubing delivers 15 drops/ml. Nurse John should
    run the I.V. infusion at a rate of:
    a. 30 drops/minute
    b. 32 drops/minute
    c. 20 drops/minute
    d. 18 drops/minute

Answer 43

Answer: (B) 32 drops/minute
Rationale: Giving 1,000 ml over 8 hours is the
same as giving 125 ml over 1 hour (60
minutes). Find the number of milliliters per
minute as follows:
125/60 minutes = X/1 minute
60X = 125 = 2.1 ml/minute
To find the number of drops per minute:
2.1 ml/X gtt = 1 ml/ 15 gtt
X = 32 gtt/minute, or 32 drops/minute

Question 44

44. If a central venous catheter becomes
    disconnected accidentally, what should the
    nurse in-charge do immediately?
    a. Clamp the catheter
    b. Call another nurse
    c. Call the physician
    d. Apply a dry sterile dressing to the site.

Answer 44

Answer: (A) Clamp the catheter
Rationale: If a central venous catheter
becomes disconnected, the nurse should
immediately apply a catheter clamp, if
available. If a clamp isn’t available, the nurse
can place a sterile syringe or catheter plug in
the catheter hub. After cleaning the hub with
alcohol or povidone-iodine solution, the nurse
must replace the I.V. extension and restart the
infusion.