Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Prosthetics & Orthotics > Footwear Modification Quiz - Chapter 7 > Flashcards

Footwear Modification Quiz - Chapter 7 Flashcards

1
Q

A ____ serves as the foundation for LE orthotics and prosthetics

A

shoe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A good fitting shoe
minimizes _____,
Provides ______,
and absorbs shock of ____ ____ _____

A

stress, support, ground reaction forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the four basic parts of a shoe

A

sole, upper, last, and heel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which basic part of the shoe protects the plantar surface of the foot

A

sole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which basic part of the shoe covers the dorsum of the foot

A

upper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which basic part of the shoe is the base of the shoe that determines the shape of the shoe

A

last

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which basic part of the shoe is beneath the outsole under the anatomical heel

A

heel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the subparts of the sole

A

outsole, midsole, insole, welt, and shank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which part of the sole is the material that contacts the ground

A

outsole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which part of the sole is between the insole and outsole

A

midsole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The midsole is typically a ____ ____ for shock absorption and stability

A

foam polymer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The foam polymer that makes up the midsole provides _____ and ____

A

absorption and support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which part of the sole comes into contact with the foot

A

insole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which part of the sole is a strip of leather or plastic that attaches the upper and insole to the sole of the shoe

A

welt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which part of the sole is a longitudinal reinforcement of the mid portion of a non athletic shoe

A

shank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or False:

The shank is a part of the sole of an athletic shoe

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the subparts of the upper part of the shoe

A

counter, vamp, closure, toe box

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which part of the upper stabilizes the heel

A

counter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which part of the sole covers the midfoot and shaft

A

vamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which part of the sole has multiple styles

A

closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which part of the sole encloses the forefoot

A

toe box

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a shoe last

A

a model of a foot that a shoe is constructed over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the purpose of a shoe last

A

serves as the base of the shoe and determines its size and shape and simulates the normal weight bearing foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 5 different types of lasts

A

conventional last, straight last, medial last, inflare, and outflare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which type of shoe last has the toe box slightly lateral to midline

A

conventional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is another term for a conventional last

A

reverse last

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

which type of shoe last has little or no curvature making symmetrical halves

A

straight last

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

which type of shoe last has a shoe box that is slightly medial to midline

A

medial last

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the most common type of shoe last

A

medial last

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

which type of shoe last has curves even more medially from the heel than a medial last

A

inflare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

which type of shoe last has curves more laterally than the conventional last, from just distal to the heel all the way to the toe

A

outflare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

which type of shoe last looks like you’re wearing your shoe backwards

A

outflare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Variance of which characteristics of the heel greatly impact function and support

A

height, size, and compressibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The height of the heel influences the ____ required for the ankle rocker

A

ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The ____ of the heel influences the ROM required for the ankle rocker

A

height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The height of the heel influences the ROM required for the ____ ___

A

ankle rocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Heels greater than ____ inches, exponentially increases weight bearing on the metatarsal heads

A

1 1/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Is shoe sized determined more by arch length or overall foot length

A

arch length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The first metatarsal should be positioned at the (skinniest/widest) point of the shoe

A

widest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The widest part of the shoe should be wide enough for normal _____ in weight bearing

A

spray/spread of toes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

It is recommended that the shoe should be ____ longer than the longest toe

A

1/2 inch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the potential effects of a poorly fitted shoe that might be too narrow

A

hallux valgus, bunions, or metatarsalgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How might hallux valgus, bunions, or metatarsalgia be developed

A

poorly fitted shoes that might be too narrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the potential effects that age has on influencing foot contour

A

increased splay, increased forefoot height due to toe deformities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How does increased splay, increased forefoot height due to toe deformities relate to foot contour

A

age effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How might pregnancy influence foot contour

A

increased laxity, forward COM, and increased load on the midfoot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How does increased laxity, forward COM, and increased load on the midfoot relate to foot contour

A

pregnancy effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How might obesity/edema influence foot contour

A

excessive stress on the midfoot, fluctuations in circumference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How does excessive stress on the midfoot, fluctuations in circumference relate to foot contour

A

obesity/edema effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Repetitive ____ can influence affects of foot contour

A

stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

(correction/accommodation) The change in shape of the foot by placing forces on the foot to correct soft tissue which influences body modeling or alignment

A

correction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

(correction/accommodation) Supports the foot in its current or preferred position if the patient cannot tolerate correction

A

accommodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Correction of foot shape is appropriate for (flexible/rigid) deformities and is commonly seen more in (younger/older) patients

A

flexible; younger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Accommodation is appropriate for (flexible/rigid) deformities and for when you are trying to reduce ____ or _____ to a particular region of the foot

A

rigid; pain and irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the three types of prescriptive footwear that accommodates deformity, redistribute weight, facilitate normal gait, and reduce risk of neuropathic ulcer

A

Moldable leather, plastazote shoes, and custom molded shoes

56
Q

Moldable leather, plastazote shoes, and custom molded shoes are prescriptive footwear that aids in accommodating what 4 foot impairments

A

Deformity
redistribute weight
facilitate gait
reduce risk of neuropathic ulcer

57
Q

Metatarsus adductus, in-toeing, out-toeing, and toe- walking are conditions appropriate for shoe modifications in the _____ population

A

pediatric

58
Q

What are the 4 conditions in the pediatric population that are appropriate for show modification

A

metatarsus adductus
in-toeing
out-toeing
toe-walking

59
Q

What pediatric condition can be corrected by a straight or reverse last

A

metatarsus adductus

60
Q

What pediatric condition can be corrected by a reverse last

A

in-toeing

61
Q

What pediatric condition does not response to a shoe modification

A

out-toeing

62
Q

What pediatric condition has literature that says varied corrections can be used to fix this problem

A

toe-walking

63
Q

List the major conditions that can compromise foot function that relate to aging

A

diabetes, arthritis, CHF, charcot foot degeneration

64
Q

What is Charcot foot degenerative condition

A

Destruction of the tarsometatarsal or MTP joints

65
Q

Charcot foot degenerative condition is sometimes a secondary effect of ______

A

diabetes

66
Q

What are the 4 diagnosis-related considerations for the foot

A

arthritis, gout, diabetes, peripheral vascular disease

67
Q

If a patient has pain in their feet due to arthritis, how would a PT help fix the problem

A

limit abnormal motion, accommodate the deformity, and reduce loading impact

68
Q

If a patient has pain in their feet due to gout, how would a PT help fix the problem

A

limit abnormal motion, accommodate deformity, and reduce loading impact

69
Q

If a patient has pain in their feet due to diabetes, how would a PT help fix the problem

A

protect the plantar surface, distribute weight bearing pressures

70
Q

If a patient has pain in their feet due to peripheral vascular disease, how would a PT help fix the problem

A

prevent skin breakdown and cushion impact secondary to hypersensitivity

71
Q

What are the three regions of the foot

A

forefoot, midfoot, and hind foot

72
Q

What part of the foot makes up the forefoot

A

metatarsals and phalanges

73
Q

What part of the foot makes up the midfoot

A

cuneiforms, navicular, and cuboid

74
Q

What part of the foot makes up the hindfoot

A

talus and calcaneus

75
Q

Which joints are found in the forefoot

A

tarsometatarsal joints

76
Q

Which joints are found in the midfoot

A

talonavicular and calcanealcuboid joints

77
Q

Which joint are found in the hind foot

A

subtalar joint

78
Q

Metatarsalgia, seasmoiditis, and Morton’s syndrome/Neuroma are (forefoot/midfoot/hindfoot) conditions

A

forefoot

79
Q

Which forefoot condition can be described as pain around the metatarsal heads due to compression of the plantar digital nerve or the 5th MTP

A

metatarsalgia

80
Q

Which forefoot condition can be described as inflammation of sesmoid bones

A

seasmoiditis

81
Q

Which forefoot condition can be described as repetitive irritation of the plantar digital nerve between the 1st and 2nd metatarsal head or between other digits

A

morton’s syndrome/neuroma

82
Q

Hallux Rigidus, Hallux Valgus, Hammertoes, Claw toes, and Mallet toes are all (forefoot/hindfoot) conditions

A

forefoot

83
Q

Which forefoot condition can be described as DJD of the 1st MTP joint and results in a loss of extension

A

Hallux Rigidus

84
Q

Which forefoot condition can be described as a bony formation on the medial aspect of 1st MTP which results in a laterally deviated hallux

A

Hallux Valgus

85
Q

Hallux Rigidus results in pain at the end of ____ phase of gait.

A

Stance

86
Q

What are the two forefoot shoe modifications discussed in the lecture

A

Metatarsal bars and toe rockers

87
Q

Why would a metatarsal bar be a forefoot modifications

A

because it unloads the metatarsal heads and redistributes weight to the metatarsal shafts

88
Q

Explain how a metatarsal bar is a good forefoot shoe modification

A

It accommodates for forefoot rigidity
It facilitates push off
It follow the angle of the met heads

89
Q

If a patient has metatarsalgia or Morton’s Neuroma, what shoe modification recommendation would you make

A

Metatarsal bar

90
Q

Why would a toe rocker be a forefoot modification

A

because it provides a mechanical substitute for an ineffective forefoot and toe rocker

91
Q

Explain how a toe rocker is a good forefoot shoe modification

A

It adds a layer the hind and midfoot that is tapered off at the forefoot to provide the mechanical substitute of a toe rocker

92
Q

True or False:

A toe rocker has a sole that is grinded proximally to the metatarsal heads

A

False, it is distal to the met heads so the shoe does the work and doesn’t load the met heads as much

93
Q

Pes Cavus, Pes Planus, Pes Equinus, and Plantar Fascitis are all (forefoot/midfoot/hindfoot) conitions

A

midfoot

94
Q

What are the four midfoot conditions

A

Pes Cavus, Pes Planus, Pes Equinus, Plantar Fasciitis

95
Q

Which midfoot condition can be described as an exaggerated longitudinal arch

A

pes cavus

96
Q

Which midfoot condition can be described as pronation without supination at midstance when the foot is fixed or flexible

A

pes planus

97
Q

Which midfoot condition can be described as high arch

A

pes cavus

98
Q

Which midfoot condition can be described as flat foot

A

pes planus

99
Q

Which midfoot condition can be described as limited ankle dorsiflexion in either a fixed or flexible position

A

pes equinus

100
Q

Which midfoot condition can be described as inflammation of the plantar fascia with pain at its insertion of the medial calcanues

A

plantar fasciitis

101
Q

If a patient has pain with a midfoot condition, we want to restrict the joint from reaching ____ ____ to avoid pain. This does NOT mean we restrict total ROM

A

end range

102
Q

Typical midfoot accommodations involved providing addition support to the (forefoot/midfoot/hindfoot). To do this we reinforce the _____ to increase rigidity of the shoe and also reinforce the ____ to prevent collapse of the foot.

A

midfoot; shank; vamp

103
Q

Typical midfoot accommodations involved providing addition support to the (forefoot/midfoot/hindfoot). To do this we reinforce the shank to increase ____ of the shoe and also reinforce the vamp to prevent _____ of the foot.

A

midfoot; rigidity; collapse

104
Q

If a PT wants to reinforce the vamp of a shoe to prevent collapse of the midfoot, what type of shoe modification would be added to the shoe

A

a buttress

105
Q

A _____ provides additional medial or lateral support to the midfoot

A

buttress

106
Q

When should a buttress be used

A

When a heel and forefoot wedge is not adequate to control frontal plane collapse.

107
Q

In the lecture, a buttress is described as aggressive ___foot and ___foot (sagittal/frontal/transverse) plane control

A

midfoot and rearfoot frontal plane control

108
Q

Arthrodesis, Achilles Tendonitis, Bursitis and Haglund’s Deformity, Sever’s disease, calcaneovalgus and calcaneovarus are all (forefoot/midfoot/hindfoot) conditions

A

hindfoot

109
Q

Which hindfoot condition can be described as the fusion of a joint in the foot/ankle which is a treatment of severe arthritis

A

arthrodesis

110
Q

Which hindfoot condition can be described as pump bumb

A

Haglund’s deformity

111
Q

Which hindfoot condition can be described as calcaneal apophysitis

A

sever’s disease

112
Q

What are the rearfoot and heel modifications

A

shoe lifts, honey combs, rocker bottoms, and SACH (solid ankle cushioned heel)

113
Q

If a patient had a leg length discrepancy, what shoe modification would you recommend

A

shoe lifts

114
Q

A ____ reduces weight of a shoe lift

A

honeycomb

115
Q

When using an internal shoe lift, you can accommodated up to ___ inches. When using an external show lift, you must use ___ inch or greater to accommodate for the discrepanc

A

3/8; 1/2

116
Q

What type of shoe modification facilitates functional rockers and tibial progression

A

rocker bottoms

117
Q

A SACH functions as a (toe/ankle/heel) rocker

A

heel

118
Q

A (positive/negative) heel is angled anteriorly in relation to the heel counter

A

negative

119
Q

If the sole at the heel is lower than the sole at the foot then it is considered a (positive/negative) heel

A

negative

120
Q

A (positive/negative) is angled posteriorly in relation to the heel counter

A

positive

121
Q

If the heel is taller than the sole at the forefoot you have a (positive/negative) heel

A

positive

122
Q

A negative heel moves the GRF in an ____ direction which means there is (less/more) force exerted on the joint at initial contact

A

anterior; less

123
Q

Compare loading time and tibial progression speed between a positive and negative heel

A

A negative heel will prolong heel loading and slow down tibial progression while a positive heel will speed up heel loading and also speed up tibial progression.

124
Q

Would a negative heel speed up or slow down the heel rocker

A

slow down

125
Q

Would a positive heel speed up or slow down the heel rocker

A

speed up

126
Q

A positive heel moves the GRF in a _____ direction which means there is (less/more) force exerted on the joint at initial contact

A

posterior; more

127
Q

Would a positive heel increase or decrease the muscle activity of the pre-tibials

A

increase

128
Q

Would a negative heel increase or decrease the msucle activity of the pre-tibials

A

decrease

129
Q

If a patient has a fixed equinus deformity, what shoe modification would you recommend

A

heel wedge

130
Q

A heel wedge allows for (sagittal/frontal/transverse) control

A

sagittal

131
Q

If a patient has pain due to Sever’s disease or from pronation, which shoe modification would you recommend

A

A heel wedge

132
Q

A ___ ___ paired with an AFO can control tibial floor to shaft angle

A

heel wedge

133
Q

A heel wedge paired with an ____ can control tibial floor shaft angle

A

AFO

134
Q

A heel wedge paired with an AFO can control ___ floor with ____ angle

A

tibial; shaft

135
Q

If a patient has hindfoot varus or valgus, what shoe modification would you recommend

A

a heel wedge

136
Q

If a patient has poor frontal plane alignment, where would you extend a heel wedge to?

A

The forefoot

137
Q

A heel wedge is used to address (forefoot/midfoot/hindfoot)

A

hindfoot or rearfoot

Prosthetics & Orthotics (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions