Formative Flashcards

1
Q

What forms the left border of the heart?

A

Left ventricle

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2
Q

How do you measure the width of the heart as a proportion to width of the chest?
How do you interpret this?

A

ratio of widest measurement of heart to width of inner aspect
of rib cage at widest point on a PA (posterior-anterior radiograph)
Anything over 50% suggests cardiac enlargment

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3
Q

What are some reasons why the heart shadow might become enlarged on chest xray

A

dilated left ventricle
ventricular hypertrophy
pericardial effusion

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4
Q

What is cardiac tamponade?

A

Build-up of blood or fluid in the pericardial space which

compresses the heart

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5
Q

In a patient with cardiac tamponade, why would cardiac output fall?

What would you do to improve the clinical situation?

A

fall in cardiac output because the outer fibrous layer of pericardium
is inelastic therefore pressure increases in the pericardial sac
restricts filling of the heart

remove blood or fluid by pericardiocentesis

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6
Q

Which artery is the Anterior interventricular artery (Left anterior descending artery) a branch of?

Which area of the heart does it supply?

What would happen if there was a thrombosis in this artery?

A

Left coronary artery

Supplies the anterior aspect of both ventricles and the
interventricular septum

Myocardial infarction of the anterior aspect of the heart

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7
Q

Describe the series of changes that occur in the arterial wall to cause arterial occlusion

A
atheromatous plaque forms 
rupture of plaque 
thrombus forms 
thrombus occludes artery 
leads to MI if coronary artery involved 

NOTE:
It is the thrombus or embolus (part of thrombus which breaks off) which
occludes the artery, not the atheromatous plaque

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8
Q

What are the typical symptoms experienced by a patient with MI?

A

Central crushing chest pain

which may radiate to arm or neck

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9
Q

Explain why a thrombus in the right coronary artery is more likely to cause rhythm disturbance

A

Right coronary artery supplies SA node (in 60% of people)

or supplies AV node in most people (80%)

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10
Q

What is the function of the cordae tendinae

A

Prevent the mitral valve inverting during systole

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11
Q

If the mitral valve is incompetent (failure to close properly), what will happen to the flow of blood in systole?

What would you hear on auscultation of the heart?

A

Incompetence causes blood to be regurgitated back into left
atrium

pansystolic murmur or systolic murmur

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12
Q

If the mitral valve is stenosed (difficult to open), what would happen to the flow of blood in diastole?

What would you hear on auscultation of the heart?

A

Stenosis would cause turbulent flow across valve

Mid-diastolic murmur

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13
Q

Describe how, anatomically, the heart is supported in the mediastinum

A

The heart is supported within the pericardium which has two
components:
fibrous pericardium
serous pericardium
visceral layer
parietal layer
or double layer of serous pericardium with pericardial cavity

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14
Q

What collection of defects are seen in Tetralogy of Fallot

A

Ventricular septal defect
Right ventricular outflow obstruction
Overriding aorta
Right ventricular hypertrophy

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15
Q

Would a patient with Tetralogy of Fallot be cyanosed & why?

A

Yes, because there is a right to left shunt, bypassing the lungs

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16
Q

What forms the right border of the heart?

A

Right atrium

17
Q

Name the structure in the heart responsible for the initiating electrical
activity in the heart and describe its location.

A

SAN

RA, where SVC enters

18
Q

Explain why the structure of arterioles makes them high resistance
vessels which can also vary their resistance?

A

Thick smooth muscle layer
Narrow lumen
= high resistance

19
Q

TheGPwishestoprescribeadrugwhichwilllowerthepatient’sblood
pressure by causing relaxation of vascular smooth muscle cells in
peripheral vessels. Name two possible classes of drugs which could be used.

A

L-type calcium channel blockers

Alpha 1 adrenoceptor antagonists

(ACE inhibitors also relax vascular smooth muscle, but this in not their main effect of reducing angiotensin II levels)

20
Q

Which statement below best describes the action of α1adrenoreceptors?
A α1adrenoreceptors are present on the heart and activation
increases the force of contraction

B α1adrenoreceptors are present on the heart and activation
increases the force and rate of contraction

C α1adrenoreceptors are present on the heart and activation
decreases the rate of contraction

D α1adrenoreceptors are present on peripheral blood vessels and
activation causes constriction

E α1adrenoreceptors are present on peripheral blood vessels and
activation causes dilatation

A

D

21
Q

From your knowledge of the nervous system which of the answers below
best describes the role of acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter?

A Acetylcholine activates nicotinic receptors but inhibits muscarinic
receptors.

B Acetylcholine acts on muscarinic receptors at the neuromuscular
junction and at the parasympathetic postganglionic to effector cell
synapse.

C Acetylcholine acts on muscarinic receptors at the neuromuscular
junction and at the preganglionic synapse of both branches of the
autonomic nervous system

D Acetylcholine acts on nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular
junction and muscarinic receptors at the preganglionic synapses of both
branches of the autonomic nervous system

E Acetylcholine acts on nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular
junction and the preganglionic synapses of both branches of the
autonomic nervous system

A

E

22
Q

describe the abnormality you would see on

the ECG of an individual with first degree heart block

A

Elongated P-R interval

23
Q

Where is the conduction problem likely to be located in heart block?

A

Between atria & ventricles

At AVN or Bundle of His

24
Q

What is the difference between second degree heart block and third
degree heart block (AV block)?

A

Second degree:
Intermittent failure of conduction between atria & ventricles
Not all P waves followed by QRS complex

Third degree:
Complete failure of conduction between atria & ventricles
No relationship between timing of P waves and QRS complex

25
Q

What would you expect to happen to the heart rate of an individual
with third degree heart block? Explain your answer.

A

Bradycardia

Ventricles create own rhythm but depolarise much slower

26
Q

Briefly describe how the normal ventricular septum forms

A

Muscular portion:
Grows up from Ridge from floor of ventricles to meet endocardial cushions

Membranous portion:
Formed by connective tissue of endocardial cushions
Grows down to fill foramen
Most prone to anomalous development

27
Q

Which part of the ventricular septum is Most prone to anomalous development

A

Membranous part

28
Q

Give some causes of a left to right shunt

A

Ventricular septal defect
Atrial septal defect
Patent ductus arteriosus

(Not PFO; higher left ventricular pressure pushes it closed: not a true septal defect)

29
Q

Is a patient with a ventricular septal defect likely to be cyanosed? Very briefly explain your reasoning.

A

No

No mixing of deoxygenated blood with oxygenated circulating around systemic system

30
Q

In a patient with a ventricular septal defect, Howwillthepressureinthepulmonaryarterycomparetothatofnormal (Answer one of lower, higher or same)

A

Higher
More blood flowing from left to right ventricle
Increases pressure in pulmonary circulation

31
Q

Whatwouldtheheartsoundsbelikeonauscultationofa patient with mitral stenosis and why?

A

Diastolic murmur

Blood flowing through narrowed valve during diastole

32
Q

Which heart sound is associated with closing of the mitral valve and
when in the cardiac cycle would it close?

A

S1

Start of ventricular systole

33
Q

Where in the precordium is the mitral valve best heard?

A

4th or 5th left intercostal space, mid-clavicular line

34
Q

Explain briefly why a patient with mitral stenosis is likely to develop pulmonary oedema.

A

Increase in LA pressure = increased pressure in pulmonary veins

Increased pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure

Excess filtration of fluid out of capillaries

Oedema

35
Q

Briefly state why atrial fibrillation might develop as a result of chronic
mitral valve stenosis and what type of drug might you need to consider if
she develops atrial fibrillation in order to prevent a potentially serious
complication?

A

Stretch of LA = damage to fibres
Fibrosis = re-entry circuits develop

Anticoagulant: Warfarin
AF = increased risk of thrombosis travelling to systemic circulation

36
Q

What changes in heart function would be seen in a patient with Tetralogy of Fallot of left untreated?

A

Right heart failure

NOTE:
The outflow tract obstruction makes it harder for the right ventricle
to pump blood to the lungs. This leads to right ventricular
hypertrophy and can ultimately lead to right ventricular heart
failure.