Foundation Block Flashcards

1
Q

Explain the principles of preparing tissue for examination under the light microscope.

A

Requires Fixation: Prevents breakdown of cellular material, antibacterial and toughens tissue - Formaldehyde (formalin) Embedding: Wash with alcohol then replace with xylene which is able to take up paraffin much better (this further stiffens tissue) Sectioning: Involves cutting the sample to the correct size Staining: Different stains used to show the cells (typically H&E)

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2
Q

What does Haemotoxylin stain and what colour is it?

A

Haemotoxylin binds to acidic or -ve charged compounds (such as phosphate on DNA). The compound is known as basophilic.

It displays as blue/purple colour.

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3
Q

What does Eosin stain and what colour does it show?

A

Eosin stains positively charged molecules (such as amino group found on amino acids). Mostly stains proteins. The compounds stained by Eosin is known to be acidophilic or eosinophilic.

It is seen as a orange/pink stain

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4
Q

What does amphophilic mean?

A

This is a compound that is stained by both H&E such as cytoplasm of cells with abundant RER. (DNA and protein)

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5
Q

Priniciple of Immunohistochemistry?

A

Use antibodies with specific component to target to bind to it. The antibody will then attach to that compound. An enzyme is attached which will change colour when a substrate it added to it.

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6
Q

What are the four basic tissue types?

A

Connective tissue, Epithelia, Muscle and Neural tissue

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7
Q

What are parenchymal and stroma?

A

Stroma: Support tissue

Parenchymal: Functional cells

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8
Q

What are the three types of Connective Tissue?

A
  1. Embryonic connective tissue
  2. Connective tissue proper (this is the tissue that supports the parenchymal, blood vessels and epithelial). There are loose, dense, regular and irregular.

Loose connective tissue has more ground substance in it.

3.Specialised connective tissue (found in bones, cartilage, adipose tissue, blood, haemopoietic and lymphatic tissue)

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9
Q

How much blood in a 70kg person?

A

5L

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10
Q

Function of the Blood?

A

Tranport nutrients, O2, hormones, heat, cells, immune cells, waste, CO2

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11
Q

What proteins are found in the plasma?

A

Albumin, Globulins (includes immunoglobulins and antibodies), coagulation proteins

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12
Q

What blood cells are there?

A

RBC, WBC and platelets

WBC: Granulocytes - Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils

Mononuclear leukocytes: macrophages and lymphcytes

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13
Q

What is haematocrit?

A

RBC Volume/Blood volume (should be about 45%

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14
Q

Cell charisteristic of RBC?

A

Biconcave disc, no nucleus or organelles, contains haemoglobulin and transports O2 and CO2

120 days in blood

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15
Q

What are Reticulocytes?

A

These are immature RBC without nucleus but has some organelles and RNA. This is how they are released into the blood. Normablast are more immature than reticulocytes (still have nucleus).

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16
Q

What are platelets?

A

Platelets are cell fragments that contain various granules (release factors for blood clotting - thromboxane and attack neutrophils). Involved in haemostasis.

Life span: 8-10 days

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17
Q

What is diapedesis?

A

Movement of blood cells through intact capillaries (transmigration)

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18
Q

What are neutrophils and its characteristics?

A

Polymorphonuclear leukocyte, phagocytic, degranulate (myeloperoxidase, lysozyme and colleganse).

Life span of several, cells part of the acute immune system, rarely found in tissue.

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19
Q

Explain Eosinophils and its characteristics

A

Granular WBC, biloped nucleus, eosinphilic (stains pink), involved in allergy and binding to parasites (IgE).

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20
Q

Explain what basophils are and their characteristics.

A

Biloped nucleus, basophilic granules (stains blue in cytoplasm), degranulates histamine

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21
Q

What are lymphocytes and it function and charactertics?

A

These are WBC that include B,T and NK cells. Slightly larger than RBC, round densely stained nucleus with thin cytoplasm.

Immune functions

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22
Q

What are monocytes and its characteristic?

A

Similar to lymphocytes with eccentric oval or bean shaped nucleus (paler) with more cytoplasm than lymphocytes.

Found in the blood stream as precursor to macrophages

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23
Q

What is the function of bone marrow with blood?

A

Site of blood cells and platelet generation - specifically immune function (B lymphocyte differentiation)

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24
Q

What is the process of haemopoiesis and explain how it works?

A

This is generation of Blood Cells that occurs in bones (adult) or liver (fetal).

Begins with haemopoietic stem cell, which proliferates then diffierentiates to either myeloid or lymphoid linage to form cells (depends on different signals).

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25
Q

What is the significance of red and yellow bone marrow?

A

Red BM is haemopoietic, Yellow is adipose tissue. New borns all bones are red. With age the axial skeleton is red and the proximal femur.

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26
Q

What is erythropoiesis and its process?

A

Common progenitor cell divides then differentiates.

Haemopoietic stem cell ->Pro-erythroblast -> normalblast -> reticulocytes

As you differentiate the nucleus gets smaller until its gone.

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27
Q

What linage does myeloid precursors lead into?

A

Myeloid pathway that produces all the blood cells except for B, T and NK cells.

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28
Q

For the four basic tissue types list their corrensponding embryo germ layer that they originate from.

A

Neural tissue - ectoderm

Muscle - mesoderm

Epithelium - all three

Connective tissue - multipotent mesenchymal stem cells from mesoderm

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29
Q

Explain what connective tissue is and its function?

A

The connective tissue makes up a large continuous compartment of the body.

Compromised of a few cells, large ECM (fibres and ground substance).

It provides structure, strength, metabolic and defensive functions.

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30
Q

What are fibres and the two types?

A

Fibres of connective tissue are mostly proteins produced by fibroblasts.

The two main types are elastin and collagen (this includes reticulin type 3)

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31
Q

What are collagen fibres and some characteristics?

A

Collagen fibres are the most abundant, flexible, strong, Wavy under LM.

Consist of three alpha-chains of polypeptide that forms helix.

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32
Q

What are the types of collegens?

A

There are 27 types but need to know:

I - connective tissue proper

II - cartilage, IV disc

III - forms reticular fibres

IV - basement membrane

VII - anchoring fibrils to BM and ECM

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33
Q

What do tendons and ligaments fall under in the connective tissue types?

A

It is dense connective tissue proper that has highly organised collagen.

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34
Q

What are reticulin fibres made of and its function?

A

Collagen type III, thin fibres and provides framework for certain tissues (bone marrow, liver).

  • Does not stain H&E, must use silver stain
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35
Q

What is elastin and its function?

A

Elastin is made up of a core elastin and fibrillin microfibrils. It founds to provide elasticity in areas such as the aorta, lung and skin.

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36
Q

What is ground substance?

A

Ground substance has high water content which cannot be stained with H&E.

Made up of GAG (glycosoaminoglycans - long unbranched polysaccharides) and glycoproteins.

Hyaluronic acid - GAG but not linked to proteins (most abundant in loose connective tissue) - negatively charged so it attracts Na+ and stains blue.

Glycoproteins involved in deposition and orientation of fibres - links cells and matrix (fibrillin, laminin and fibronectin)

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37
Q

What is the ECM and its function?

A

The ECM is made up of fibres and ground substance, has various roles in support, metabolic, control of cell differentiation, binding growth factors, scaffold for cell proliferation, continual remodelling, important in haemopoiesis etc

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38
Q

What are the cells found in the connective tissue?

A

There are fibroblasts found in the connective tissue.

Resident cells: macrophages, mast cells, myofibroblast, adipose cells, haemopoietic cells.

Wandering cells: lymphocytes, eosinophils, plasma cells, basophils etc

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39
Q

What do fibroblasts do and look like?

A

Fibroblast synthesised the ECM and has an elongated cell nuclei.

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40
Q

What are the cells/organelles shown in the EM?

A

Nucleus, RER and collagen filaments

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41
Q

What are macrophages and its functions?

A

Macrophages are phagocytotic cells involved in the immune response and wound healing. Also clears up debris and very important in inflammation.

Oval or bean shaped nucleus which is found towards one side of the cell.

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42
Q

What are mast cells and its function?

A

These cells are similar to basophils (they are granular), that release histamines, involved in the inflammation pathway

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43
Q

What cells are wandering cells?

A

Eosinophils, basophils, plasma cells and lymphocytes

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44
Q

What is the function of connective tissue proper?

A

It links and supports organs and the body, mediates nutrient transfer (must pass through this to reach cells).

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45
Q

What do the different density of connective tissue proper refer to?

A

The density refers to the density of collagen. It can be loose or dense. The thicker it is the less ground substance there is.

Dense connective tissue regular: tendons and ligaments

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46
Q

What is adipose tissue and its function?

A

These are cells that specialise in lipid storage. White has one droplet in the cytoplasm. Yellow has multiple droplets.

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47
Q

What is cartilage and its function?

A

This is specialised connective tissue involved in compression and flexibility. Proteoglycan ground substance is abundant (highly negatively charged - stains very purple).

Collagen type III - the cells are chondrocytes

Main type of cartilage is hyaline.

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48
Q

What are bones made of?

A

These are rigid and strong support structures of the body.

Collagen type I matrix (osteoid) and the connective tissue cells are osteoblasts and osteoclasts

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49
Q

What is the basement membrane, its location and function?

A

Lies between the support cells and parenchymal cells (such as epithelia).

Made up of collagen VII (binds BM to underlying tissue) and reticulin.

Also made up of collagen type IV, heparan sulfate and structural glycoproteins (laminin and fibronectin)

Cannot see it under the LM with H&E must use different stain (methamine silver)

Provides structural support, control of epithelial growth, selective barrier to nutrients, links epithelium to tissue.

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50
Q

What are the main differences between eukayrotes and bacteria cells?

A

Much smaller, no membrane bound organelles, single DNA circle, no nucleus, different ribosome size and binary fission in bacteria.

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51
Q

What are the key components of bacteria?

A

Cytoplasmic membrane, matrix, ribosomes, genome (chromosome with/without plasmids) and cell wall

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52
Q

Important of cytoplasmic membrane for bacteria

A

Essential for survival which contains proteins and lipids. Allows selective interaction with environment (entry of nutrients and exit of waste).

Location for many processes because proteins can be located in it (respiration or pseudo ER)

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53
Q

Cytoplasmic matrix and its impact on the bacteria cell?

A

It is hypertonic (relatively) so water enters the cells and will cause it to burst. But the cell wall protects this from happening.

Packed with ribosomes

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54
Q

Nucleoid of bacteria and its genetic material?

A

No membrane, chromosome is single circular DNA, looped and super coiled. No introns or exons.

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55
Q

What are plasmids?

A

These are circular dsDNA supercoiled that is independent of the chromosome.

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56
Q

E.coli and its respository gene pool?

A

Each cell has 4000-6000 genes but the entire ‘pan-genome’ has detected over 25000 genes.

This implies optional genes (accessory) on top of the core.

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57
Q

How does E.coli scavenge so many different genes?

A

Plasmids can move between bacteria, bacteriophages (viruses that afefct bacteria), pathogenecity islands, transposons, integrons

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58
Q

What is the composition of cell wall in bacteria?

A

Protects cell lysis

Consist of peptidoglycan (polymer of sugar and amino acid). Many targets for antibiotics and main component of PAMPs

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59
Q

What does the Gram stain show in the two different bacteria cell types?

A

Gram positive: The outside layer consist of the peptidoglycan

Gram negative: This has three layers instead. It has an outer membrane then followed by the peptidoglycan and finally plasma membrane,

Cell wall for Gram negative includes: Outer membrane and peptidoglycan

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60
Q

What is found in Gram positive bacterial cell wall?

A

Teichoic acids and large amounts of peptidoglycan

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61
Q

What is found in Gram negative bacterial cell wall?

A

Major feature is the outer membrane, prevents entry of bile salts and antibiotics. The outer membrane can be washed away by alcohol.

Has passageway for larger molecules to pass.

Contains lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that stabilises outer membrane - also acts as an endotoxin (PAMPs)

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62
Q

What is the structure of LPS?

A

Consists of Lipid molecule –> core polysaccharide (repeating sugar unit).

The repeating sugar units are known as O-antigens.

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63
Q

What are Acid Fast Bacteria?

A

These do not respond to Gram stains because of a thick waxy wall. It has a peptidoglycan base layer then many additional layers.

This gives it resistance to harsh environments and antibiotics. (Also leads to slow nutrient uptake - slow growth)

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64
Q

What is cocci?

A

These are circular bacteria.

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65
Q

What are rod bacteria?

A

These are bacteria that looks like rods…

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66
Q

Explain the process of Gram staining

A

Stain blue first then wash with alcohol then stain red.

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67
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

Constant maintenance of internal body environment

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68
Q

Control systems and homeostasis?

A

These are systems that cause effect to maintain the environment. Usually uses negative feedback.

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69
Q

Understand the element of control in homeostasis

A

Regulated variable, sensor, set point, comparator and effector

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70
Q

How do stretch receptors: baroreceptors and osmoreceptors work?

A

Baroreceptor – physical stretch opens up ion channels so that the influx of ions sends signal about the blood pressure.

Osmoreceptors: found in the brain and if there is more water coming in the difference in osmolality will be detected by the cell enlarging (water enters it).

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71
Q

What are effector signals of chemical and electrical and their impact?

A

Chemical - hormones

Electrical - nerve impulses

Fast vs slow. General vs localised response.

There are systems that mix the two such as adrenal glands and kidneys (renin - sympathetic)

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72
Q

What are the possible changes in set points?

A

Set points can change with circadian variation, aging and response to persistent changes in ambient levels

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73
Q

What are the implications of homeostatic clashes?

A

Sometimes two variables will contradict what the effectors will do. Such as blood pressure and body temperature while running on a hot day. The body will prioritise the blood pressure first because of the brain oxygenation importance.

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74
Q

What can we regulate blood pressure?

A

Heart rate, stroke volume and total peripheral resistance

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75
Q

What can control glomerular filtration rate?

A

Pre and post glomerular tone and mesangial cell contraction (structure associated with the capillaries - by contracting it)

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76
Q

Where is human thermoregulation conducted?

A

This is done in the hypothalamus with separate heating and cooling centres (by integrating both inputs from central and peripheral receptors)

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77
Q

What are the differences between central and peripheral thermo-receptors and where are they located?

A

Central receptors are used to detect warmth and generally found in the spinal cord.

Peripheral receptors are used for both cold and warmth (typically the skin) for preemptive warning of oncoming changes in ambient temperature.

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78
Q

Places to measure core temperature?

A

Sublingual, ear canal and rectal (this is the best method - least affected by ambient temperature)

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79
Q
Temperature variation occurs greater in the very young and very old.
Diurnal variation (higher temperature in the late afternoon)
Menstrual variation is 1 degrees higher post-ovulation.
A
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80
Q

What the thermal energy balance for the body?

A

Body heat generation + heat gained by radiation = heat loss by body

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81
Q

What are the different ways that the body can lose heat?

A

Radiation, conduction, convection, radiation and evaporation.

Many of these are dependent on moving down a thermal gradient.

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82
Q

Thermoregulatory control centres and how it regulates the body core temperature?

A

Sympathetic outflow to skin arterioles and sweat glands for cooling.

Stimulation of motor nerves to begin shivering for heating

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83
Q

What are the body’s acclimatisation to hot climates?

A

The sweating occurs sooner, more sweat volume but lower [Na+] in sweat

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84
Q

Describe fever and its how it begins?

A

This occurs because of the change in set-point temperature induced by pyrogens (whether it may be exogenous or endogenous).

Synthesis of PGE2 which is inhibited by aspirin.

Shivering occurs because the body is trying to increase the temperature by trying to reach the new set point.

Chills:

Heating mechanisms activated as set-point rises (Shivering)

Crisis:

Cooling mechanisms activated as set-point falls (sweating)

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85
Q

What does the immune system need to be effective against pathogens?

A
  1. Recognise self/non-self
  2. Should be present since birth
  3. Rapid reaction
  4. Response must be appropriate for the microbe
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86
Q

What are the two types of immunity and do they communicate with each other?

A

There is the innate and adaptive system and yes they do communicate with each other. The variation in innate signalling will shape the adaptive response to particular microbes.

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87
Q

What are main differences between the innate and adaptive immune system?

A

Innate differences: recognises PAMPs (generalised), rapid response, no memory, components include physical barrier, antimicrobial chemicals, phagocytes, NK cells and others (adaptive components: lymphocytes, antibodies and cytokines)

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88
Q

What is the overall process of the immune system (time flow from the initial exposure to pathogen)

A

Recgonition > effector function (innate, maybe immunity) > immunological memory > immune system regulation

Sometimes immunopathology due to damage by or failures in the immune system

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89
Q

What are PAMPs and PRR, who uses these?

A

Pattern recognition receptors bind to PAMPs which are shared molecular patterns found on pathogens. This induces a signal cascade.

These include TLR (toll like receptors) and NOD-like receptors

This is the recognition system used by the innate immune system

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90
Q

What are TCR and BCR and who uses these?

A

These are antigen receptors used by T and B cells in the adaptive immune system. It also includes antibodies generated.

These receptors recognise very distinct molecular patterns that seperate from self.

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91
Q

What is an antibody and what are their components?

A

Antibodies are immunoglobulin that binds to specific antigens.

It has a constant region (for isotype - different effector) and variable region (for the specific antigen)

It can be found in soluble form or bound to BCR (is the BCR)

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92
Q

Where do the immune cells originate form and what linage do they belong to?

A

All immune cells originate from the haemopoietic stem cell which differentiates into the myeloid and lymphoid progenitor.

Lymphoid progenitor produces: NK, B and T cells

Myeloid progenitor produces: Everything else

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93
Q

What are cytokines?

A

These are proteins secreted by cells that interact and affect behaviour of cells that have the appropriate receptors

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94
Q

What are chemokines?

A

These are secreted proteins that attract cells who have the appropriate receptors - by binding to cysteine containing receptors (CCR, CXCR)

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95
Q

Some characteristics about Cytokines

A

May be constitutively produced or only on activation. Different concentrations lead to different effectors. Inhibition or activation of cytokines produces many outcomes.

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96
Q

Where are most of the immune cells located?

A

Most of them are found in the blood circulation and only a few resident macrophages and dentritic cells are found in the tissues.

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97
Q

Leukocyte migration in the normal body?

A

Leukocytes are first found in primary lymphoid organ which then circulate into the blood and into the secondary lymphoid organ (spleen, lymph nodes and MALT - mucosal associated lymphoid tissue).

This circulation completes a whole cycle 24 hours for T cells. Some macrophages and dentritic cells move into the tissue.

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98
Q

Leukocyte migration when infection occurs?

A

Leukocytes from the blood into tissues by interactions with endotheliel cells. Which then bind to PAMPs on the pathogen and activate their effectors.

The lymphatics carry microbes to the secondary lymphoid organs where they bind to specific antigen. Once T and B cells are ready they will re-enter the tissue through the blood circulation.

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99
Q

What are the components of the lymphatic system?

A

Lymph nodes: sample antigens from skin and internal tissues

Spleen: samples antigens from blood

MALT (Mucosal associated lymphoid tissue): samples antigens from mucosal tissues, about 50% of lymphocytes are here.

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100
Q

Naive T and B cells migrate from the blood through specialised vessels called high endothelial vessels (HEV) to specific areas (paracortex and cortex - the paracortex holds T cells)

A
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101
Q

What are the roles/functions of each specific immune cell? (Neutrophils, macrophages, NK, eosinophil, basophil and dendritic cells)

A
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102
Q

What are the roles/functions of the adaptive immune system? (B cells, antibodies secreted, T (helper and cytotoxic) cells)

A
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103
Q

What is the role of T regulatory cells?

A

These cells act to suppress the immune system in case the system is activated for too long which may cause damage instead.

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104
Q

What are extra structures that are available to bacteria to use?

A

Flagella, fimbriae (pili), capsules and endospores

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105
Q

What is the flagellum made up of and its function?

A

It is composed of thin, long, hollow helical filaments (which contain flagellin protein).

Its function is to provide the bacteria with motility.

It is also the determinant of the H-antigen in E.coli

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106
Q

What the components of fimbraei (pili) and its function?

A

Made of the protein pilin and its function is to attach to other cells and each other. Sex pili can transfer plasmids between bacteria.

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107
Q

What are capsules that surround bacteria, its components and functions?

A

These have polysaccharides extending from cell surface. It’s hard to wash off and makes the colonies look shiny.

Seen by negative staining.

It functions to protect the bacteria from dehydration, virulence and protects against phagocytosis.

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108
Q

Bacillus Anthracis

Name, Shape, Gram Staining, Aerobic?

A

Bacillus are rod shaped bacteria, Gram +ve, produces spores, aerobic, causes Anthrax and is encapsulated

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109
Q

What are endospores and their characteristics?

A

Endospores are highly resistant dormant structures that do no replicate. They are very resistant to heat, UV and chemicals. Hard to stain and sporulation occurs when growth ceases (lack of nutrients/moisture)

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110
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

Causes tetanus, strict anaerobe, Gram +ve, Rod, capable of forming spores

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111
Q

Clostridium Perfringens

A

These fall under the same family as Clostridium tetani - just that the spores are found within the cells instead.

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112
Q

What form of replication does bacteria use and what does the Bacterial Growth Curve include?

A

Bacteria uses binary fission. The curve consists of lag phase, log phase, stationary phase (toxic substances released by the bacteria itself)

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113
Q

What are the typical means of acquiring nutrients through the cell wall?

A

Passive diffusion, facilitated diffusion and active transport

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114
Q

Different classification of bacteria based on final electron acceptor (energy generation)

A

Respiration: oxygen

Anaerobic respiration: Inorganic compound (not O2) - such as sulfur oxidising bacteria

Fermentation: organic compound (often when oxygen is used up)

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115
Q

Different types of bacteria relationship with oxygen

A

Strict anaerobes, strict aerobes, facultative anaerobes, aerotolerant anerobes and microaerophiles (best in O2)

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116
Q

Explain the principle of some biochemical testing for bacteria

A

Top row is before the tubes are inoculated. Bottom row has been inoculated. The particular tube is looking for specific characteristics. The middle tube went from purple to yellow because acid has been produced. Gas is also trapped. This looks at the ability of bacteria to ferment glucose to produce formic acid (HCOOH). Formic dehydrogenase HCOOH —> H2 + CO2, this gas is trapped in the tube.

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117
Q

What is the principle behind MALDI-TOF (Bacteria identification by Mass Spec)

A

Bombard the bacteria till it breaks down then measure the masses of the components using MS

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118
Q

Use of Genome sequencing in bacteria identification

A

Can genome the bacteria DNA to identify the exact species to allow for proper treatment

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119
Q

What are the classification methods of Bacteria?

A

Phenotype - Morphology, biochemical behaviour, surface antigens

Genetic make up

Defined as species if >97% related and genera if >95% related

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120
Q

Techniques used to identify Bacteria listed

A
  1. Microscopy
    a) Unstained - darkground (e.g., syphilis), phase contrast (e.g., cholera)
    b) Stained - Gram, Ziehl-Neelsen, capsule, spores.
  2. Culture
    a) Indication of growth requirements, e.g. atmosphere (anaerobes); temperature; nutritional
    requirements; resistance to inhibitory compounds, e.g., bile salts
    b) Colony morphology - size, shape, pigment, texture (smooth or rough), haemolysis (e.g.,
    Streptococcus), swarming.
  3. Proteomics
    Identification of species-specific proteins by using mass spectrometry on intact or lysed cells
  4. Genomics
    Determination and analysis of 16S rDNA or other sequence, including whole genome
  5. Detection of structural antigens
    a) For rapid diagnosis: by immunofluorescence, direct agglutination or latex agglutination
    b) To determine serotype
  6. Susceptibility to bacteriophages and bacteriocins
    Mainly used by reference labs to subtype certain bacteria. Will be superceded by sequencing
  7. Production of toxins and other virulence determinants
    Mostly done by testing for virulence-associated genes. Can be determined from whole
    genome sequence
  8. Pathogenicity for animals.
    Seldom done, but may be required for forensic testing.
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121
Q

What are the two types of epithelial tissues?

A

There are surface epithelium (lines surfaces and lumina - e.g. skin, GI, respiratory system, kidney and reproductive tract) and glandular epithelium (involved in secretion - single cells, invagination of multiple cells forming glands, solid organs).

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122
Q

What is the function of the epithelium?

A

It is for protection, secretion, absorption, barrier and receptors (smell and taste)

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123
Q

What are the characteristics of epithelial cells?

A

The cells have a polarity: apical, lateral and basal domains. They are connected by a cell junctions and supported by a basement membrane. It is avascular (nutrients must diffuse from surrounding tissue)

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124
Q

How are surface epithelium classified?

A

Number of layer (simple and stratified - type is determined by top layer cells), shape of cells (squamous, cuboidal, columnar) and surface specialisation (cilia or keratinisation)

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125
Q

What are simple squamous cells good for and where are they found? What do they look like?

A

They are flat cells which are good for selective diffusion of nutrients in specific regions.

Found in the mseothelium (lining of body cavity), endothelium, lining of alveoli, glomeruli

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126
Q

What are simple cuboidal cells and where are they found?

A

These are cells that look like cubes found in the thyroid follicles and renale tubules. These types of cells are generally used for secretion and absorption (used in many ducts).

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127
Q

What are simple columnar and where is it found?

A

These are tall cells (but not as wide) with an oval nucleus at the base. There are non-ciliated (stomach, small and large intestines, gall bladder and bile ducts, endocervix).

There are also ciliated ones (fallopian tubes and bronchioles - used to move mucus around with)

They mostly cover the digestive system and upper respiratory system

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128
Q

What are pseudostratified ciliated columnar and where is it found?

A

These look like if multiple cell layers are present but in reality it is just a single layer of columnar cells with cilia. This is found in the respiratory tract.

  • If it is non-ciliated it would be found in the epididymis and vas deferens

Also involved in secretion and absorption

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129
Q

What are stratified squamous and where is it located?

A

These have multiple layers of cells typicall with cuboidal cells at the base and squamous cells at the top.

Keratinising: skin

Non-keratinising: found oral cavity, oesphagus, anus, vagina, ecto cervix

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130
Q

What are stratified cuboidal and where are they found?

A

These are multiple layers of cuboidal and are found on ducts

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131
Q

Surface columnar layer overlying myoepithelial

A

This is found in glands because the myoepithelial contraction forces the contents to come out.

Salivary glands, Mammary glands (breasts), sweat glands

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132
Q

Surface columnar layer overlying basal layer

A

These are found on prostate

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133
Q

Transitional/Urothelium

A

These have a basal layer of columnar and the top layer is umbrella cells (which is able to accomodate for changing sizes) this is found on the renal pelvis, ureter and bladder.

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134
Q

What are the structures found on the apical surface of epithelia and their contents?

A

Microvilli, cilia

Microvilli - increase surface area by 20 times and contain cytoskeletal element

Cilia - are longer finger projections of microtubules that allow movement (found in the respiratory tract or fallopian tube)

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135
Q

What are the three components to intercellular junction (junctional complex)?

A

From apex to base of cells

Zonula occludens > Zonula adherens > Macula adherens (Desmosome)

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136
Q

The function of Zonula occludins as tight junctions?

A

They act to limit the passage way for what goes between cells

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137
Q

The components of adheren junctions and its functions?

A

There is the zonula and the macula adherens, cadherin is a transmembrane protein where the cadherin protudes from the two cells into the gap. In the plaque there are catenins that links the cadherins to the actin (cytoskeleton). Defects in these two proteins means that the cells do not adhere well. Cancer cells dissociate and invade other parts of the body, this is why the two proteins are so important

-Mechanically strong attachment between cells (links cytoskeleton)

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138
Q

What are gap junctions?

A

These are communicating junctions (allow selective movements of molecule between cells)

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139
Q

What are hemidesmosome?

A

These are modified desmosomes that links epithelial to underlying basement membrane (not cadherins it is integrins which act as TM protein)

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140
Q

What are Cell adhesion molcules (CAM) and role do they have?

A

TM proteins that link to other CAMs on other cells. Functions in cell adhesion, communication, cell movement and differentiation.

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141
Q

What are the four main groups of CAMs?

A

Cadherins, integrins, selectins and immunoglobulin superfamily (ICAM, CCAM, PECAM - for homotypic cell-cell adhesion)

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142
Q

What are the functions of the basement membrane?

A

Structural support, control of epithelial growth, links epithelium to underying tissue and selective barrier to nutrients.

Underlying basement membrane

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143
Q

What are mucosa membrane, where are they located?

A

Found on the body that is exposed to the external environment (resp and GI)

Has epithelium, underying connective tissue (lamina propria) and sometimes SMC (muscularis mucosae).

Has glands to secrete mucus

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144
Q

What are serous membranes and its location?

A

These are found in the body cavity and lines the peritoneal cavities, pleural, pericardium

It has surface mesothelium and supportive connective tissue.

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145
Q

What are glandular epithelial cells and the difference bteween endocrine and exocrine?

A

Exocrine secretes on the epithelium or into a duct.

Endocrine secretes into the blood.

These glandular epithelia can be single celled, invaginations or solid organs.

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146
Q

What are the three types of exocrine gland structures?

A

Simple tubular - colon

Simple coiled - sweat glands

Simple branched tubular - stomach

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147
Q

What do exocrine glands secrete?

A

Lipids, proteins, mucous (glycoprotein) and serous (protein)

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148
Q

What are goblet cells and their functions?

A

They secrete mucus from mucus droplets. Unicellular glands.

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149
Q

What are serous acini and its function?

A

Serous cells are secretory units (cuboidal) which are called acini. Secretes into a lumen.

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150
Q

What are myoepithelial cells and what are they a part of?

A

These are epithelial cells that can contract usually found on glands that require extra release.

Mammary, salivary and sweat glands.

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151
Q

Difference between labile and stable cells?

A

Labile cells are continuous going through the cell cycle and dividing.

Stable cells are outside the cycle waiting for signals to divide.

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152
Q

What does rotavirus cause?

A

It causes diarrhoea and only recent have been able to put forth a vaccination.

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153
Q

Why is it difficult to develop vaccination for some viruses?

A

The virus may target the T-cells themselves which are essential (HIV).

Viruses that incorporate their genome into our DNA also makes it very complicated to vaccine against when they go dormant

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154
Q

What are viruses are what aren’t they?

A

Viruses are strands of genetic elements which are obligate parasites. They are not cells. They are unable to self-replicate on their own or have motility (no metabolism)

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155
Q

What are the components to a viral particle?

A

Genome, capsule (protective protein shell), nucleocapsid (capsid most closely associated with the viral nucleic acid), envelope (lipid membrane), matrix (protein layer that connects the capsid and envelope glycoproteins).

Genome + capsid (core component) = virus

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156
Q

Viruses cannot be seen by normal LM so we need to use…?

A

Electron microscopy or use of light that have a much smaller wavelength (such as X-rays)

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157
Q

The capsid is a very important component of viruses, how is it arranged from capsomers?

A

Capsids are actually icosahedral capsids which means they are made up of 20 planes. The capsomers are different sized so give particles a different look.

Or it can be made up of a helical capsule (which is also enclosed by an envelope) usually found as the nucleocapsid.

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158
Q

What are complex symmetry virus particles?

A

These are not like the standard icosahedral and helical structures. These are much larger and complex out of all the viruses.

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159
Q

Multiple shelled capsid confer…?

A

A very hardy virus because of the thick layer that allow them to survive harsher environments. Such as rotavirus surviving in the GI tract.

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160
Q

How does influenza virus acquire a lipid membrane?

A

Some viruses acquire a lipid capsule by budding it off from the host cell membranes.

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161
Q

What are the benefits of using X-ray crystallography to see the viruses?

A

This allows us to analyse the specific shape of receptors found on viruses. Help us develop virus-receptor-antibody interactions that may lead to vaccines.

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162
Q

How do we classify viruses and why do we do so?

A

Classification by: type of genome, mode of replication, morphology of virion - determines family

For species we look at: arrangement of genes, sizes of proteins, serological reactions and the disease it produces

Useful to classify so we can predict how new viruses may behave.

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163
Q

All helical viruses must have a lipid envelope.

A

They are also only found in RNA there are NO helical DNA viruses.

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164
Q

What are the pathological/epidemiologic groupings of viruses?

A

Enteric viruses - intestinal stract

Respiratory viruses

Arboviruses - through insect bites

Sexually transmitted viruses

Hepatitis virus

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165
Q

What are some ways we can detect viruses?

A
  1. Use EM
  2. Grow viruses on culture - gold standard (this is actually quite hard because of the large variations)
  3. Detect specific virus proteins
  4. Host serological response
  5. Viral gene detection
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166
Q

How do emerging infections come about and why are viruses are adaptable?

A

Emerging infections generally are infections that appear in a population or had previously appeared but are increasing in frequency.

Viruses have a very high mutation rate (Esp RNA).

Zoonose (species jumping) also introduces a lot of new viruses

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167
Q

The rules to diagnosing infections in a clinical settings…

A
  1. Make clinical diagnosis based on history and examination
  2. Confirm with tests
  3. Never blindly order tests
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168
Q

What steps are involved in making a specific aetiological diagnosis of infection?

A
  1. Demonstrate organism, component or product
  2. Isolate the micro-organism (gold standard) –> since presence does not imply causality (normal flora)
  3. Demonstrate a serological response (immune response to that microbe)
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169
Q

Explain how the use of microscopy can be used to demostrate infectious agents

A

Microscope can be used to identify the agents by using different stains such as: phase contrast, darkground, gram, Ziehl-Neelsen (acid fast bacteria)

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170
Q

Explain the use of electron microscopy to identify organisms and components

A

When the component or organism is too small to detect with microscopy, EM can be used to very small particles such as viruses.

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171
Q

Principle of using antigen to detect fine microbial presence and detection of organisms.

A

Antigens are first in the solution > latex particles are attached with known antibodies> once it recognises the antigen it will cross link it

The latex particle causes clumping

This process must have a particular antigen in mind.

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172
Q

Principles of antigen detection with solid phase assay

A

This time the sample is in a solid state with antigens on it. The antibody will attach to it whilst having a label attached (the label will visual fluorescent - immunofluorescence)

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173
Q

Treponema. pallidum

A

This causes syphilis

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174
Q

Immunofluorescence is not limited to viruses and bacteria…

A

It can also be used in anatomical pathology for many biopsies.

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175
Q

The use of immunohistochemistry to identify specific antigen by using indirect immunohistochemistry

A

This is done by identifying a known antibody that binds to our target antigen. Then the typical labelling occurs.

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176
Q

How do we use capture assay to identify antigens

A

In this case we use the an antibody to first clean up the sample then wash it. Then use another tagged antibody to make it fluorescent.

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177
Q

What are the techniques that we can use to detect nucleic acids?

A

Hybridisation and PCR

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178
Q

Explain the principle of DNA hybridisation.

A

There will be a target DNA. It must be sDNA (by melting) which is allowed to be re-anneal with a probe. The probe has a particular sequence (complementary base pairing) and labelled with a fluorescence or radioactive element.

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179
Q

Explain the principles of PCR in depth.

A

The target DNA will be melted, a primer of complementary strand is attached to it. DNA polymerase is then used to extend that DNA strand until a new dsDNA is created. This process is repeated multiple of times then it is ran on a gel electrophoresis (to confirm identity).

  • Each strand created are of the same length. Despite a longer strand thats created, each time the primer attaches it’s always at the same location. Therefore creating the same length.
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180
Q

After detection of organism has been done, it needs to be isolated - list the steps required for this process.

A

It is important to attemp to isolate the organism before the patient has been medicated. These are then grown on a culture media.

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181
Q

What are the three types of specimen?

A

Sterile site: no microbiota

Site with normal microbiota

Sterile site with abutting site with microbiota (sterile passes through non-sterile area)

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182
Q

In order to demonstrate an immune response against a target microbiota - what test is needed?

(Demonstrating an antibody response)

A

Tube agglutination test (Widal test)

Heat kill the bacteria so they will not infect people in the labs. The heating gets rid of many rubbish on the surface so that the O-antigen is showing easily. The tubes are diluted. Add the bacteria to each tube, there is also a control. When the bacteria binds to the antibody they clump and fall to the bottom so that you can now see the lines in the background. The first tube is a control where the bacteria is in suspension (hanging in the middle) so that we cannot see the lines)

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183
Q

What is a titre in the immunlogical response test?

A

Titre is the greatest dilution that will allow you see the lines

184
Q

Explain the assay for the patient’s specific antibody IgM

A
185
Q

How can we tell if the infection is recent or past based on the tests we do?

A

When you first see the patient you take serum, faeces and blood for culture (store it). Then you take a second serum and check if the antibody count is going up. We check for a four fold rise in tubes (rising titre) to see if it is a recent infection.

IgM is the first type of antibody that is produced in an infection. High levels indicates a recent infection whereas IgG indicates past infection.

186
Q

What is the aetiology of necrosis?

A

Hypoxia, trauma, drugs/toxins and infections

187
Q

Define ischaemia

A

Hypoxia induced by reduce blood flow most commonly do to mechanical arterial obstruction. Timing is important in determining reversibility of tissue damage.

188
Q

Define infarction

A

Death of tissue due to loss of blood supply because of arterial occlusion

189
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of necrosis

A

The lack of mitochondrial ATP production is the key event in cellular injury.

Morphological change are far slower than the immediate metabolic death/changes.

  1. Reversible injury: ATP depletion so ATP pumps don’t work. Cell becomes swollen.
  2. Irreversible: when the cell membrane breaks, protein synthesis stop and nuclear/cytoplasm gets dissolved.

Inflammation is integral in necrosis

190
Q

What are the mechanisms of necrosis and its effect?

A

Decrease ATP, increased ROS (damage to cell contents), influx of calcium ions (activate enzymes and permeability) and eventual membrane damage and rupture.

Repursion of the damaged tissue can cause secondary damage because it produces ROS that affects everything in the cell.

191
Q

Morphology of necrosis in renal infarct

A

Well defined demarcation because of the defined blood supply. Necrotic tissue is yellow.

192
Q

Morphology of necrosis histology (coagulative necrosis)

A

Has ghost cells (just the outline) with the loss of its nucleus

The cytoplasm stains more eosinophilic (loss of rRNA and binds to damaged protein)

193
Q

In necrosis the nucleus changes describe the two processes involved

A

Pyknosis: shrinkage of the nucleus and increased basophilia

Karyorrhexis: this is nuclear fragmentation

Then eventually complete dissolution of nucleus

194
Q

What is coagulative necrosis and its characteristics?

A

Ghost outlines and occurs when enzyme digestion of tissues is slow. Occurs in solid organs except for brain.

195
Q

What is liquefactive necrosis?

A

This is necrosis where the digestive enzymes work a bit faster and transfer the tissue into a viscous liquid. Only found in the brain.

196
Q

What is caseous necrosis and where is it found?

A

This occurs commonly in the lungs due to tuberculosis. It has a cheese-like appearance. Amorphous granular debris with no distint cell borders.

The digestive enzymes speed are between coagulative and liquefactive.

197
Q

What are the features of apoptosis?

A

This is an energy dependent process. Activated by intrinsic or extrinsic pathways > activates executioner caspases to begin apoptosis.

Intrinsic - mitochondrial pathway

Extrinsic - death receptors (by Fas or TNF receptors)

198
Q

What are the causes of apoptosis?

A

DNA damage, accumulation of misfolded proteins, viral infections or immunological reactions

199
Q

What is the morphology of a cell undergoing apoptosis?

A

The cell will shrink, nuclear chromatin will condense, formation of cytoplasmic blebs which are apoptotic bodies (AB). Phagocytosis of the AB by macrophages

200
Q

What are the types of muscular tissue and individual muscle cells?

A

Skeletal, cardiac, smooth

Myofibroblast, myoepithelial and pericytes

201
Q

What are the characteristics of skeletal muscles?

A

These are somatic, striated, multinucleated peripherally muscles that stretch the entire length of muscle.

202
Q

What are the characteristics of cardiac muscles?

A

Also striated, works like skeletal muscles, network of single cells instead and can spontaneously contract.

Single nuclei located centrally

203
Q

What are the characteristics of smooth muscles?

A

These are NOT striated, spindle shaped (fusiform), these are very good at sustaining long contractions.

Centrally located elongated nuclei

204
Q

Describe muscle contraction in skeletal muscles and the content of muscle cells.

A

Contraction is between the actin and myosin. Started by an AP that travels down the T-tubules which triggers SR release of Ca2+. This the sarcomeres to contract.

Myofibril (organelles of contraction) is made up of sarcomeres.

205
Q

Ultrastructure of myofibres and sarcomeres

A

The myofibres are made up of repeating sarcomeres. The sarcomeres are made up of the overlapping of actin and myosin.

The Z band anchors the thin filament in the sarcomere (actin)

206
Q

Arrangement of cardiac muscle

A

Myofibrils and sarcomeres work like skeletal muscles. It is single cells in a network.

There may be mono or binucleate cells. These form interconnecting network which is joined by intercalated discs.

207
Q

What are intercalated discs and their purpose in the cardiac muscles?

A

These are specialised cell junctions. They hold the contractile cells together as well as transfer the force conducted.

Fascia adherentes join myofibrils across cell boundaries. Desmosomes reinforce join between myofibrils.

There are also gap junctions on the longitudinal section of the intercalated disc (not much stress on this)

208
Q

What are gap junctions’ function in cardiac cells?

A

They function to carry electrical impulse across the cells so that they contract in coordination.

209
Q

What are the characteristics of smooth muscle and its ultrastructure

A

These are spindle shaped cells, with central nucleus but no sarcomeres, myofibrils or t-tubules.

Instead of myofibrils they have dense bodies (which act as Z discs) that bind to myosin and actin

Not as organised as striated muscle - but very similar

210
Q

What are the contractile and metabolic characteristics of Type I, IIa and IIb muscle fibres?

A

The different chemistry in each type allows for differential staining.

211
Q

Are muscles able to regenerate new ones?

A

Some muscle cells have limited regeneration (skeletal muscles - satellite cells). Cardiac muscles have none.

Reasonable plasticity in smooth muscle cells as evident in atherosclerosis.

212
Q

What are the function of the other muscle cell types?

A

Myofibroblasts: close wounds

Pericytes: these are found around capillaries and regulate capillary blood flow

Myoepithelial cells: surround exocrine cell to aid secretion

213
Q

Where do peripheral nerves come from?

A

They arise from the CNS, DRG and autonomic ganglia. Some are myelinated to increase transmission speed

Axons are extended throughout the body

214
Q

How do connective tissue support the nerves?

A

The axons are wrapped in connective tissue.

There are epineurium (whole nerves), perineurium (bundles of axons - fascicles) and endoneurium (individual axons)

215
Q

What are Schwann cells and their functions? And their relation to glial cells?

A

Schwann cells are a subset of glial cells (support). Schwann cells specific support axons. The nerves are waxy (s-shaped).

These cells wrap axons in myelin.

216
Q

What are the nodes of Ranvier

A

These are gaps in the axons that allow electrical pulse to jump.

217
Q

What ganglia is found in the body and what cells support it?

A

Ganglia includes DRG (sensory), sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia. These are supported by satellite cells (glial)

218
Q

Function of inflammation?

A

Inflammation is the body’s defense after injury has occurred and typically attracts blood cells to the site of location to deal with injury and initiate repair.

May include clearing pathogens, regeneration and scarring.

219
Q

The main differences between acute and chronic inflammation

A

Acute: earliest response, rapid onset, short duration, mostly neutrophils, fluid, protein exudate, vasodilation and macrophages, specific

Chronic: is mostly macrophages, lymphocytes and plasma cells, has scarring and development of immune responses

220
Q

What are the possible causes of acute inflammation?

A

Some infections, trauma, burns, foreign materials

221
Q

What are the components to acute inflammation?

A

Vascular response > infiltration (exudate: cells, fluid and proteins) > Variable necrosis

222
Q

What happens when foreign organisms enter the body or cell lysis occurs?

A

These PAMPs and DAMPs will be recognised by PRR on tissue macrophages, dendritic cells and epithelial cells. This leads to activation of these cells that produces cytokines and thus begin the inflammatory response.

223
Q

What is the vascular response in inflammation?

A

Initially there will be transient arteriolar constriction. Then dilation follows soon after. There will be increased vascular permeability > vasocongestion which is all done by endothelial activation.

224
Q

What is the normal endothelium function?

A

Tight junctional complexes, synthesises underlying basement membrane, prevents blood clotting, prevents leukocyte adhesion, role in vascular tone.

225
Q

Explain the leukocyte migration process and all the cells and factors involved in this process.

A

First macrophages release IL-1 and TNFa once activated to act on the endothelial cells. They will up-regulate P,E selectins that bind leukocytes (margination). Rolling occurs until the leukocyte binds to integrins (ICAM-1 which binds to LFA-1). This is a stronger hold onto the leukocyte and stops them from rolling. PE-CAM are then involved in the diapedisis process while the leukocyte follow the chemokine signals.

226
Q

What happens to neutrophils during inflammation?

A

Neutrophils have short life because of the lack organelles and anaerobic resp.

They are recruited into the tissue from the blood - predominant cell for 6-72 hours. Main role is to phagocytose bacteria and break down damaged tissue.

  • Neutrophilia (increased amount in blood - since its released from the bone marrow)
227
Q

What is the role of macrophages in inflammation?

A

Come from blood monocyte, long lived, phagocytic (microbes, tissue debris) and act as APC for humoral immunity. Secretes many chemokines that affect the adaptive immune system, endotheliel, bacteria (breaks it down), tissue destruction and stimulate repair.

228
Q

How do phagocytic cells destroy bacteria once engulfed?

A

Engulfed after it binds to the surface receptors. Kill bacteria by lysozyme or ROS (NO) pathway.

229
Q

What are the cardinal features of inflammation?

A

Heat, pain, swelling, loss of function and redness

230
Q

What are the three types of inflammatory exudate that forms?

A

Purulent, fibrinous and serous

231
Q

What is the characteristic of purulent/suppurative exudate?

A

This is when there is a large amount of neutrophils that infilitrate the site (pus formation). This is associated with abscess (a lot of necrosis with inflammation).

Perforated diverticulitis - neutrophils in the wall of a hollow organ (gets necrosis) > leads to enzyme release > inflammation > perforation in the periteneal.

232
Q

What are the characteristics of a fibrinous exudate?

A

Fibrinous exudate is produced on the serosa layer and in these causes the fibrin exudates into the periteneal. The inflamed surfaces activate pain receptors and this is healed by scarring.

233
Q

The characteristics of serous exudate

A

Not many cells are found in these exudate and it is mainly fluids e.g. blisters

234
Q

What is oedema?

A

This is abnormal increase in interstitial fluid which could lead to transudate (increased hydrostatic pressure so fluid exits only - no proteins) or exudate (increased permeability)

235
Q

What the body surfaces’ first line of defense against infection?

A

There are physical, chemical and biological barriers that prevent pathogens from colonising.

236
Q

Describe the role of epithelial cells in the innate immune system

A

They act as a physical barrier while also secreting enzymes that are microbicidal. As well as cytokines to signal immune system function.

e.g. lysozyme, phospholipase A, B-defensins (peptides that enter the bacterial cell wall and disrupts it), pH

237
Q

What are commensals and their role in the immune system function?

A

The normal flora can produce toxins, antibiotics, compete for binding site on the host, and effectively tickle the immune system via interactions with the epithelial cells PAMPs,PRRs (to induce defensins.

Indirectly develops MALT.

238
Q

What kind of PAMPs do the mucosal epithelial recognise?

A

Peptidoglycan, LPS and flagellin which are recognised by TLR and NLR

239
Q

What PAMPs do the tissue fluid/plasma recognise and what are the outcomes of activation?

A

It recognises mannan (sugar) and phosphocholine which is recognised by MBL (mannan binding lectin), CRP (C-reactive protein) and C1q

Ultimately activates the complement cascade

240
Q

What are the outcomes of the complement cascade?

A

They release potent pro-inflammatory mediators > inflammation.

They are involved in chemotaxis to attract phagocytes to the site.

Opsonisation to stick proteins on microbes to increase their affinity to macrophages and neutrophils

They can even lyse the bacteria themselves (membrane attack complex)

241
Q

Briefly explain the outline of steps involved in the complement cascade

A

Activation of complement proenzymes > all pathways lead to proteolysis of C3 into C3a and C3b (C3 convertase). C3b will attach to microbial surface.

C3b will interact with other molecules to form C5 convertase which cleaves C5 into C5a and C5b (forms the core of another enzyme - membrane attack complex)

242
Q

What are the three possible activation pathway of the complement system?

A

Alternative (PAMPs), classical (C reactive protein, antibody when bound to microbe) and lectin (mannan) pathway

243
Q

Describe the alternative pathway activation of the complement cascade

A

Spontaneous lysis of C3 > C3a and C3b in the presence of PAMPs. The C3b will interact with other molecules (B,D,etc) to form C5 convertase.

244
Q

Where does C3b bind and what can recognise it?

A

C3b only binds to pathogen surfaces - because of charge, inhibitory molecules found on host cells

C3b receptors found on phagocytes

245
Q

Describe the process of classical pathway activation of the complement cascade

A

IgM and IgG bound to microbes attract C1q > recruit C1r > forms enzyme to bind C1s which forms the complex that can then initiate the breakdown of C4,2,3.

Now C4b and C2b form a C3 convertase. It produces C3b. If C4b, C2b and C3b come together it produces C5 convertase - MAC

246
Q

Describe the Mannan binding lectin pathway in the complement cascade

A

The MBL is similar in structure to C1q which attaches to repeating units of mannose and other sugars on microbes. This captures MASP-2 and activates C4.

This pathway is very similar to_ classical_ pathway now. Initiates the breakdown of C2 and C4.

247
Q

What happens after C5 convertase is formed in the complement cascade?

A

The convertase produces C5a and C5b. By recruiting C6,7,8 we can now recruit 15 units of C9 we form a MAC (membrane attack complex)

248
Q

What is the role of resident macrophages after the pathogen has infiltrated and evaded the complement cascade?

A

They are phagocytotic to microbes as well as apoptotic and necrotic cells. Secrete many factors (chemokines, IL-1 and TNFa inflammatory mediators).

Can present antigens to T cell (as well resident dendritic cells)

249
Q

What are the PRRs found on macrophages and dentritic cells and what do they recognise?

A

TLRs, NLRs, C-type lectins are the PRRs and it typically recognises peptidoglycans, LPS and B-glucans

250
Q

What happens after TLR activation and the signalling it involves?

A

Activated TLR will use MyD88 and TRIFs as adaptors to eventually converge the signalling pathway to the production of inflammatory mediators, chemokines and costimulatory molecules.

In this case especially NFkB

251
Q

What is the signalling pathway through NLRs and inflammasomes?

A

PAMPs and DAMPs bind to some NLRs which causes oligomerisation form high molecular weight complexes (recruits caspase-1 which proteolytically cleaves molecules - especially IL-1 which is a pro-enzyme).

Inflammasomes are multi-molecular IL-1 activating machines.

252
Q

In order to have effective phagocytosis the phagocytes must?

A

The microorganism must bind to the appropriate receptors. Whether it may be antibodies, complement receptors or mannose receptors.

Ingestion then occurs followed by killing.

253
Q

Steps to the phagocytosis process?

A
  1. Phagocyte binds to the opsonised organism (C3b)
  2. Phagosome begins to form by engulfment
  3. Phagosome and lysosome begin to fuse and form phagolysosome
  4. Damage and digest the microbe
254
Q

What are the mechanisms used after phagocytosis to kill micro-organisms?

A

Acidification, antimicrobial peptides (defensins, cationic proteins), lysozymes, hydrolases, lactoferin (competitors) and toxic super oxides and toxic nitrogen intermediates (nitric oxide)

255
Q

How does macrophages and neutrophils affect leukocyte migration, also name the receptors of all the adhesion molecules involved.

A
256
Q

What happens when neutrophils enter a site of infection?

A

Phagocytose and kill a variety of microbial agents. Produce cytokines and chemokines to regulate the immune response. First line of defence against infection.

Also cell lysis causes their cellular content to act as NETs (neutrophil extracellular traps) to catch bacteria.

257
Q

How does the body typically deal with extracellular parasites?

A

By IgE loaded eosinophils.

258
Q

Explain the process of how NK exerts its function against viral infection

A

NK enters cell via chemotactic signals, bind and kill altered cells.

Typically detect changes in MHC I (which normally acts as an inhibitory molecule)

259
Q

What are the differences between anterior and posterior skin in relation to the back?

A

Anterior skin is more sensitive than the posterior skin. This is due to the nerves innervation. The blood supply is much more diffuse on the back.

260
Q

How much percentage of the skin does the back represent?

A

From the 9% rule we can estimate to about 18% of the total skin

261
Q

Where is the demarcation of the back area?

A

T1 vertebra - coccyx, medial border of the scapula, posterior surface of the ribs and the iliac crest.

262
Q

Where does the rib form along the vertebral column?

A

T1-T12 which includes true ribs, false ribs and floating ribs.

263
Q

What are primary and secondary curves - and where do the secondary curves occur in relation to the adult?

A

The primary curve is the area of the vertebra where the fetus C-shape direction is maintained. Secondary curves are lordosis of the vertebra at specific areas.

  • Lordosis is found in the cervical and lumbar regions.
264
Q

What are the three abnormal curvatures that can occur?

A

Abnormal lordosis, kyphosis (exaggeration of the thoracic region) and lateral scoliosis.

265
Q

In relation to the ribs there are cranial and caudal shifts, explain their significance.

A

With the cranial shift it is a change towards the head. We may find a cervical rib at C7. And a reduction in T12 rib size.

Caudal shift is the other direction, so we may find an elongated rib at T12 and one at L1 (lumbar ribs).

266
Q

What is the difference between the superficial muscles and deep muscles in the back?

A

Superficial (deep) muscles are muscles that have one attachment to the vertebra and one to the upper limb (allows movement)

Deep (intrinsic) muscles have both attachments to the vertebra.

267
Q

Describe the typical lumbar vertebra and its boundaries and parts.

A

Vertebra body with an epiphyseal ring around it. There is the vertebral canal (neural arch) made up of the pedical (root) and lamina (found near the spinous processes) - The shape of the canal is distinctive for lumbar.

There is the spinous process and transverse process (for muscle and ligament attachment).

There is the superior and inferior vertebral notch.

Superior and Inferior articular processes.

268
Q

Describe the typical thoracic vertebra.

A

It is similar to the lumbar but the vertebral canal is round. And has articular facets found for tubercle of ribs.

269
Q

Where and what is the pars inter-articularis?

A

This is the region between the articular process above and below. This site is a common location for weakness which may lead to fractures.

270
Q

What is the sacrum and coccyx and their significance?

A

There is fusion between sacrum and coccyx. The sacrum is a triangular bone with 5 vertebras fused. No joints, but may see pseudo joints when young.

Oriented in coronal plane S1 facet surfaces.

Foreminae for nerve roots and vessels in anterior and posterior (including sacral vein)

Deep veins have no valves (antegrade and retrograde flow)

271
Q

What are the two types of ossification, when and where do they begin?

A

3 primary centres in the body (and each neural arch) begins about 8 weeks.

5 secondary centres at the tip of spinous and tranverse procceses and the upper and lower margins of the body (annular epiphysis).

Secondary centres normally close late adolescence (begins at puberty) when vertebral growth is done.

  • May be source of mistake of fractures in young children.
272
Q

What makes up the joints of the vertebra and what is it made of?

A

The joints of the vertebra is the intervertebral discs. Make of a nucleus pulposus and annulus fibrosus.

The NP is made up mostly of water which is deformable but not compressible. The annulus fibrosus pulls everything together and holds it in place.

Accumulative shorterning - loss of water

Annulus is in perpendicular layers. So twisting is dangerous because of 50% of the fibres out of place.

273
Q

What are the ligaments found on the back?

A

Anterior longitudinal ligament, posterior longitudinal ligament, interspinous ligament, supraspinous ligament, posterior longitudinal ligament.

274
Q

What are the ligaments found around the vertebral canal?

A

The posterior longitudinal ligament and ligamentum flavum (between lamina). The ligamenets are slightly elastic to allow for movement too.

275
Q

What is the iliolumbar ligament?

A

This is the ligament that connects the lumbar to the iliac crest. This is with the L4 lumbar which has the transverse processes coming out of the vertebral body (more support)

276
Q

What are the nerve and blood supply to the disc?

A

Common spinal nerve comes from the posterior and anterior roots joining together.

Posterior is always sensory. Ventral root is effector. The block is the dorsal root ganglia with sensory cell bodies.

Anterior horn of the spinal cord has the cell body of motor neuron.

Cell bodies of sympathetic neurons in the T1-L2

Anterior ramus contains both sensory and motor neurons (goes to the front of the body wall and upper and lower limbs)

Posterior ramus has sensory and motor neurons and it goes to the back and supplies to the intrinsic muscles, skin, joints (fasic).

Outer third of an intervertebral disc is innervated and it can be a direct source of pain. (Also supplied with blood 1/3)

277
Q

What are the joints of the vertebral arches?

A

There are synovial joints, fibrous capsules (allows little movement), capsule supplied by branches of posterior rami (also supply intrinsic muscles and overlying skin)

Bones are lined with hyaline cartilage (avascular and aneural).

Articular surfaces surrounded by fibrous capsules (vascular and neural supply)

And synovial membrane (a membrane that lines the fibrous capsule)

278
Q

Why are the orientation of facets on the vertebral arch important?

A

The orientation dictates the plane that it allows movement for.

  • Thoracic is the coronal plane
  • Lumbar in the sagittal plane
  • L5/S1 these surfaces are shifted so they are more in the coronal phase
279
Q

What is the clinical significance of the lumbar sacral joint?

A

L5 is looking out into the pelvis so it runs the risk of slipping in. The iliolumbar ligament is what limits this from happening.

Spondylolisis is a defect of the inter pars-articularis (prone to fractures) and Spondylolisthesis is the forward positioning of the L4-L5 and L5-S1.

280
Q

What are the boundaries of the vertebral canal?

A

Boundary is the vertebral body, arches, ligaments and IV disc.

281
Q

What are the contents found in the vertebral canal?

A

Spinal cord which is protected by the meninges. From inside out: Pia mater, subarachnoid space, arachoid mater then dura mater. There is the extradural space with extradural fat and venus plexus (anterior internal vertebral)

282
Q

What are the boundaries of the intervertebral foramen?

A

It is the IV discs, superior and inferior vertebral notch.

283
Q

What are the contents found in the IV foramen?

A

Nerve roots are found near the superior margin of the opening. If there is a prolapse (herniation) from the nucleus proportion it would not compress the nerve root coming out and located in the superior area. But it will affect the nerve roots found near the bottom.

DRG is always within the intervertebral foramen but the roots may be different (further down). Blood vessels arteries and veins.

284
Q

What are the blood supplies and venous drainage of the spinal cord?

A

The blood supplies are posterior intercostals, lumbar arteries and lateral sacral. Horizontal blood supply provides it to bones and entry into spinal cord via IV foramen. These are drained to the internal vertebral venous plexus.

External -> Internal plexus.

285
Q

Where does the spinal cord end in the adult and growing child?

A

At birth the spinal cord is at L3 but the body grows faster than the spinal cord.

1st trimester - S5, 2nd trimester - S1, Birth -L3, Adult - L1

286
Q

Why do we do the lumbar puncture at The L3/4, L4/5 or L5/S1?

A

This is because CSF is found in these areas without running the risk of puncturing the spinal cord (nerve roots here).

287
Q

Why do we inject anaesthesia in the epidural space?

A

This is the extradural space so the drugs will act directly on the nerves for pain relief.

288
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

This is when the spine does not close/fuse properly at L3/4 and may lead to protrusion (occulta or cystica).

289
Q

How does flexion or extension of the back affect the IV discs?

A

Flexion will cause the nucleus to project posteriorly (issue for people with prolapse of IV discs) and hyperflexion may stretch the sciatic nerve.

Hyperextension of the back can increase stress on the facet joints.

290
Q

Lateral flexion of body is limited by what and permitted by?

A

Lateral flexion is allowed by the lumbar spine but limited by the ribs.

291
Q

Which part of the back permits what movement?

A

Orientation of articular facets: Thoracic - permits rotation in the coronal plane

Lumbar - permits flexion/extension in sagittal plane

Lumbosacral - limits movement in the sagittal plane

292
Q

What are the superficial muscles found on the back?

A

Trapezius, Latissimus dorsi, rhomboids and levator scapulae

Cervical myotomes migrate to the posterior aspect of the scapula and the ribs down to the iliac crest. Since myotomes originated from cervical area the innervation will be from there too.

293
Q

How are the superficial muscles of the back innervated and where do they originate from?

A

Originate from cervical myotomes and are innervated by anterior rami (nerves are faithful to their embryological origin.

294
Q

What do the posterior rami supply to, if the superficial back muscles are supplied by the anterior rami?

A

The posterior rami penetrates the superficial muscles and innverates the deep muscles

295
Q

What are the intermediate muscles of the back that aid in respiration?

A

The serratus posterior superior and inferior act on the ribs and are innervated by anterior rami.

296
Q

What are the deep muscles of the back?

A

Erector spinae - The lateral border of erector spinae corresponds with the angle of rib (common fracture site). They run medial to lateral and are prime movers.

Transversospinalis - short muscles run from lateral to medial across few vertebral segments (acts as stabilisers)

297
Q

How do deep back muscles work, especially eretor spinae?

A

Prime mover involved in concentric and eccentric. They work eccentrically when we are controlling flexion. At full flexion the muscles are electrically quiet and leads to danger in lifting in flexed posture.

298
Q

How do deep muscles work, especially transversospinalis?

A

These are segmented stabilisers together with abdominal muscles (transversus abdominis) form ‘corset’ around trunk via lumbar fascia. Back is also strengthened through core strengthing of deep abdominal muscles. Deep muscles are stimulated which then uses lumbar fascia to stimulate deep back muscles.

299
Q

What are the supply systems of the back?

A

Dorsal type skin. Superficial veins and lymphatics pass anteriorly and arteries pass through muscles with dorsal rami to skin.

300
Q

What are angiosomes and their impact on the back?

A

Angiosomes are vascular territories and allows for skin grafts to be taken in particular areas.

301
Q

How are the nerves supply of the deep back muscles?

A

These are innervated by the posterior rami: which affects the overlying skin, deep back muscles and facet joints.

302
Q

What is the reflex muscle spasm that protects nerves from further damage?

A

This is found posterior to the nerves and is activated when nerves are being damaged because they have the same nerve supply

303
Q

What are the two main types of back pain?

A

Mechanical (such as muscle pain due to abnormal posture) and compressive type pain

304
Q

When and how does compressive/neurogenic pain occur?

A

This is caused by nerve root irritation or pinching. This is most likely caused by herniated discs or spinal stenosis (this is when the space is abnormally narrow - which may affect exiting nerves)

305
Q

What are the three types of disc prolapse?

A

Bulge, Herniation and Extrusion which affects IV canal and foramen.

306
Q

What stops discs prolapse from occuring in the back?

A

Posterior longitudinal ligament - causes most protrusions to be posterior lateral

307
Q

Where is the nerve root most susceptible to nerve root compression?

A

Nerve roots are typically found in the upper part of the foramen. Lumbar disc prolapse affect nerve roots (due to narrow lumbosacral foramen, large lumbasacral disc).

S1 nerve root

308
Q

What are the main contributors to disc prolapse?

A

Lumbar flexion, rotation, overweight, keeping lower limbs extended

309
Q

How do disc degeration affect nerve roots?

A

With age the discs will degenerate and the edges may protude to pinch on nerve roots

310
Q

What is spondylosis?

A

This is when bones tend to lose water and become less dense (with age). This causes overgrowth of bone producing bony spurs (osteophytes) that can extend into the foramen, narrowing them (stenosis) and compressing exiting nerve roots

311
Q

Where do TCR and BCR bind on the antigen?

A

They bind to the antigen epitope or determinant. One antigen can have many epitoptes.

312
Q

Are protein determinants linear or discontinuous?

A

They can be either, discontinuous (conformational)

313
Q

What kind of epitopes do antibodies bind to?

A

Conformational shape not linear

314
Q

What are the characteristics of antigen receptors found on the B cell?

A

B cells have a reservoir of diverse specific receptors. Each cell has multiple copies of a single specific receptor.

315
Q

What are the two forms of Ig (B cell receptor) found?

A

They are either bound to the surface (embedded in the B cell membrane) or secreted Ig.

316
Q

What is the structure of Ig (antibodies)?

A

Antibodies have heavy and light chains (2 of each). There is also the constant region and variable region. The antigen binds to the variable region.

Chains are bound by disulfide covalent bonding

Five different isotypes of the constant region: A, D, G, M, E (determines action of Ig)

317
Q

What are the short hand for the variable and function region?

A

Fab - variable

Fc - constant

318
Q

What is the function of Fab and Fc?

A

Fab is where the antigen binds to

Fc mediates the effector functions. May include activation of classical complement cascade. Delivery of Abs through active transport to various compartments (IgA in mucus)

319
Q

What is the process of making the large array of diverse BCR?

A

Diversity is achieved by gene rearrangement of the:

Heavy chain V region: V, D and J.

This V region connects to a constant (C) gene.

Light chain V region: V and J

Which then also connects to constant gene.

  • This is all done through enzyme RAG
320
Q

What are the four main processes for diversity of BCR?

A
  1. V region
  2. Junctional diversity
  3. Combinatorial diversity (different pairing of light and heavy chains)
  4. Somatic hypermutation (further mutate antigen after maturation)
321
Q

Explain the process of heavy chain rearrangement, including somatic recombination, RNA, splicing.

A

DJ rearrange first, then VDJ then forms primary RNA transcript. This is then spliced to form the mRNA to be translated into the protein.

Produces both IgM and IgD (both expressed on naive B cells - IgM is secreted first)

322
Q

Explain the light chain gene rearrangement in B cells

A

First somatic recombination where VJ joins first. Primary transcript is made which is then spliced into a mRNA. This is translated into ‘k’ light chains. ‘l’ light chains only rearranges if k is not successful.

323
Q

What is the most important process in the BCR diversity?

A

The junctional diversity makes the greatest diversity to mediated by TdT (terminal deoxytransferase - further adds DNA at the end). Joining of different segments with deletions and insertions of nucleotides.

324
Q

There are many checkpoints along this process to make sure this process will work where are they?

A
325
Q

What are the cells and their pathway from pluripotent cells to B cells?

A

Early lymphoid progenitor cell > common lymphoid progenitor > Pro B cell > Pre B cell > Immature B cell > mature B cell (leaves bone marrow)

326
Q

What are some ligands and cytokines involved with bone marrow stromal cells in the production of B cells?

A

Flt3 is important on the multipotent progenitor cell which begins onto the common lymphoid cell (ligand found on stromal cells). Once a common lymphoid cell it requires IL-7 to push this process through to produce immature B cells.

327
Q

Where is the large checkpoint in the B cell development?

A

This is at the large pre B cell.

Pre-B receptor will act as a checkpoint by acting like a light chain analogue which binds to H chain (allows kinases to attach - then give signals to continue maturation of B cells).

328
Q

What is the final check for B cell development?

A

Check for autoreactivity, will kill cell if it is before releasing the immature B cell into circulation (IgM and IgD)

329
Q

When does somatic hypermutation occur?

A

This is introduced in the secondary lymphoid tissue after antigen binding.

330
Q

What are the three characteristics that allow B cells to be so effective?

A

Proliferation, affinity maturation and isotype switching (specialisation)

331
Q

What is isotype switching and how does it occur?

A

B cells change their antibody isotype after antigen encounter.

IgM > G > E > A

Occurs in secondary lymphoid tissue after antigen stimulation. Involves irreversible recombination events. The microenvironment determines the isotype produced (CD4T, TFH, NKT).

  • This is dependent on T-cell help

Cytokines control the isotype produced. Such as TGFb (A), IL-4 (E) and IFN-g (G)

There is rearrangement of C (heavy) region that gives new isotype. VDJ is untouched.

332
Q

How does the antibody isotype and affinity look after the primary and secondary exposure to the pathogen?

A
333
Q

What are the specific functions of the different isotypes?

A

IgG,A - Neutralisation

Opsonisation: IgG, IgA

ADCC: IgG

Degranulation: IgE

Complement activation: IgM > IgG and IgA

IgM is pentameric increases number of binding site so can fixate complement well.

334
Q

What are FcRs?

A

These are Fc receptors that bind to Ig. Different cells will have different FcR to bind to different isotypes.

335
Q

How do antibodies facilitate neutralisation?

A

Preventing viruses and bacteria binding to cell surfaces for infections

336
Q

What is the antibody’s role in opsonisation?

A

The antibody will attach to the bacterium which will now have affinity for FcR on phagocytes. (Easier recognition for phagocytosis)

Also classical activation of complement. IgM and IgG will attract C1 to begin the process.

337
Q

How does IgA function in the protective role against pathogens?

A

These form dimers which are able to actively cross the cytoplasm and excrete into a lumen.

338
Q

What is affinity maturation and what does it result in?

A

B cell increases affinity for a particular pathogen. Dependent upon mutations in V region of heavy and light chains. Needs continued antigen stimulation and needs T-cell help.

When immune response dies down only the higher affinity surfaces are selected for survival

339
Q

What are Koch’s Postulates?

A
  • Organism found in all patients with disease
  • Found in lesions
  • Cultivate outside host
  • Reproduce disease in other species
  • Demonstrate immune response
340
Q

What is the difference between primary pathogens and opportunistic pathogens?

A

Primary pathogens will cause disease in non-immune but normal functioning immune system.

Opportunistic pathogens take advantage of immunocompromised hosts.

341
Q

Key attributes of pathogens are?

A

Colonisation, Invasion, multiplication and tissue damage

342
Q

How do bacteria overcome the mucus surfaces?

A

Must overcome commensals, pass through mucus and resist their defences then finally adhere to epithelial cells.

343
Q

How do bacteria adhere to cell surfaces?

A

This is done through fimbriae or non-fimbriate adhesions (surface proteins).

These bind to oligosaccharides found on the cell membrane.

344
Q

How do commensals prevent bacteria infection?

A

The commensals actually compete for binding sites of the pathogens so that they cannot adhere. The commensals themselves are just associated (not adhered)

345
Q

How to test for evidence that fimbriae is important in virulence?

A

Can use fimbriated vs non-fimbriated bacteria. Done with ETEC (binding to human intestine CS3) for piglets.

346
Q

How to use passive or active immunity to test for the evidence of fimbriae virulence?

A

Vaccinate the mother pig with K88 antigen (ETEC) and see if their piglets will be immune to ETEC or not?

347
Q

How do adhered pathogens penetrate the epithelial?

A

They can either travel through or between the cells.

Another mechanism is pathogen mediated endocytosis (initiated by invasins)

348
Q

Explain the example of (Enteropathogenic) Yersina and M cells in relation to pathogen mediated endocytosis.

A

Yersina have invasins which will recognise particular M-cell (antigen sampling cell in intestine) integrins which will initiate endocytosis.

349
Q

What is the consequence of invasion for the bacteria?

A

They either face host defences or find a niche location.

350
Q

What are the outcomes of invasion?

A
351
Q

How do pathogens overcome the host defences (simple answer)?

A

Affect phagocytes, interfere with oposinins (antibodies and complement)

352
Q

How do pathogens affect phagocytes to evade host defences?

A

They can secrete leukocidins (kill WBC - strep pyrogenes)

Produce anti-inflammatory toxins and enzymes (Cholera toxin)

Have surface anti-phagocytic structures

353
Q

How can we get evidence for capsular virulence?

A

Test capsulated vs uncapsulated bacteria. Passive and active immunisation against capsule.

354
Q

How can capsules enhance virulence?

A

Electrostatic repulsion to prevent near cell contact. Resemble host components (contains hyaluronic acid) and mask underlying structure (e.g Meningicoccus B). It also prevents oposinisation.

355
Q

How does our body use antibodies to overcome capsules?

A

The antibody will bind to the capsule with its Fab. If it is IgM or IgG it will then activate the complement (classical) cascade.

It binds to C3b receptors on specialised phagocytes (macrophages and neutrophils)

356
Q

Stages of phagocytosis

A
357
Q

What are mechanisms that we employ to kill bacteria?

A

Lysosomal enzymes, defensins, reactive oxygen and nitrogen intermediates.

358
Q

How do intracellular pathogens prevent getting killed by phagocytes?

A

Inhibit the respiratory burst, prevent phagolysosome formation, escape phagocytic vacuole, resist bactericidal systems (M.tuberculosis acid fast bacteria)

359
Q

How does the pathogen overcome adaptive immunity?

A

Direct immunosuppresion, express weak antigens, antigenic diversity and antigen modification

360
Q

How do pathogens cause tissue damage?

A

Directly from the pathogen (release of toxins), induction of cytokinesa and immunopathology (inflammation to infections).

361
Q

What are the targets of Extracellular acting toxins?

A

Intact host cells, ECM and other host molecules (lipids,fibrin, nucleic acids,etc)

362
Q

Whats the difference between cytotoxic and cytotonic toxins?

A

Cytotoxic is actually poisonous to cells. Whereas cytotonic changes functions in cells but does not actually kill it. Both change protein synthesis

363
Q

What are the two classes of intracellular toxins?

A

Simple (uncommon) and Bi-functional (A-B type)

A- active portion, B- binding portion.

Binds to specific cells via B, A is internalised.

Toxoids do not have a functional A component.

364
Q

What are toxoids (in vaccination)?

A

Toxins that have no more toxic effects but still elicit antigenic response.

365
Q

What are the role of T-cells in the host defence?

A

It is to combat intracellular pathogens.

366
Q

What do we need to do to activate T cells?

A
  1. Acquire and process the antigen through MHC I and II
  2. Interact with naive T cells to induce effector T cells.

Adhere to T-cells, present MHC and provide co-stimulation to T cells (tolerance mechanism). This is done by professional APC - macrophages, dendritic and B cells.

367
Q

How do T cells recognise antigens? (It is different from B cells)

A

TCR can only recognise linear epitopes. Therefore they must be degraded to 8-11 AA then presented on MHC molecules.

368
Q

What is the structure of TCR made of?

A

It is an heterodimer of an a and B chain. Encoded by rearrangement of genes (similar to Ig)

TCRa - VJ C

TCRb - VDJ C

NO somatic hypermutation after antigen

Checkpoint - autoreactive cell removed (negative selection) and it receptor can bind to MHC (positive)

369
Q

What are the two types of T cells and what are their functions?

A

CD8+ T - cytotoxic that kill infected cells and neoplastic cells

CD4+ T - Produce cytokines to help specialise the adaptive and innate response (cytokine is dependent on stimulus received)

370
Q

What is needed for T cell activation?

A

APC must travel to lymph nodes to allow for antigen presentation via MHC.

371
Q

What are the two classes of MHC molecules?

A

I - Found on all nucleated cells

II - APC

Class I - HLA A, B and C

Class II - HLA DR, DP and DQ

372
Q

What is the structure of MHC I?

A

Bound to a3 to a2 to a1 then B2m which is not covalently bound to the cells. a2 and a1 groove forms MHC binding cleft for proteins

373
Q

What is the structure of MHC II molecules?

A

It has a B chain and alpha chain. Binding cleft is found between the B1 and a1 unit (binds slightly larger peptides).

374
Q

Expression of MHC molecules and the significance of the polymorphism of the gene?

A

MHC is co-dominantly expressed on the cells. Each cell will express 6 alleles (mother and father).

The polymorphism allows you to target a larger range of antigens on a population scale (localised to the binding cleft of the molecule). Resistance/susceptibility to many diseases and transplant issues.

375
Q

What does the MHC polymorphism alter?

A

It alters the binding cleft and the anchors to hold down different antigens. Can hold different peptides as long as it has the same common anchor residues.

Sometimes it may alter MHC’s ability to bind to certain TCR as well.

376
Q

What are the two different antigen processing pathways in APC for MHC I and II?

A

The protein antigen is processed into either cytosol (class I) or endosomes (class II)

Class I: Degrade antigen, uptake into ER, synthesis of Class I, Interaction of Class I with antigen, transport from ER to surface of cell.

Class II: Endocytose the antigen and degrades it, Class II assembled in ER and bound to chaperone (it is unstable at peptide binding site so need pseudo ligand), transported from the ER, then associated with the peptide displacing ‘li’ chain and sticking on the peptide, then expressed on the cell membrane.

May also be cross presentation movement of MHC II to the MHC I pathway.

377
Q

What are super antigens?

A

These are antigens that bind to conserved regions of MHC II B1 chains and on the chain of T receptors. This makes it able to bind non-specifically to activate T cells. Activate a large number of T cells -> significant pathology.

378
Q

What are the cells that T cells can recognise that are not classically recognised with MHC molecules?

A

NKT and gamma delta T cells because they have semi-invariant alpha-beta chain.

Fit into MHC-1 like molcules.

379
Q

What do CD4 and CD8 T cells recognise and with what co-stimulatory molecule?

A

CD4 - MHC II, CD4 stabilises the binding

CD8 - MHC I, CD8 stabilises the binding

380
Q

How do the different APC take up the antigens?

A

Macrophages: Mannose receptor and FcR -> phagocytosis or receptor mediated endocytosis

Activated B cell: receptor mediated endocytosis (via Membrane bound Ig)

Dendritic cells: Take up small soluble antigens, macropinocytes (grabs little bits of environment for sampling) and receptor mediated endocytosis. Mannos and FcR too.

381
Q

What is the activity of dendritic cells in normal tissue?

A

They are very good at sampling antigens but not at presenting them.

Sample antigens by Mannose and FcR (macropinocytosis). Unable to migrate to lymph nodes, low levels of MHC II on membrane (it is found intracellularly with endocytic vesicles)

382
Q

How can we initiate maturation of DCs?

A

The DCs need to bind to pathogens and be in the presence of PAMPs or DAMPs (signals danger to cell). These are recognised by TLRs

383
Q

What happens when DCs are in the presence of antigen and danger molecules PAMPs and DAMPs as well as signalling molecules type I interferons?

A

The DCs lose anchor molecules (free to move), increase in chemokine receptor expression CCR7 to allow for migration of DCs to lymphatics. Also increase in secretion of cytokines and chemokines to attract precursor DC and monocytes to infected site for more uptake of antigen.

384
Q

What are the maturation outcomes when the correct signals are present for DCs?

A

Increase in MHC I and II on surface, increase antigen processing, increase adhesion molecules (for T cells), secrete new chemokines (attract naive T cells in lymph node), but mature DCs cannot capture antigen, expresses co-stimulatory molecules (CD80,86) and secrete cytokines (IL-2, IL-12)

385
Q

Explain the pathway to naive T cell binding with DCs at first.

A

At first it is low affinity binding with the adhesion molecules found on DCs (ICAM1-LFA1, CD58-CD2) which is then stabilised by the TCR-peptide interaction with MHC.

This stabilisation causes a conformational change in LFA-1 to increase binding affinity -> high affinity now

386
Q

What is the two signal theory for the activation of T cells? Is there a third signal as well?

A

The first signal is the MHC peptide and TCR.

The second signal isCD80/86 (DC) binding to CD28 (expressed on naive T cells) - costimulation

The thrid signal is cytokine signalling. The DCs produce cytokines that will act on receptors found on the T-cell (specialise the cell for a particular response)

387
Q

What happens when there is no co-stimulation and the T-cell binds to MHC?

A

The T cell becomes anergic (inactivated) and may lead to tolerance

388
Q

What are the different CD4 T cells subset and how do we get different ones?

A

There are Th1,2,17 Treg and TFH. These all have their own effector function and are obtained by the presence of particular cytokines.

IL12 -Th1 - IFN-gamma IL-2

TGFbeta -Treg - TGFbeta

IL-6 -Th17 - IL-17a, IL-21, IL-22

IL-4 - Th2 - IL-4 and IL-5

IL- 6 -TFH- IL-21

389
Q

What are the functions of the main CD4 T cells subset?

A

Th1 and Th2 are potent pro-inflammatory T cells. Th2 is more geared towards parasites (IgE production).

Th17 is neutrophil recruitment (damage in some autoimmunedisease)

Th1 typical macrophage, antibody (IgG)

Treg - controls anti-self responses

390
Q

What are the main differences between T dependent and independent B cell activation?

A

T dependent produces high affinity antibodies, memory and against protein antigens.

T-independent produces low affinity antibodies, no memory and is against polysaccharides and most lipids.

391
Q

Do T-dependent or independent B cell activation antigen work in infants?

A

Only TD shows response whereas infants cannot respond to TI.

392
Q

What happens to an activated T cell after it has received the appropriate three signals?

A

It upregulates CD40L on its surface as well as co-stimulatory molecules for B-cells

393
Q

How does T-dependent B-cell activation work?

A

Once the T-cell is activated with CD40L and releasing cytokines it drives the proliferation and differentiation of B cells (produces IgD and IgM). Without the CD40 you would only produce IgM.

  • T cell very important in isotype switching as long as the associated cytokine is present too
394
Q

So where does the B and T cell actually meet?

A

This meeting occurs in the lymph nodes (but the cells are held in separate segments.

B cells - follicles

T cells - paracortex

Macrophages and plasma cells found in the medulla

395
Q

What is the movement of Th cells and B cells in the paracortex junction?

A

DC will antigen specific T cell. B cells will increase CCR 7 and decrease CXCR5 which causes the B cells to move right and the CXCL13 to move right.

T cells will decrease CCR 7 and increase CXCR5 causing it to move left. CCL21 also moves left now.

396
Q

When the Th and B cells interact they can form the germinal centre and what occurs here?

A

B cells can only stay in this site with T cell help. This is a site for intense B cell stimulation for proliferation and affinity maturation.

397
Q

What are follicular dendritic cells and what do they do?

A

These are found in lymphoid follicles and germinal centres. Basically have a lot of antigens deposited onto it to drive B-cell activation and affinity maturation.

398
Q

What are the effector mechanisms of Th1 cells?

A

They activate macrophages, aid complement binding and opsonising antibodies and neutrophil activation.

IFN-gamma for the first two. TNF is very important for neutrophil activation.

399
Q

What are the effector mechanisms of Th2 cells?

A

Production of neutralising IgG antibodies, production of IgE, eosinophil activation and alternative macrophage activation (repair and suppression of inflammation)

Used to deal with helminthes/allergies. Mucosal protection too by enhancing mucus secretion and tissue repair.

400
Q

How do we activate CD8 T cells?

A

It requires more stimulatory signals than CD4 cells. Most cases need help from activated CD4 T cells.

  • Must still recognise antigen on DC
  • Activated CD4 T cells interact with APC and allow DC to induce CD8 activation via function of CD40L
401
Q

How does cytotoxic T cells perform their killing function?

A
  1. Granular exocytosis of granzymes + perforin to activate caspase and induce apoptosis in the target cell.
  2. FasL on the T cell will interact with Fas receptor on the cell to initiate apoptosis.

They also do signal cytokines to set up antiviral setting - upregulate MHC I via IFN-gamma

402
Q

How do the T cells enter the infected tissue?

A

Move from efferent lymphatic to circulation where levels of CCR are changed. Decrease in CCR7 makes it enter the circulation (leave lymph nodes). Increase in CXCR3 and CCR5 makes it move towards the infected site. It will also bind to similar CAM used for neutrophil infiltration.

403
Q

Chromosome condensation occurs right before replication of cells.

A
404
Q

Naming of the chromosomes for karyotype?

A

1-22 based on length, 21 and 22 switched because of size later on.

23 chromosomes in humans but diploid gives 46.

405
Q

List the important features of DNA replication and the enzymes.

A

Leading and lagging strand 5’ to 3’ extension. DNA polymerase. RNA primer on lagging strand - DNA polymerase digest those primers and extend. DNA ligase joins Okazaki fragments. Telomerase extends the ends. Helicase splits and unwinds the DNA. Semi-conservative DNA.

406
Q

What strand of the DNA is used to transcribe into a RNA transcript?

A

The RNA polymerase uses the non-coding (anti-sense) strand.

407
Q

What are the possible variations in genome between individuals?

A

Gross chromosomal changes, copy number variation (amount of specific sequences of DNA), changes to DNA sequences (base pair sub, insertion, deletion)

408
Q

What are first cousins and second cousins defined as for the pedigree?

A

1st cousins are 4 degree relatives, 2nd cousins are 5 degree relatives.

409
Q

What is penetrance in genetics?

A

Reduced penetrance is when someone with the genotype do not have the phenotype

410
Q

What is incomplete dominance in genetics?

A

Heterozygote phenotype is an intermediate of the two alleles.

411
Q

What is expressivity in genetics?

A

There is variable expressivity when an individual has the genotype.

412
Q

What is mitochondrial inheritance and how does it work?

A

Mitochondrial single chromosome is transferred. But it is transferred from the mother and not the father.

413
Q

What are polygenic and multifactorial conditions?

A

Polygenic is when more than one gene causes the condition. (May be addictive to other factors)

414
Q

What is a receptor?

A

A biological macromolecule that binds another molecule and begins a signalling or effector activity.

415
Q

What are the features of B-adrenoceptors?

A

GPCR with 7 transmembrane proteins. Responsive to NA and Adr.

Propranolol - selective antagonist (B)

Isoprenaline - selective agonist (B)

416
Q

List the four different types of receptors and their rough time course.

A

Ligand gated ion channels, GPCR, kinase-linked receptors and nuclear receptors. Listed from shortest to longest time frame.

417
Q

How do drugs work on ligand gated ion channels?

A

Agonists bind directly to the channel itself and regulates its opening.

418
Q

How do GPCR work?

A

They are linked to G-protein and may affect many different structures - ion channel, enzyme, transporter, gene transcription.

419
Q

How do kinase-linked receptors work?

A

Mostly tyrosine and serine kinases. Ligand binds extracellularly causing it to dimerise and auto-phosphorylate. Then activates cytoplasmic enzyme (kinase)

420
Q

How do nuclear receptors work?

A

Typically ligand passes cell membrane to bind to the intracellular receptor which will then regulate gene transcription.

421
Q

How can species variation affect drug effects?

A

Polymorphism in human receptor proteins can alter their responsiveness to drugs.

422
Q

What is the impact of having closely related drug receptor families or distant relatives?

A

The closer they are the more close in structure they are. This makes it difficult for selective targeting and leads to a greater general effect.

423
Q

What is the right dosage to give in a clinical setting?

A

It must be enough to do some good without causing too much side effects. (Every system is dose limiting - same response after a particular point)

424
Q

What is useful about a dose response curve in a clinical context?

A

It gives us an idea of what sensible dose increments should be. The larger the dose does not always give a larger effect. The steeper the curve the more sensitive it is to doses.

425
Q

What is the therapeutic window?

A

This is the window of dosage where it can produce a beneficial effect while not causing adverse effects.

426
Q

What is the dose-limiting side effects constraint on dosages in a clinical context?

A

The usable dose of a drug is limited by the side effect doses.

427
Q

What are some B-selective agonists?

A

Isoprenaline (B), Prenalterol (B1?)

428
Q

What is the EC50 and partial agonist vs full agonist?

A

EC50 is the concentration of drug that gives 50% of its maximal effect. A partial agonist cannot elicit a maximum response from a tissue whereas a full agonst can.

429
Q

Why are partial agonists good for clinical settings?

A

Generally it is because it prevents overdose damage.

430
Q

What are some well known partial agonist and where do they act?

A

Salbutamol - B2 adrenoceptors

Buprenorphin - opiate receptors (low tendency of addiction and tolerance)

Sumatriptan - 5-HT1 receptors (used for migraines by vasoconstricting blood to brain - but also affects heart via vasoconstriction)

Pindolol - B adrenoceptor agonist but is used as a B-blocker because it takes up receptor with partial agonist.

431
Q

What contributes to the potency of a drug?

A

Drug affinity, receptor affinity and the intrinsic efficacy of the receptors.

432
Q

Why was prenalterol (B1 selective agonist) having reduced effects in a failing atria?

A

As heart failure goes on the sympathetic stimulation rises and begins to decline until it hits the chronic stage where it begins to decrease. Seems to have resulted in desensitisation of the receptor.

433
Q

How does desensitisation work and what does it affect?

A

It works by reduced receptor availability due to internalisation. A full agonists are not affected as much because of the spare receptors they have. Whereas partial agonist typically already use up all the receptors and any loss will significantly affect their activity.

434
Q

What is the fate of inflammatory exudate?

A

The exudate is drained through the lymph nodes. Neutrophils do after a few days and macrophages are a major cleaner of debris.

435
Q

What are the outcomes of acute inflammation?

A

There is resolution where microbes are cleared and minimal damage is done (regrowth/regeneration of dead cells). There is healing by repair which may require scarring (granulation tissue forms). Or it may lead to chronic inflammation.

436
Q

What determines the outcome of acute inflammation?

A

It really depends on the tissue type (different cell regenerative abilities).

Labile (continuous cycling), stable (enters when needed - liver and fibroblasts) and permanent (cardiac myocyte and nerves).

437
Q

What are the characteristics of stem cells that allow it to regenerate particular tissues?

A

They are able to self-renew and are undifferentiated so they can generate different cell lineages.

Embryonic: pluripotent (any cell type in the body)

Adult: Generate a more limited range of cell lineages.

438
Q

How does healing of wound occur, what cells are involved?

A

The epithelium in epithelial tissues proliferate and migrate. Fibroblasts, myofibroblasts and endothelial cells are what forms scar tissue by granulation tissue formation.

439
Q

What is granulation tissue and what does it do?

A

It is the intermediate tissue to form scar tissue. It contains macrophages and lymphocytes mainly - few neutrophils from previous infection.

New blood vessels formed by degrading basement membrane - matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs) from macrophages. Migration of endothelial cells towards angiogenic stimulus, leaky at first, recruits pericytes and SMC. VEGF secreted is very important in this process.

Fibroblast migrate and proliferate with various growth factors TGF-beta. Deposition of ECM also required.

440
Q

What is healing by primary intention?

A

This is when the wound is clean, edges are closely opposed without much inflammation or scarring.

441
Q

What is meant by healing by secondary intention?

A

This is where the wound will develop granulation tissue - typically larger wounds heal by secondary intention.

442
Q

What are the growth factors involved in organisation and repair?

A

Epidermal growth factors, VEGF, FGF, TGFbeta, platelet derived growth factor. Many receptors are tyrosine kinase based. Leads to activation of transcription factors that control entry of cells into the cell cycle.

  • Leads to proliferation of epithelium, endothelium, fibroblasts and blood vessels
443
Q

What are the patterns of intercellular signalling?

A

Juxtacrine - signalling to adjacent cell via gap junctions

Autocrine: produces molecules that act on the receptor of the same cell type or same cell

Paracrine: Acts on nearby cells of different cell types

Endocrine

444
Q

What are the causes of chronic infection?

A

Sometimes it may be infection, may follow on from acute inflammation, autoimmune diseases or repeated/prolonged exposure to potentially toxic agents.

445
Q

What is chronic inflammation and some features of it?

A

This is ongoing inflammation that involves tissue damage and healing at the same time. This will persist until damaging stimulus is removed. Most of the time it destroys tissues and results in scarring.

E.g. atherosclerosis, tuberculosis, fibrosing lung disease, chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis and rheumatoid arthritis.

446
Q

What cells are typically found in chronic inflammation and their features?

A

By this stage we expect to find macrophages, lymphocytes and plasma cells with fibrosis and scarring. May see neutrophils from acute inflammation.

447
Q

What are the different macrophages’ appearances and what did they engulf?

A

These macrophages are foamy macrophages because it takes up lipid (large vacuole in the cytoplasm. Occurs in atherosclerosis).

Macrophages phagocytose carbon (in smoking) it clumps in the cell. See the pigment in macrophages.

Phagocytosis of old RBC which is then converts haemoglobulin into haemosiderin (gold brown pigment which can be seen in cells).

448
Q

In chronic inflammation do macrophages have multiple nucleis?

A

Yes they fuse together to form a giant cell

449
Q

Is the presence of lymphocytes inferrence for chronic inflammation?

A

No it does not. If the lymphocyte was found in an area you did not expect to have a lot of may be an indication of chronic inflammation.

450
Q

How to identify plasma cells in a histology slide?

A

It is a differentiated B lymphocyte with a big nucleus on the side and oval shaped cell - often there is a golgi apparatus next to it (clear spot).

May be able to spot clock faced chromatin on the edge of the cell - stained purple-ish due to increased RNA.

451
Q

What do germinal centres and what happens there?

A

This is the structure where B cells differentiate into plasma cells. The germinal centres are the paler areas. This is a secondary follicle where the B cells are activated and begin to differentiate.

452
Q

What lead to the following outcomes of chronic inflammation in - chronic rheumatic valve, cirrhosis and tuberculosis.

A

Chronic Rheumatic Valve disease - Arises from throat infection that somehow induces inflammation in the heart (valves) The mitral valve is very thickened as well as the chordinae tendin. Valve scarring can cause obstruction or incompotence.

Cirrhosis: Main cause is alcohol and viruses (Hep B and C) and metabolic syndromes. Nodular liver

Tuberculosis: Necrosis and scarring. Tuberculosis primarily affects the lungs. Can cause significant lung destruction. Secondary TB is apparent. But the primary TB nah not show clinical signs as easily as secondary TB.

453
Q

What is granulomatous inflammation and what does it involve?

A

Cells involved - epithelioid macrophages and multinucleate giant cells (fusion of macrophages). These nuclei tend to be longer (looks like fibroblasts - but they are not they are modified macrophages).

There may be lymphocytes or fibroblasts present too. Some cases there is necrosis and come up as hypereosinophilic.

Granuloma is a well circumscribed collection of these cells. Granulomatous inflammation is more disorganised term.

454
Q

What disease can granulomatous inflammation occur in?

A

Certain infections such as tuberculosis - typically intracellular infection excluding viruses.

Lymphomas and deposition of irritant (endogenous or exogenous)

455
Q

What immune system components are involved in granulomatous inflammation?

A

It is cell mediated response. Macrophages present antigen to CD4 T cells which release

IFN-gamma: activate macrophages

IL-12 - activate Th1 lymphocytes.

456
Q

What are the systemic effects of IL1, 6 and TNF?

A

It causes fevers: exogenous/endogenous pyrogens -> PGE2 synthesis in hypothalamus -> resetting set point.

Leukocytosis - neutrophilia in acute inflammation

Increase in C-reactive protein and fibrinogen. Fibrinogen binds to RBC, rouleaux formation, sediment more rapidly - basis for erythrocyte sedimentation rate.

CSR and ESR are non-specific tests for inflammation

457
Q
A