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Check Ride Prep > For Checkride > Flashcards

For Checkride Flashcards

1
Q

Required Inspections for your aircraft are

A 
A - Airworthiness Directives
V - VOR every 30 days (IFR)
 I - Inspections (Annual and/or 100 hr)
A - Altimeter every 24 months (IFR)
T - Transponder every 24 months
E - ELT every 12 months
S - Static system every 24 months (IFR)
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2
Q

Aircraft registrations must be renewed every

A

3 years

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3
Q

What are the four types of hypoxia?

A
  1. Hypoxic
  2. Hypemic
  3. Histotoxic
  4. Stagnant
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4
Q

Explain second class medical

A

Used for commercial pilots, good for 24 months

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5
Q

Explain first class medical

A

Used for ATP’s, good for 6 months if over 40 years old, or 12 months if under age 40

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6
Q

Explain third class medical

A

Private Pilot level, 24 calendar months if over 40 years old, or 60 calendar months if under 40 years old

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7
Q

Symptoms of hypoxia

A

dizzyness, euphoria, cyanosis, similar to hypoxia

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8
Q

What are the types of spatial disorientation?

A
  1. Leans - correction of bank too slow
  2. Coriolis illusion - quick head movement during turn
  3. Graveyard Spin - recover from spin, feels spin another direction
  4. Graveyard Spiral - Losing altitude, pull tighter turn, spiral down.
  5. Somotagraphic illusion - rapid acceleration, feels nose up
  6. Inversion illusion - change from climb to level, tumble backwards
  7. Elevator illusion - updraft/vertical acceleration feels like climb
  8. False Horizon - misinterpret the actual horizon
  9. Autokinesis - Lights appear to move if starring at them
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9
Q

Standard Temperature and pressure is?

A

59° F or 15°C and 29.92 in.

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10
Q

What are 3 main layers of the atmosphere?

A
  1. Troposphere
  2. Tropopause
  3. Stratosphere
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11
Q

All weather is the result of?

A

Heat exchange

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12
Q

Wind is the result of?

A

Changes or differences in pressure.

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13
Q

What are the 4 main types of fog?

A
  1. Radiation fog
  2. Advection fog
  3. Upslope fog
  4. Steam fog
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14
Q

Describe stable air.

A

Poor visibility, stratiform clouds, continuous precipitation, smooth air.

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15
Q

Describe unstable air.

A

Cumulous clouds, showery precipitation, good visibility, strong winds.

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16
Q

What are 4 main types of fronts?

A
  1. Cold - replacing warm air
  2. Warm - replacing cold air
  3. Stationary - not moving
  4. Occluded - cold catches warm
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17
Q

Name and explain 3 types of icing.

A
  1. Clear - hard and glossy, sheet like
  2. Rime - brittle and frostlike
  3. Mix - both
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18
Q

What 3 ingredients for thunderstorm development?

A
  1. Sufficient water vapor
  2. Unstable lapse rate
  3. Uplifting action
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19
Q

What are 3 stages of a thunderstorm?

A
  1. Cumulous - updrafts
  2. Mature - falling precipitation
  3. Dissipating - large downdrafts
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20
Q

What are isobars?

A

lines on a weather chart showing areas of like pressure.

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21
Q

How long is a METAR valid?

A

Valid hourly, a special METAR can be issued when significant weather issues occur at anytime.

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22
Q

When is a METAR issued?

A

55 minutes after the hour

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23
Q

What does TAF stand for?

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forcast

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24
Q

How long is a TAF valid for?

A

Usually 24 hours, but can change.

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25
Q

When are TAF’s issued?

A

4 times a day.

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26
Q

When are PIREPS issued?

A

Issued by pilots as needed or requested.

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27
Q

Explain the following abbreviations for a PIREP:

  1. UA
  2. UUA
  3. OV
  4. TM
  5. FL
  6. TP
A

Answers:

  1. UA - Routine
  2. UUA - Urgent
  3. OV - Location
  4. TM - Time received from pilot
  5. FL - Altitude or Flight Level
  6. TP - Aircraft Type
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28
Q

What is UUA on a PIREP?

A

Uregent PIREP.

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29
Q

What is OV on a PIREP?

A

Location

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30
Q

What is a prognostic chart?

A

Forecast weather chart issues 4 times a day, cover 12 and 24 hour periods, provided for a given region, up to 24,000.

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31
Q

What is a surface analysis chart?

A

a chart that depict weather conditions as they were a few hours earlier. Developed every 3 hours to show patterns.

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32
Q

What is a weather depiction chart?

A

visual chart based on METARs. Updated every 3 hours, but is only valid at time it is issued.

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33
Q

What is a Convective SIGMET?

A

Issued for severe thunderstorms (embedded, strong, widespread etc.) that contain convective activity.

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34
Q

What is an AIRMET?

A

Issued for less severe conditions that still may be hazardous to smaller aircraft.

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35
Q

What is a SIGMET?

A

Concern severe and extreme conditions important to all aircraft.

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36
Q

What are 3 types of AIRMETs?

A
  1. Tango - Turbulence and surface winds greater than 30 knots
  2. Sierra - IFR conditions or mountain obscurations
  3. Zulu - icing conditions.
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37
Q

What is a Center Weather Advisories (CWA’s)?

A

Issued by a control centers and describe SIGMET and AIRMETs in greater details.

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38
Q

What is a ceiling?

A

Lowest broken or overcast layer of clouds.

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39
Q

What factors affect stall speed?

A

Weight and center of gravity

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40
Q

What are two types of drag?

A

Parasite and induced drag

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41
Q

How many types of parasite drag are there and what are they?

A

3, skin, form and interference drag

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42
Q

What is induced drag?

A

A bi-product of producing lift. (Redirecting air off of wing)

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43
Q

What is load factor?

A

Load the wing is supporting divided by the total weight of the airplane.

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44
Q

How does load factor affect stall speed?

A

The heavier the load, the higher the stall speed.

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45
Q

What is the formula to calculate VA?

A

Max TO weight squared, divided by landing weight squared, multiplied by max VA

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46
Q

What is the relationship between VA and weight?

A

VA increases the heavier the airplane, decreases the lighter.

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47
Q

What causes a spin?

A

an aggravated stall.

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48
Q

When are spins most likely to occur?

A

Any time a stall occurs

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49
Q

What is ground effect?

A

Reduction of induced drag from the interference of the ground.

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50
Q

What is adverse yaw?

A

When the airplane nose tends to turn the opposite of the intended turning direction.

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51
Q

What is standard empty weight pertaining to W&B?

A

Weight of airframe and engine with all standard equipment and unusable fuel and oil.

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52
Q

What is optional and extra equipment as pertaining to W&B?

A

any additional equipment that is not standard.

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53
Q

What is basic empty weight pertaining to W&B?

A

Weight of airplane with all optional equipment included.

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54
Q

What is useful load as pertaining to W&B?

A

Difference between gross TO weight and basic empty weight.

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55
Q

What is payload as pertaining to W&B?

A

The load available as passengers, baggage, freight, etc., after useable fuel and crew are deducted.

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56
Q

What is operational weight as pertains to W&B?

A

Basic empty weight plus weight of pilot.

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57
Q

What is usable fuel?

A

Fuel that is available for flight planning.

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58
Q

What is unusable fuel?

A

Fuel remaining in the tanks after runout test has been completed.

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59
Q

What is max gross weight?

A

Max permissible weight of the airplane.

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60
Q

What is max takeoff weight?

A

Weight approved for start of takeoff run.

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61
Q

What is zero fuel weight?

A

Weight of airplane exclusive of usable fuel.

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62
Q

What is indicated altitude?

A

Altitude read from the altimeter.

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63
Q

What is true altitude?

A

Actual height above sea level.

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64
Q

What is absolute altitude?

A

The actual height above terrain.

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65
Q

What is pressure altitude?

A

The altitude read from the altimeter when set to 29.92 (standard).

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66
Q

What is density altitude?

A

Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperatue.

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67
Q

How is density altitude calculated?

A

You must first know OAT and Pres. Alt. Then can use the E6B.

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68
Q

What factors affect density altitude?

A

Humidity, high temperature and low pressure.

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69
Q

Define VLE

A

Max landing gear extension speed. Does not apply

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70
Q

Define VLO

A

Max landing gear operating speed. Does not apply

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71
Q

Define Vg

A

Best glide speed, 60 KIAS

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72
Q

Define Indicated airpseed

A

Airspeed read directly from airspeed indicator.

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73
Q

Define calibrated airspeed.

A

Indicated airspeed corrected for installation and instrument error.

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74
Q

Define true airspeed.

A

The actual speed of the aircraft through the air.

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75
Q

Do we use cones or rods at night?

A

Rods at night and cones during the day.

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76
Q

When are position lights required during night flight?

A

At all times during night flight.

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77
Q

When are anti-collision lights required at night?

A

At all times if the aircraft was manufactured after August 11 1971.

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78
Q

What color are taxiway lights?

A

Blue

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79
Q

What is REIL?

A

Runway end identifier lights

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80
Q

What color is lighted airport beacon?

A

White and Green

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81
Q

What color is a light seaport beacon?

A

White and yellow

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82
Q

What color is a lighted heliport beacon?

A

Green, yellow and white.

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83
Q

What color is a lighted hospital beacon?

A

White, green and red.

84
Q

What color is a military airport beacon?

A

White, White and green.

85
Q

What does the throttle control?

A

The amount of air into the carb.

86
Q

What does the mixture control?

A

The amount of fuel available to the engine.

87
Q

What is the purpose of the voltage regulator?

A

Provides continuous overvoltage protection.

88
Q

Which instruments operate on a gyroscope?

A

Heading indicator, attitude indicator and turn coordinator.

89
Q

What are the two main fundamentals of a gyroscope?

A

Rigidity in space and precession.

90
Q

What are the limitations of heading indicator?

A
  1. Precession or drift
91
Q

What would the turn coordinator indicate in a slipping turn?

A

Ball to inside of turn.

92
Q

What would the turn coordinator indicate in a skidding turn?

A

Ball to outside of turn.

93
Q

Name the compass errors.

A

UNOS - Turning Errors
ANDS - Dipping Errors

U - Undershoot
N - North
O - Overshoot
S - South

A - Accelerate
N - North
D - Decelerate
S - South

94
Q

Name the errors affecting attitude indicator.

A
  1. Turn error
  2. Acceleration error
  3. Deceleration error
95
Q

If the altimeter pressure is increased, what will the change be?

A

The altitude will appear to increase.

96
Q

How does the pitot static system work?

A

Comparing static pressure to dynamic pressure, either by reference pressure or controlled leak.

97
Q

What instruments operate on a pitot static system?

A

Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator and altimeter.

98
Q

What pressures are compared on the altimeter

A

Static pressure compared to reference pressure.

99
Q

What pressures are compared in the vertical speed indicator?

A

Static pressure to calibrated leak.

100
Q

What pressures are compared in the airspeed indicator?

A

Dynamic pressure to static pressure.

101
Q

What is first indication of carb ice?

A

Normally a reduction of RPM.

102
Q

What is detonation?

A

Uncontrolled firing in cylinder, usually called by excessive temps or lower grade fuel.

103
Q

What is pre-ignition?

A

Occurs when fuel/air mixture ignites prematurely.

104
Q

What steps need to be taken if detonation or preignition is detected?

A

Discontinue flight as soon as possible.

105
Q

What should you do with low oil pressure?

A

Land as soon as practical.

106
Q

What procedures should you take with a partial loss of power?

A

Should be treated as a complete loss of power.

107
Q

What are the ABC’s of an engine failure?

A

A - Airspeed (glide speed)
B - Best landing Area
C - Checklist

108
Q

What procedures to conduct with engine fire in flight?

A 
Mixture - Idle cutoff
Fuel shutoff valve - off
Master switch - off
Cabin vents / air - off
Airspeed - 85 KIAS
109
Q

What procedures engine fire on ground during start?

A

Continue cranking to suck the flames back into the engine. If it starts, run for a few minutes and shut down. If it doesn’t start, secure engine.

110
Q

What is minimum altitude you can descend to when conducting a simulated emergency approach?

A

Over non congested area is 500 feet AGL.

111
Q

In the event of an alternator failure, how long will the battery last?

A

Not much longer than 30 minutes.

112
Q

If the vacuum system failed, which instruments would you lose?

A

Heading indicator and the attitude indicator.

113
Q

What are procedures for electrical fire in flight?

A

Master switch - Off
All other switches (except ignition) - Off
Vents - closed
Activate extinguisher if available

114
Q

What are class A VFR requirements?

A

Class A is IFR only

115
Q

What are class A VFR visibility requirements?

A

Class A is IFR only.

116
Q

What altitude does Class A start at?

A

18,000 feet MSL.

117
Q

How is Class A depicted on a sectional chart?

A

It is not.

118
Q

What are class B VFR visibility requirements?

A

3 statue miles of visibility and clear of clouds.

119
Q

What altitude does Class B airspace usually extend to?

A

Typically 10,000 feet MSL.

120
Q

How is Class B airspace depicted on a sectional chart?

A

Series of solid blue lines.

121
Q

What are class C VFR visibility requirements?

A

3 statue miles visibility, 1000 ft above, 500 ft below and 2000 ft horizontally of clouds.

122
Q

How is Class C airspace depicted on a sectional chart?

A

A series of solid magenta lines.

123
Q

What airspace is a Mode C transponder required?

A

Class B and within a 30nm Class B veil, and Class C (except for below a shelf).

124
Q

What are class D VFR visibility requirements?

A

3 statue miles visibility, 1000 ft above, 500 ft below and 2000 ft horizontally of clouds.

125
Q

What are class E VFR requirements?

A

Below 10,000 MSL: 3 statue miles visibility, 1000 ft above, 500 ft below and 2000 ft horizontally of clouds.

Above 10,000 ft MSL: 5 statue miles of visibility, 1000 ft above, 1000 ft below and 1 mile horizontally from clouds.

126
Q

How is Class D airspace depicted on a sectional chart?

A

Blue airport surrounded by blue dashed lines.

127
Q

What are Class G VFR visibility requirements?

A

Daytime: 1 statue mile visibility, clear of clouds.
Nighttime: 3 statue miles visibility, 1000 ft above, 500 ft below and 2000 ft horizontally of clouds.

128
Q

What are the different types of Class E airspace?

A

S - Surface (starting at surface)
E - Extension
T - Transition (starting at 700 ft AGL)

V - Victor Airways
O - Offshore (identified w/ blue zipper line)
D - Domestic Enroute
A - Above 14,500 MSL.

129
Q

Name and define different types of special use airspace

A

M - MOA
C - Controlled firing area (not depicted on sectional)

P - Prohibited Area
R - Restricted Area
A - Alert Area
W - Warning Area
N - National Security Area (TFR)
130
Q

Which airspace falls under “other” airspace category?

A
  1. TRSA - Terminal Radar Service Area
  2. Military Training Routes (IR/VR)
  3. Wildlife Refuge Areas
131
Q

Define an aircraft accident:

A

Occurrence associated with an operation of an aircraft with intention of flight, where death or serious injury occur.

132
Q

What is an aircraft incident?

A

An occurrence other than an accident which effects or could effect the safety of operations.

133
Q

When is immediate notification to the NTSB required?

A
  1. When an accident occurs
  2. When a flight control failure or malfunction occurs
  3. When a member of flight crew is unable to perform duties due to injury or illness.
  4. In flight fire
  5. Aircraft collision in flight
  6. Property damage estimated to exceed $25,000.
134
Q

Define serious injury:

A

Injury which requires:

  1. Hospitalization of more than 48 hours.
  2. Results in a fracture of bones (excluding simple)
  3. Causes severe nerve or muscle damage or involves an internal organ
  4. Involves 2nd or 3rd degree burns or burns covering more than 5% of the body.
135
Q

If requested, how long do you have to file a report with the NTSB.

A

Within 10 days.

136
Q

How long do you have to wait to operate or crew an aircraft after consumption of alcohol?

A

8 hours.

137
Q

What preflight action is required before flight not in the vicinity of an airport (cross country)?

A

N - NOTAMs
W - Weather

K - Known ATC delays
R - Runway lengths
A - Alternate
F - Fuel required
T - Takeoff and Landing distances
138
Q

When must seatbelts be worn and by whom?

A

All crew and passengers while movement on the ground.

139
Q

When converging on another aircraft, who has the right of way?

A

The aircraft to the others right.

140
Q

What aircraft has the right of way over ALL others?

A

An aircraft in distress, (then a balloon, glider, airship, powered parachute, weight shift control, airplane, rotorcraft.)

141
Q

When two aircraft are approaching airport for landing, who has the right of way?

A

The aircraft that is at the lower altitude.

142
Q

When over a heavily congested/densely populated area, what are the min. safe altitudes to operate?

A

1000 feet above the highest obstacle and within 2000 feet horizontally.

143
Q

When over an “other than congested” area, what are the min. safe altitudes to operate?

A

A min of 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated area, then not within 500 feet of person, vehicle or structure.

144
Q

What does steady green light gun signal on the ground mean?

A

Cleared for takeoff.

145
Q

What does steady green light gun signal in the air mean?

A

Cleared to land.

146
Q

What does a flashing green light gun signal on the ground mean?

A

Cleared to taxi

147
Q

What does a flashing green light gun signal in the air mean?

A

Return to land.

148
Q

What does a steady red light gun signal on the ground mean?

A

STOP

149
Q

What does a steady red light gun signal in the air mean?

A

Give way to other aircraft.

150
Q

What does a flashing red light gun signal on the ground mean?

A

Taxi clear of runway.

151
Q

What does a flashing red light gun signal in the air mean?

A

Airport is unsafe, do not land.

152
Q

What does a flashing white light gun signal mean?

A

Only applies to ground, means return to starting point.

153
Q

What does alternating red and green light gun signals mean?

A

Proceed with caution.

154
Q

What is squak code 7600 mean?

A

Lost comms

155
Q

What is squak code 7500 mean?

A

Hijacked

156
Q

What is squak code 7700 mean?

A

General Emergency

157
Q

What are VFR reserve fuel requirements for day?

A

30 minutes of reserves

158
Q

What are VFR reserve fuel requirements for night?

A

45 minutes of reserves

159
Q

What instruments are required for VFR day and night?

A

A - Airspeed indicator
T - Tach for each engine
O - Oil pressure gauge each engine
M - Manifold pressure gauge for each eng.
A - Altimeter
T - Temperature gauge for each liquid cooled engine
O - Oil temp gauge

F - Fuel gauge
L - Landing gear pos indicator
A - Anti-collision lights (After 1996)
M - Magnetic compass
E - ELT
S - Safety belts
F - Fuses (unless circuit breakers)
L - Landing light (for hire only)
A - Anti collision lights
P - Position lights (After 1971)
S - Source of electricity
160
Q

When is an ELT not required?

A

Scheduled flights by scheduled air carriers, or for training operations are conducted with 50nm of airport it began at, agricultural aircraft, or aircraft not equipped to carry more than 1 person.

161
Q

At what altitudes is oxygen required for crew members if above what duration of time?

A

12,500 ft MSL to 14,000 MSL, if longer than 30 minutes.

162
Q

At what altitudes are crew members required to use supplemental oxygen?

A

14,000 ft MSL to 15,000 ft MSL.

163
Q

At what altitudes must oxygen be provided to passengers?

A

15,000 ft MSL and above.

164
Q

What is a VASI?

A

Visual Approach Slope Indicator.

165
Q

What is a PAPI?

A

Precision Approach Path Indicator

166
Q

What is ZULU time?

A

This is world time, or UTC (Universal time coordinated).

167
Q

In eastern time zone, during DST, how is ZULU time converted?

A

Subtract 4 hours.

168
Q

In eastern time zone, during EST, how is ZULU time converted?

A

Subtract 5 hours.

169
Q

Before departure, what should passengers be briefed on?

A

No smoking, use of safety belts, locations of exits and survival equipment, emergency procedures.

170
Q

What are two most common ways to navigate?

A

Pilotage and dead wreckoning.

171
Q

What is pilotage?

A

Navigating using landmarks.

172
Q

What is dead reckoning?

A

Taking a known position and using math and other calculations to determine position and locations, such as using a compass and clock.

173
Q

What types of charts are used for VFR navigation?

A

A sectional and terminal area chart.

174
Q

What is an isogonic line?

A

A line of magnetic variation.

175
Q

What is magnetic variation?

A

Difference between magnetic and true north.

176
Q

How do you calculate magnetic variation?

A

Subtract east and add west

177
Q

What is a VOR?

A

Very high frequency omnidirectional range. 360° of radials.

178
Q

What is an NDB?

A

A non-directional beacon, which is a radio transmission from a non location.

179
Q

What is RNAV?

A

Short for area navigation, such as VOR, etc. Navigational aids.

180
Q

How many satellites typically are required for operation of a GPS?

A

Typically 3 - 4. 3 to triangulate and one additional to confirm or verify.

181
Q

What is the allowed deviation of a VOR on a ground check?

A

± 4 degrees.

182
Q

What is the allowed deviation of a VOR airborne check?

A

± 6 degrees

183
Q

What is DME?

A

Distance measuring equipment. Equipment installed in an aircraft that determines distance away from a VOR.

184
Q

What are the four C’s of lost procedures?

A
  1. Confess that you’re lost
  2. Communicate
  3. Climb
  4. Conserve fuel
185
Q

How do you activate a VFR flight plan?

A

By calling the FSS over radio while airborne.

186
Q

When is a VFR flight plan REQUIRED?

A

When flying across the Air Defense Identification Zone (you must fly a DVFR plan)

187
Q

What is CRM?

A

Crew Resource Management. Using all resources with crew members, etc.

188
Q

What are the four left turning tendencies?

A
  1. P-factor or asymmetrical thrust
  2. Torque
  3. Gyroscopic precession
  4. Spiraling slip stream
189
Q

What are the five types of altitude?

A
  1. Indicated
  2. Absolute (height above terrain)
  3. True - Height above sea level
  4. Pressure Altitude
  5. Density Altitude
190
Q

What is the lapse rate?

A

2°C per 1000 feet

191
Q

When does “night time” begin?

A

1 hour after sunset

192
Q

What altitude does class D airspace extend to (AGL)?

A

2500 feet AGL

193
Q

What altitude does Class E airspace extend to (AGL)?

A

4000 feet AGL

194
Q

What is the lowest altitude you should be at after completing a stall or steep turn?

A

1500 feet AGL

195
Q

What is ARTTC

A

Air Route Traffic Control Centers - AKA “Center”

196
Q

Ground reference maneuvers are conducted at what altitude?

A

600 - 1000 feet AGL

197
Q

What is the lowest altitude an emergency decent should be flown to?

A

1500 feet AGL unless a real emergency.

198
Q

What does the IMSAFE checklist stand for?

A 
I - Illness
M - Medication
S - Stress
A - Alcohol
F - Fatigue
E - Emotions
199
Q

What does the PAVE checklist stand for?

A

P - Personal/Pilot which uses IMSAFE
A - Aircraft
V - enVirontment
E - External Pressures

200
Q

What are the 3 P’s in risk management?

A

P - Perceive the situation
P - Process the best course of action
P - Perform that action

201
Q

What are examples of a category?

A

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, etc.

202
Q

What are examples of class?

A

SEL, MEL, SES, MES

203
Q

What is the squawk code for lost comms?

A

7600

204
Q

What is the squawk code for general emergency?

A

7700

205
Q

What is the squawk code for unlawful interference?

A

7500

Check Ride Prep (1 decks)

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