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MOD Midterm > Forensics > Flashcards

Forensics Flashcards

1
Q

How does the proximate cause of death differ from the mechanism (immediate cause) of death?

A

proximate cause of death is the true cause of death; mechanism of death is the final pathophysiologic event; the proximate cause is what was primarily responsible for the final pathophysiologic even (aka the mechanism)

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2
Q

Is ventricular fibrillation/ cardiac arrest/ congestive heart failure/ or MI a proximate cause of death or the pathophysiologic events (mechanism of death)?

A

final pathophysiologic events (mechanisms of death)

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3
Q

what is the most common proximate (cause) of death in the US related to the final pathophysiologic events like ventricular fibrillation/ cardiac arrest/ MI?

A

atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD)

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4
Q

What is a manner of death and how does it differ from the cause of death?

A

the manner of death is an opinion based upon everything known about the history of the deceased the circumstances surrounding the death and all elements of the autopsy; cause of death is generally ascertained by scientific means

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5
Q

What are the differ manners of death?

A

NASHU; natural, accident, suicide, homicide, and undetermined

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6
Q

Why is homicide not the same thing as murder?

A

homicide is when the life of someone is taken by a person or entity; murder is a legal charge; therefore the category of homicide would include legal execution of an individual by a state or nation

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7
Q

Why does accurate death certification in the US serve the public interest?

A

it is vital in ascertaining the magnitude/epidemiology of diseases/disorders of most concern

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8
Q

Who can certify a natural death?

A

any licensed physician

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9
Q

Who can certify other manners of death besides natural? (including undetermined)?

A

medical examiner physicians or in certain jurisdictions, coroners or justices of the peace

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10
Q

Who can certify death if it appears to be natural but there is doubt or foul play must be ruled out?

A

evaluation of the decedent falls within the jurisdiction of a medical examiner (or in some jurisdictions a coroner or justices of the peace (JPs)

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11
Q

What is rigor mortis?

A

stiffening of muscle groups after death

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12
Q

when does rigor mortis tend to occur?

A

within hours, but manifestations are modified by ambient and/or fluctuating temperatures

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13
Q

what is algor mortis?

A

cooling of the body after death; possibly relevant and calculable based upon a steady ambient temperature; rarely can be done with great precision

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14
Q

what is livor mortis?

A

movement of circulating blood to dependent areas of the body

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15
Q

what is livor mortis useful for?

A

can be useful in ascertaining movement of a body within or from the place of death

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16
Q

What are the 3 major forms of body decomposition?

A

putrefactive, mummification, and adipocere formation

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17
Q

what is putrefactive body decomposition?

A

typically occurs in most temperature settings; increasing features of discoloration, tissue softening/liquefaction, gas production and body bloating

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18
Q

What is mummification?

A

occurs in very dry arid climate settings

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19
Q

what is adipocere formation?

A

death and immersion within a body of water with saponification of epidermal surfaces

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20
Q

What is the accuracy like of “time of death” based on elements of the major forms of body cooling/changes and forms of body decomposition?

A

time of death based on these factors is generally very much an approximation

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21
Q

How does a forensic autopsy and a hospital autopsy differ in intent?

A

the goal of the forensic autopsy is to render a (proximate) cause and manner of death via a careful medicolegal investigation employed to obtain the acquisition of justice in the service of the public

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22
Q

when is a forensic autopsy usually performed and what effect does this have on the technical features?

A

in the setting of foul play/trauma; the external examination with careful documentation of wounds by photography/drawings and schematics plays a major role; in-situ documentation of projectiles and other objects with radiographs can be very important

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23
Q

What is the intent of a hospital autopsy?

A

evaluating death due to natural causes

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24
Q

how do the technical features of a hospital autopsy differ from a forensic autopsy?

A

while external examination should still be performed carefully, it is not a central focus as in forensic autopsy

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25
Q

What are the goals of hospital autopsy centered on?

A

upon documenting extent of (natural) disease or the existence of disease that may have contributed to death but was undiagnosed prior to a patient demise

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26
Q

How long is pathology residency?

A

at least 4 years

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27
Q

how long is a forensic pathology fellowship?

A

generally 1 year

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28
Q

Who does a ME have legal duty to?

A

an ME has no duty to families or next-of-kin of deceased individuals that fall under their jurisdiction; the duty of an ME is to the public he/she serves

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29
Q

What is rigor mortis?

A

stiffening of muscle groups after death

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30
Q

when does rigor mortis tend to occur?

A

within hours, but manifestations are modified by ambient and/or fluctuating temperatures

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31
Q

what is algor mortis?

A

cooling of the body after death; possibly relevant and calculable based upon a steady ambient temperature; rarely can be done with great precision

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32
Q

what is livor mortis?

A

movement of circulating blood to dependent areas of the body

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33
Q

what is livor mortis useful for?

A

can be useful in ascertaining movement of a body within or from the place of death

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34
Q

What are the 3 major forms of body decomposition?

A

putrefactive, mummification, and adipocere formation

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35
Q

what is putrefactive body decomposition?

A

typically occurs in most temperature settings; increasing features of discoloration, tissue softening/liquefaction, gas production and body bloating

36
Q

What is mummification?

A

occurs in very dry arid climate settings

37
Q

what is adipocere formation?

A

death and immersion within a body of water with saponification of epidermal surfaces

38
Q

What is the accuracy like of “time of death” based on elements of the major forms of body cooling/changes and forms of body decomposition?

A

time of death based on these factors is generally very much an approximation

39
Q

How does a forensic autopsy and a hospital autopsy differ in intent?

A

the goal of the forensic autopsy is to render a (proximate) cause and manner of death via a careful medicolegal investigation employed to obtain the acquisition of justice in the service of the public

40
Q

when is a forensic autopsy usually performed and what effect does this have on the technical features?

A

in the setting of foul play/trauma; the external examination with careful documentation of wounds by photography/drawings and schematics plays a major role; in-situ documentation of projectiles and other objects with radiographs can be very important

41
Q

What is the intent of a hospital autopsy?

A

evaluating death due to natural causes

42
Q

how do the technical features of a hospital autopsy differ from a forensic autopsy?

A

while external examination should still be performed carefully, it is not a central focus as in forensic autopsy

43
Q

What are the goals of hospital autopsy centered on?

A

upon documenting extent of (natural) disease or the existence of disease that may have contributed to death but was undiagnosed prior to a patient demise

44
Q

How long is pathology residency?

A

at least 4 years

45
Q

how long is a forensic pathology fellowship?

A

generally 1 year

46
Q

Who does a ME have legal duty to?

A

an ME has no duty to families or next-of-kin of deceased individuals that fall under their jurisdiction; the duty of an ME is to the public he/she serves

47
Q

What is an abrasion?

A

damage to overlying skin/epidermis

48
Q

what is a laceration?

A

splitting of skin with hemorrhagic bridges in depths

49
Q

What is a contusion?

A

intact skin with hemorrhage in dermis and below

50
Q

What injuries are caused by blunt force?

A

lacerations are always caused by blunt force; contusions are often due to blunt force; abrasions are often due to blunt force

51
Q

What is a well established parameter of analysis with an appearance of yellow color associated with?

A

a contusion over 18 hours old

52
Q

How does a laceration differ from an incise wound?

A

incise wounds are generally due to edged instruments (razors, knives); incise wounds are deeper than they are wide; lacerations are wider than they are deep; lacerations have hemorrhagic bridges in the depths; incise wounds are without bridging in the depths

53
Q

What are potential comorbid factors that might enhance, exacerbate, or complicate wounding?

A

chronic renal disease (often due to diabetes and or hypertension), advanced liver disease, may be associated with more bleeding at injury sites

54
Q

What are different types of handguns?

A

revolvers and semiautomatics

55
Q

what type of velocity are handguns?

A

low velocity

56
Q

what type of bullets are handguns loaded with?

A

small caliber bullets

57
Q

what is a common handgun used by civilian concealed carry permit holders and police?

A

a hollow-point round

58
Q

What are hollow point rounds designed to do?

A

hit an individual and “mushroom over the base” when they strike tissue

59
Q

what is the effect of a hollow-point round?

A

the effect is to slow the round tumbling

60
Q

what is the purpose of a hollow-point round?

A

the deformed bullet will remain in the individual rather than passing through and injuring another; induces more tissue damage though

61
Q

how are gunshot wounds of entry characterized?

A

by marginal abrasion

62
Q

if there is an exit wound of a small caliber bullet, what is it like?

A

it often has a more stellate configuration and may be somewhat larger than the entry

63
Q

what do modern handguns have?

A

rifling (grooves cut into the lining metal of the barrel)

64
Q

what is the purpose of rifling on modern handguns?

A

this adds to weapon accuracy and imparts lans and grooves to rounds fired through the barrels

65
Q

What do “machine pistols” fire?

A

handgun ammunition

66
Q

what are civilian versions of machine pistols?

A

semiautomatic

67
Q

what are law enforcement versions of machine pistols?

A

fully automatic

68
Q

What type of velocity are long guns (rifles) considered to be?

A

high velocity

69
Q

what are long guns (rifles) loaded with?

A

fully jacketed bullets

70
Q

what do GSWs of entry of long guns look like?

A

marginal abrasions

71
Q

what do GSWs of exits of long guns (rifles) look like?

A

more stellate and considerably larger than the entries

72
Q

Do long guns have rifling?

A

yes in the barrels; for accuracy at longer ranges

73
Q

What are shotguns (smoothbores)?

A

the rounds loaded into a shotgun typically are shells that contain pellets of varying sizes

74
Q

What does firing a shotgun induce?

A

a spray of pellets

75
Q

what is dispersion of the pellets controlled by?

A

a choke structure

76
Q

What is the effect of lesser of a choke?

A

it allows for greater dispersion of the shot mass

77
Q

what is a law regarding shotguns?

A

in the US, the length of a shotgun barrel cannot be too short by law

78
Q

why are too short of barrels illegal?

A

it has virtually no choke and a wide dispersion of pellets at a short range

79
Q

What are three broad categories of firearms?

A

handguns, long guns, and smoothbore (shotguns)

80
Q

What are the different types of rifles?

A

bolt action and magazine type

81
Q

What is associated with devastating close-range injuries?

A

it is possible to load a shotgun with so-called “slugs”; such large projectiles are associated with devastating close-range injuries

82
Q

What does range refer to?

A

refers to the distance of the end of the gun barrel from the entry wound on the individual

83
Q

What does an accurate determination of range depend on?

A

having the same ammunition and same weapon to fire and recapitulate findings on the decedent

84
Q

What does an adult skull have?

A

an outer table and an inner table separated by spongy bone known as the diploe

85
Q

describe the entry wound of GSWs of the head as they typically appear in the inner and outer tables of the cranium?

A

Entry wound: outer table is sharply circumcised; inner table is beveled

86
Q

describe the exit wound of GSWs of the head as they typically appear in the inner and outer tables of the cranium?

A

Exit wound: inner table to sharply circumcised; outer table is beveled

MOD Midterm (22 decks)

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