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Forensics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of offender profiling in forensic psychology?

A

To narrow down the list of suspects by deducing offender characteristics from crime scene details.

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2
Q

What is the Top-Down Approach to offender profiling?

A

A method that classifies offenders as organised or disorganised based on pre-existing templates.

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3
Q

What are characteristics of an organised offender?

A

Planned crimes, targeted victims, high intelligence, social competence, and often married.

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4
Q

What are characteristics of a disorganised offender?

A

Spontaneous crimes, chaotic scenes, low intelligence, sexual dysfunction, and social isolation.

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5
Q

Why is the Top-Down Approach limited in its application?

A

It applies only to specific crimes like murder or rape, not to common offences like burglary.

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6
Q

What is a major criticism of the Top-Down classification system?

A

It is overly simplistic and based on a small, unrepresentative sample of serial killers.

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7
Q

What are Holmes’ four types of serial killers?

A

Visionary, Mission, Hedonistic, and Power/Control.

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8
Q

What is the Bottom-Up Approach in offender profiling?

A

A data-driven method using psychological theory and analysis of crime scene evidence to build a profile.

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9
Q

What is Investigative Psychology?

A

A subfield of Bottom-Up profiling that uses statistical analysis to identify behavioural patterns.

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10
Q

What is interpersonal coherence in investigative psychology?

A

The idea that an offender’s behaviour at a crime scene reflects their everyday social interactions.

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11
Q

What is forensic awareness?

A

When an offender attempts to conceal evidence, indicating prior experience with law enforcement.

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12
Q

What is Geographical Profiling?

A

Using the location of crimes to determine the likely base and habits of an offender.

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13
Q

What are Canter and Larkin’s two offender behavior models?

A

Marauder (offends near home) and Commuter (travels to commit crimes).

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14
Q

What can the spatial pattern of a crime reveal?

A

If the crime was planned or opportunistic, and details like transport, job, or age.

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15
Q

What is a strength of Bottom-Up profiling according to Canter?

A

It is more scientific and grounded in evidence than the Top-Down approach.

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16
Q

What did Copson find about the effectiveness of profiling?

A

Profiling advice was useful in 83% of cases, but only 3% led to correct offender identification.

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17
Q

Why is Bottom-Up profiling seen as more versatile than Top-Down?

A

It can be applied to a wider range of crimes beyond murder and rape.

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18
Q

What did Kocsis et al. discover about profiling accuracy?

A

Chemistry students created more accurate profiles than experienced detectives.

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19
Q

What was Lombroso’s Historical Approach to offending?

A

He believed criminals were genetic throwbacks with primitive features.

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20
Q

What is atavistic form?

A

Physical traits like sloping brows or asymmetrical faces, believed by Lombroso to indicate criminality.

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21
Q

What non-physical traits did Lombroso associate with criminality?

A

Insensitivity to pain, use of criminal slang, tattoos, and unemployment

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22
Q

What major criticism has been directed at Lombroso’s theory?

A

It has racist undertones, linking criminal traits to features common in people of African descent.

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23
Q

What alternative explanation challenges Lombroso’s findings?

A

Facial features may result from poverty or poor diet, not biological criminality.

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24
Q

What do genetic explanations of offending suggest?

A

Certain genes may predispose individuals to criminal behavior.

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25
What did Lange’s twin study find about criminal behavior?
10 out of 13 MZ twins both served prison time, compared to 2 out of 17 DZ twins.
26
What are candidate genes in relation to crime?
Genes thought to contribute to criminal behavior, like MAOA and CDH13.
27
What did Tilhonen’s study of Finnish offenders find?
Those with abnormal MAOA and CDH13 genes were 13 times more likely to be violent.
28
What is the diathesis-stress model in criminology?
It proposes crime results from a genetic predisposition combined with environmental stress.
29
What area of the brain shows differences in criminals with APD?
The prefrontal cortex, responsible for regulating emotional behavior.
30
What did Raine et al. find about people with APD?
They had 11% less grey matter in the prefrontal cortex than control participants
31
What did Keysers et al. discover about empathy in criminals?
Criminals with APD can show empathy if prompted, suggesting a "switch."
32
What is Eysenck’s General Personality Theory?
A theory linking crime to high levels of extraversion, neuroticism, and psychoticism.
33
Why are extraverts more likely to engage in crime, according to Eysenck?
They have underactive nervous systems and seek stimulation, making them hard to condition.
34
How does socialisation affect criminal behavior in Eysenck’s theory?
Criminals struggle with socialisation, failing to learn to delay gratification or feel guilt.
35
What is a criticism of Eysenck’s theory from Farrington et al.?
Offenders scored high on psychoticism but not consistently on extraversion or neuroticism.
36
What is Kohlberg’s theory of moral reasoning in offenders?
Offenders often reason at a pre-conventional level, based on punishment and reward.
37
What did Palmer and Hollin find in moral reasoning research?
Offenders showed less mature moral reasoning than non-offenders.
38
What are cognitive distortions in criminal thinking?
Faulty thought patterns like hostile attribution bias and minimalisation.
39
How is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) used in offender treatment?
To reduce cognitive distortions and improve offenders’ understanding of their actions.
40
What is hostile attribution bias?
The tendency to perceive others’ actions as aggressive, leading to overreactions.
41
What is minimalisation in the context of offending behavior?
Downplaying the seriousness or impact of a crime to reduce feelings of guilt.
42
Which offenders are especially prone to minimalisation?
Sex offenders, who often use euphemistic language to describe their actions.
43
What is Differential Association Theory?
A theory suggesting that criminal behavior is learned through exposure to pro-criminal attitudes and behaviors.
44
According to Sutherland, what causes someone to become a criminal?
When exposure to pro-criminal values outweighs anti-criminal values.
45
What learning mechanisms does Differential Association Theory include?
Imitation, vicarious reinforcement, direct reinforcement, and direct tuition.
46
What practical explanation does Differential Association Theory offer for recidivism?
Inmates learn criminal techniques in prison from other offenders.
47
What is a strength of Differential Association Theory?
It explains criminality across all social classes, including white-collar crime.
48
What is a limitation of Differential Association Theory?
It is difficult to scientifically test or measure pro- and anti-criminal attitudes.
49
What is the main idea behind the Psychodynamic explanation of offending?
Criminal behavior results from an inadequate or dysfunctional superego.
50
What is a weak superego, and how does it lead to crime?
A poorly developed conscience due to an absent same-sex parent, leading to poor moral regulation.
51
What is a deviant superego?
A superego that internalizes immoral or criminal values from a deviant parent.
52
What is an over-harsh superego?
An excessively punitive internal voice that leads to guilt-driven criminal behavior.
53
What assumption in psychodynamic theory is not supported by evidence?
What assumption in psychodynamic theory is not supported by evidence?
54
What did Hoffman find about gender and morality?
Girls were slightly more moral than boys, contradicting psychodynamic assumptions.
55
What is a major criticism of the psychodynamic explanation?
There is little evidence that children without same-sex parents are more likely to offend.
56
What is custodial sentencing?
A punishment where an offender is imprisoned or detained in an institution.
57
What are the four main aims of custodial sentencing?
Deterrence, incapacitation, retribution, and rehabilitation.
58
What psychological disorders are commonly linked with imprisonment?
Depression, anxiety, and higher suicide rates.
59
What is institutionalisation?
The loss of independence and adaptation to prison life, making reintegration difficult.
60
What is brutalisation in prison?
The reinforcement of criminal behavior and norms through prison culture, increasing recidivism.
61
What is labelling in the context of custodial sentencing?
The stigma of being identified as a criminal, which can hinder reintegration and increase reoffending.
62
What are some benefits of custodial sentencing?
Protects the public, delivers justice, and offers opportunities for education and treatment.
63
What statistic highlights the psychological impact of prison?
Suicide rates are 15% higher in the prison population than in the general public.
64
Why might alternative sentences be more effective than prison for low-risk offenders?
They avoid labelling and allow individuals to maintain social contacts and employment.
65
What is behavior modification in prisons based on?
Operant conditioning—using rewards and punishments to shape behavior.
66
What is a token economy system?
A system where desired behaviors are reinforced with tokens that can be exchanged for rewards.
67
What are tokens considered in behavior modification?
Secondary reinforcers, which gain value through association with primary rewards.
68
How is behavior shaped in a token economy?
By breaking down behavior into small steps (increments) and applying consistent reinforcement.
69
What is a key strength of token economies in prisons?
They are easy to implement, cost-effective, and do not require specialist staff.
70
What is a key criticism of token economies?
They may be unethical due to the withdrawal of privileges, and ineffective if staff are inconsistent.
71
What is the basis of anger management programs?
The idea that faulty thinking leads to anger and aggression, which can be managed through CBT.
72
What are the three stages of anger management?
Cognitive Preparation, Skill Acquisition, and Application Practice.
73
What happens during Cognitive Preparation?
The offender identifies triggers for their anger and evaluates whether their reactions were rational.
74
What techniques are taught during Skill Acquisition?
Cognitive (e.g. self-talk), behavioral (e.g. assertiveness training), and physiological (e.g. relaxation).
75
What occurs during Application Practice in anger management?
Offenders practice new skills in role-play scenarios that simulate anger-provoking situations.
76
What is a strength of anger management programs?
They address the root cognitive causes of offending, not just the behaviors.
77
What is a limitation of anger management in criminal justice?
It is expensive and not all prisons can afford the trained professionals needed.
78
What assumption about crime does anger management challenge?
That all crime is driven by anger—many crimes (like fraud) are not.
79
What is the goal of restorative justice?
To help the victim heal and encourage offenders to take responsibility for their actions.
80
How is restorative justice typically conducted?
Through a managed meeting between victim and offender facilitated by a trained mediator.

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