Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Food hygiene written > food hygiene written > Flashcards

food hygiene written Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Gourmet Food flashcards
1
Q

A. Cadmium is taken up from the soil and filtered through the leaves.
B. Lead is taken up from the soil and filtered through the leaves

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A. Methyl-mercury has a neuro-toxic effect.

B. Methyl-mercury has a cardiotoxic effect.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A. Anthrax, you must slaughter and do necropsy.

B. Anthrax, you do not slaughter.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A. Paratuberculosis has no post-mortem lesions.

B. Paratuberculosis PM lesions are typically found in SI and prox LI

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A. Q-fever has no characteristic post-mortem lesions.

B. Q-fever has characteristic post-mortem lesions seen in the lungs.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A. Paratuberculosis, perform slaughter regardless of findings.
B. Paratuberculosis, animals should always be treated first.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A. Paratuberculosis has clinical signs.

B. Paratuberculosis has no clinical signs.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A. the official control on food safety of Molluscs/Fish. 854/2004
B. the official control on food safety of Molluscs/Fish. 854/2014

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A. dilution of the 3rd tube when using spread plate method is 10^-10.
B. dilution of the 3rd tube when using spread plate method is 10^-5.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A. amount of protein in milk is 28g.

B. amount of protein in milk is 32g.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A. the typical characteristic of natural casings of sausages is that they’re impermeable to smoke
B. the typical characteristic of natural casings of sausages is that they’re permeable to smoke

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A. spread plate the sample is already 0.1ml when you start

B. spread plate the sample is already 1.0ml when you start

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A. Pour plate the sample is already 0.1ml when you start

B. Pour plate the sample is already 1ml when you start

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A. Impedance: always DECREASES

B. Impedance: always INCREASES

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A. Boiling test must be used along with other tests.

B. Boiling test can be used alone.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A. the reason for adding antioxidants to meats is for stabilising the colour
B. the reason for adding antioxidants to meats is for medical foodstuff

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A. Eggpacking centre requires approval

B. Laying hen farm requires approval

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A. In the event of food quality defect, the food must be withdrawn from the market
B. In the event of food safety defect, the food must be withdrawn from the market

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A. In the case of single-cyst bovine cysticercosis, the non affected parts are fit for human consumption.
B. In the case of single-cyst bovine cysticercosis, the non affected parts may be declared fit for human consumption after cold treatment.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A. Cracked eggs are unfit for human consumption.

B. Cracked eggs are fit for human consumption only after heat treatment.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A. Quick cured meats shall be chilled.

B. Quick cured meats shall be stored at room temperature.

A

It says fast cured and long cured meat should be kept under 15°C, so…..A..?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A. Histamine can be measured if there is a doubt of freshness of fishery products
B. Total volatile basic nitrogen can be measured if there is a doubt of freshness of fishery products

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A. Noble moulds are obligate pathogens, this makes them utilisable to the food industry.
B. Noble moulds do not produce mycotoxins, this makes them utilisable to the food industry.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A. In the case of foot and mouth disease, the meat from pigs derived from a protection zone and slaughtered in an immediate way may be used for production of animal feed.
B. In the case of foot and mouth disease, the meat from pigs derived from a protection zone and slaughtered in an immediate way may be used for human consumption, however only after heat treatment.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A. A core temperature, of minimum 70 degrees, should be reached by the heat treatment of Frankfurters.
B. A core temperature, of minimum 90 degrees, should be reached by the heat treatment of Frankfurters.

A

A
Core temperature of 65°C would be sufficient to achieve the protein coagulation, but for hygienic reason and in order to eliminate a major part of micro-organisms, core temperature of 70-72°C must be reached. (practical 10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A. The control of personal hygiene is the main element of the official control of good hygiene practice.
B. The control of personal hygiene is the main element of the official control of HAPCC system.

A

A?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A. Fresh class “A” eggs shall be chilled below 5 degreesC at the farm.
B. Fresh class “A” eggs must not be artificially chilled on the farm.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A. Animals diseased in anthrax shall be treated.

B. Animals diseased in anthrax shall be slaughtered.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A. Live bivalves cannot contain histamine.

B. Live bivalves cannot contain Salmonella spp. in 25g of sample (0/25g)

A

B
2073/2005/EC
(practical 7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A. Establishments manufacturing foods containing unprocessed products of animal origin shall be approved by a competent authority.
B. Establishments manufacturing foods containing unprocessed products of plant origin shall be approved by a competent authority.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A. In the event of a non compliance with the food safety criterion laid down in the microbiological regulations of the EU in force, the food must not be placed on the market.
B. In the event of a non compliance with the food safety or process hygiene criterion laid down in the microbiological regulations of the EU in force, the food must not be placed on the market.

A

A

Pathogen microorganisms in
foodstuffs 4: Regulation of microbiology: food safety
EU regulation 2073/2005/EC

Food safety criteria: limits that determine the acceptability of foods for human consumption → noncompliance:
food safety defect → distribution shall be prohibited, product shall be recalled from the market

  • Process hygiene criteria: indicate proper operation without any direct effect on the acceptability of foods →
    improvement of technology, however this shall not affect the distribution of the given food
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A. the main aim of curing is to inhibit the growth of Staph aureus
B. the main aim of curing is to inhibit the growth of Clostridium botulinum

A

B
Lecture on week 7 of Semester 1, it has a chart called chemical mathods, under curing, purpose of application, it says “Color, taste, preservation (C. botulinum)”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A. The hair line cracked eggs are not fit for human consumption
B. The hair line cracked eggs are fit for human consumption

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A. Salmonella positive flocks infected with S. enteritidis are not fit for human consumption.
B. Salmonella positive flocks infected with S. enteritidis must be slaughtered separately

A

B
Separate slaughter and the detained storage of carcases and offal can be ordered:
if the stock’s animal health status so requires (e.g. in the case of poultry flocks positive for S. Enteritidis or S. Typhimurium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A. it is each member states competence to define their official control organisations
B. The eu regulation on official food control in force defines both the general principles and the official control organisations that shall perform the controls

A

A

official control organisations → national issue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A. In Hungary, the official control of the whole food chain is performed by a single food chain control authority.
B. In Ireland, the official control of the whole food chain is performed by a single food chain control authority.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A. Advantages of using natural casing: impermeable

B. Advantages of using natural casing: permeable to smoke and water vapour

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A. Complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims at detecting cross contamination of carcasses during slaughter.
B. Complementary bacteriological meat inspection aims at detecting conditions associated with bacterial disseminations or local infections occurred in the slaughtered animal.

A

B
Indications for Complementary bacteriological meat inspection
o Any suspicion suggestive of bacterial dissemination, except when septicaemia can clearly be
established on the basis of the gross pathological lesions
o The presence of purulent lesions or inflammatory or necrotic foci in the parenchymal organs
o Cases of icterus or dystocia (obstructed labour)
o Suspicion of poisoning
o Official veterinarian’s professional judgement and decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A. Trueperella pyogenes causing bacterial dissemination in pigs is a zoonotic bacterium
B. Trueperella pyogenes causing bacterial dissemination in pigs has no public health significance

A

B
Trueperella pyogenes, Pseudomonas aeruginosa strains do not cause disease in humans according to lecture notes but the internet says T. pyo can cause (self limiting) infections…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A. Meat products intended for human consumption may only be manufactured in a registered establishment
B. Meat products intended for human consumption may only be manufactured in a approved establishment

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A. If chronic erysipelas is detected at meat inspection, the carcass must be declared unfit for human consumption.
B. If chronic erysipelas is detected at meat inspection, the carcass can be declared fit for human consumption after heat treatment.

A

A
Diseased animals must not be slaughtered for human consumption. Identified at the slaughterhouse, judgement in all erysipelas forms of pigs is total condemnation. Other animal species being diseased by E. rhusiopathiae: total condemnation (unfit for human consumption)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A. A meat product is determined according to the cut surface of the product, which no longer has the characteristics of fresh meat
B. A meat product is determined according to the production process of the product, which refers to subsequent change in texture compared to raw meats

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A. in case of dry pastas, contamination with L. monocytogenes may present a significant food safety risk
B. in case of dry pastas, contamination with S. aureus may present a significant food safety risk

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A. The OIE listed diseases are notifiable human disease

B. The OIE listed diseases are notifiable animal disease

A

B

OIE-listed diseases: notifiable animal diseases with possible human health relevance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q 
Which statement is true for Salmonella?
A. Indol production is negative
B. Voges-Proskauer test is positive
C. Lactose fermentation is positive
D. H2S production is positive
A

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which statement is false for Listeria monocytogenes?
A. Catalase test is positive
B. Rhamnose negative
C. Its typical colonies on ALOA agar are blue
D. Shows summer saulting motility at 25°C

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q 
Which statement is false for E.coli?
A. Citrate utilisation test is positive
B. Indole test is positive
C. Voges-Proskauer test is negative
D. Methyl red test is positive
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q 
Enterococcus faecalis can grow:
A. Between 10-60°C
B. At pH 2.6
C. At 6.5% salt concentration
D. Grow on blood agar with 70% bile content
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which statement is false?
A. Limulus test is suitble for detection of Gram - bacteria
B. Impedence measurement works with special media only
C. The microbial count can be determined by detecting the amount of ATP
D. The redox potential of the medium decreases during the bacterial growth.

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which statement is true?
A. Enteroccus faecalis is catalase positive
B. Staphylococcus aureus is cultured in Fraser broth
C. Positive colonies of E.coli are bluish green on TBX agar
D. Enterobacteriaceae cannot ferment glucose

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which statement is false?
A. Listeria monocytogenes’ beta-haemolysis strenghtens the haemolysis of Staphyloccous aureus
B. Salmonella colonies are reddish purple on XLD agar
C. Salmonella decomposes lactose
D. MRSV agar can be used instead of RVS broth in the enrichement procedure of Salmonella

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which statement is true for Clostridium perfringens?
A. Cultured on sulphite cycloserine agar
B. B and C strains are pathogenic for humans
C. In LS broth incubated at 25°C
D. No haemolysis on blood agar

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which statement is false?
A. Selective media of moulds have low pH
B. Enteroccus faecalis is one of the most resistant among the non-spore forming microbes
C. Enterococcus faecalis is catalase positive
D. E.coli can ferment lactose

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q 
Which statement is true for Staphylococcus aureus?
A. Produces toxin between 8-45°C
B. Reduces nitrate to nitrite
C. No haemolysis on blood agar
D. Gram negative
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the suitability of sampling based on suspicion and annual monitoring plan? Write the letters to the adequate line:
A. It is used to inspect the cause of foodborne disease
B. It is used to determine the drug residues in the food
C. It is used to investigate the chemical contaminants of the food
D. It is used to detect the poisonous source

A

Sampling based on suspicion: A,D

Sampling based on monitoring plans: B,C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Classify the different screening methods into
Microbial growth inhibition test and Receptor based test:
A. Meatsafe test
B. KIS test
C. Brilliant black reduction test
D. Snap test

A

Microbial growth inhibition test: B,C

Receptor based test: A,D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q 
What is the quantity of one sample based on the legal regulation in case of the foods below? Pair the sample with the adequate quantity:
A. Turkey meat
B. Stone fruit
C. Mammal fat
D. Cow milk
A

Cow milk: 500ml
Turkey meat, Mammal fat: 500g
Stone fruit: 1kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the characteristics to the objective inspection program and the selective control?
A. It is used to survey attributes of food
B. It is used to screen the non-compliant items occurring rarely
C. The sample is selected by targeted risk evaluation
D. The results of the investigation are valid for the whole population

A

Objective inspection program: A,D

Selective control: B,C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q 
Classify the different screening methods into Microbial growth inhibition method and Receptor based test:
A. Rosa test
B. Delvotest
C. Four plate method
D. Beta star test
A

Microbial growth inhibition method: B, C

Receptor based test: A,D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q 
What is the quantity of one sample based on the legal regulation in case of the food below?
A. Mammal meat
B. Pulse (leguminous)
C. Sausage
D. Milk
A

Milk: 500ml
Mammal meat, sausage: 500g
Pulse: 1kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is not true for gas chromatography?
A. It is not suitable for analyzing inorganic materials
B. Heat sensitive materials can also be analyzed
C. It has higher resolution capacities than liquid chromatography
D. It can be connected with mass spectrometric detection

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the main bottleneck of molecular spectroscopy?
A. Detection and quantification levels are not low enough
B. It is suitable for analyzing solid samples
C. Only one compound can give a signal in the given wavelength
D. It requires too high amount of analytical sample

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which one is not characterstic of indicator organisms?
A. Should be informative in all types of waters
B. They are obligate pathogens
C. Characterized by longer survival time than the general enteral pathogenic microbes.
D. Their quantity must show direct correlation with the degree of faecal contamination

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which statement is true for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A. Gram positive, rod shaped, oxidase positive, non spore-forming bacteria
B. Occurs in faeces, soil, water and waste water
C. Can be used as an indicator of faecal contamination
D. Provides information about defects of filtering process

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which statement is false for sulphite reducing Clostridia and Clostridium perfringens?
A. Obligate anaerobic, spore forming bacteria
B. Most representative is Clostridium botulinum, which is a natural member of faecal microflora
C. Spore can survive in the water for a long time and are highly resistant to disinfection
D. The presence in drinking water indicates the possibility of protozoa cysts and defects of filtering process

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which statement is false for heterotrophic aerobic bacteria?
A. Determined at 15°C and 37°C
B. Long term examination can be used for control of the treatment of water
C. Sudden increase in the number refers to a defect in the water treatment
D. Carried out by pour plate method

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which statement is true for total coliforms?
A. Associated with a more or less faecal contamination
B. Direct indicators of faecal contamination or have health risk
C. Presence in drinking water indicates the possibility of protozoa cysts
D. Belonging to the Streptococcaceae family

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which statement is true for the organic acids as preservatives?
A. Usually these substances have bactericide effect
B. The organic acids are effective in dissociated form
C. The effectiveness of the preservatives depends on the concentration temperature
D. At low pH value the degree of dissociation is higher

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which statement is true for the water removal?
A. The microbes can multiply at any water activity circumstances
B. Reducing the water activity inhibits the multiplication of microorganisms
C. The bacteria can grow below 0.8 aw
D. The aw requirement of bacteria is lower than the moulds

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which statement is true for the heat treatement?
A. All of the vegetative cells can be eliminated with 60°C heat treatment
B. Enterococcus can survive 80°, 30min heat treatment
C. All the spores can be eliminated with 80°C heat treatment
D. The most commonly used preservation method in the food industry

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q 
The typical spoilage flora of meat products are?
A. Moulds
B. Yeasts
C. Micrococci, Lactobacilli
D. Salmonella spp.
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q 
The typical spoilage flora of bakery products are?
A. Moulds
B. Lactobacilli
C. Yeasts
D. Clostridium botulinum
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which one is characteristic of indicator organisms?
A. Should be informative in all types of waters
B. They are obligate pathogens
C. Charcterized by shorter survival time than the general enteral pathogenic microbes
D. Their quantity does not show direct correlation with the degree of faecal contamination

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which statement is false for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A. Gram negative, rod shaped, oxidase positive, non-spore forming bacteria
B. Occurs in faeces, soil, water and waste water
C. Can be used as an indicator of faecal contamination
D. Provides information about the general cleanliness of the water distribution system

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which statement is true for sulphite reducing Clostridia and Clostridium perfringens?
A. Obligate aerobic, spore forming bacteria
B. Most representative is clostridium botulinum, which is a natural member of faecal microflora
C. Spores can survive in the water for a long time and are highly resistant to disinfection
D. Provides information about the general cleanliness of the water distribution system

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which statement is true for heterotrophic aerobic bacteria?
A. Determined at 15°C and 37°C
B. Long term examination can be used for conrol of the treatment of water
C. Sudden increase in the number refers to a faecal contamination in the water treatment
D. Carried out by the MPN method

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which statement is false for total coliforms?
A. Associated with a more or less faecal contamination
B. Direct indicators of faecal contaminaton or have health risk
C. Provide good information on the microbiological status of the water
D. Belonging to the Enterobacteriaceae family

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which statement is false for the organic acis as preservatives?
A. Usually these substances have a bacteriostatic effect
B. The organic acids are effective in undissociated form
C. The effectiveness of the preservatives depends on the concentration temperature
D. At low pH value the degree of dissociation is higher

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which statement is false for the water removal?
A. The microbes can multiply at certain water activity circumstances
B. The reducing of water activity inhibits the multiplication of microorganisms
C. The bacteria can grow below 0.7 aw
D. The aw requirement of bacteria is higher than the moulds

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which statement is false for the heat treatment?
A. All of the vegetative cells can be eliminated with the 60°C heat treatment
B. Enterococcus can survive in 60°C for 30 minutes
C. All the spores cannot be eliminated with 80°C heat treatment
D. The most commonly used preservations method in the food industry

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What part of the electromagnetic radiation spectrum can be used for analytical purposes?
A. Only the ultraviolet and the visible parts
B. The ultraviolet, visible and near infrared parts
C. The ultraviolet, visible, infrared and x-ray parts
D. The whole spectrum can be used

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The main bottleneck of mass spectrometry?
A. Detection and quantification levels are not low enough
B. It is not suitable for analyzing solid samples
C. It is suitable only for structure analysis of chemically clean materials
D. It requires too high amount of analytical sample

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How many meat stamps should go on a body?
A. 5
B. 3

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which category of shells should be wash

carefully/for a long time, A, B or C?

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

which type of meat has low level of glycogen?
A. PSE
B. DFD

A

B

DFD Low amount of glycogen in the muscles before slaughter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

which bacterium is the direct indicator of fecal contamination in water?
A. E. coli, Enterococcus
B. Pseudomonas, Coliforms

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

in cattle and pig during a routine examination you should cut the lymph nodes of the head or not, and if yes which ones?

A
  • Routine in Cattle! Only if suspicious in pig

- Maxillary, retropharyngeal and parotid LN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

8 months old cattle or above it, which part of the body is SRM?
A. Spinal cord
B. Hindlimb

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

cattle and pig, bleeding out in horizontal/transversal/or both way?
A. Horizontal
B. Transversal

A

B

90
Q

what do you identify in Eber’s test?
A. NH3
B. H2O2

A

A

91
Q

which should be highlighted on a sticker of products?
A. Manufacturer’s processing number
B. Allergens

A

B

92
Q

which bacteria are identified by membrane filtration method?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Heterotrophic aerobic bacteria

A

A
(100 ml (drinking) / 250 ml (bottled) water sample on Cetrimide agar)

Heterotrophic aerobic bacteria detected using Pour-plate method

93
Q

what happens if an animal doesn’t have all the official papers/certificates at the
slaughterhouse?
A. Slaughter is permitted but the meat has to be stored separately from
other meat until we have the paper
B. Animal must be isolated until papers are produced

A

A

94
Q

which form of the myoglobin is irreversible?
A. Sulphomyoglobin, Chylomyoglobin
B. metmyoglobin

A

A

95
Q

which yellow colouring of the meat is pathological?
A. Icterus
B. Pink

A

A

96
Q

Which animal has a personal paper for transporting?
A. Rabbit and poultry
B. Cattle and horse

A

B

97
Q

Chicken boiling the water temperature depends on what?
A. Time taken to boil
B. Later cooling technology

A

B

98
Q

Where do they eviscerate small game?
A. on a tablecloth
B. a post hunting collection
shed

A

B?

99
Q

What drug is in group A?
A. Antibiotics
B. Chloramphenicol (also anabolic substances e.g hormones, stilbene, nitrofuran, tyreostatics, zeranol, beta agonists)

A

B

100
Q

What sample you DON’T take in primary sampling?
A Milk
B meat
C urine

A

C

101
Q

From what do you take a sample of 500g?
A. Mammal meat
B. Eggs

A

A

102
Q

What is not true for an assay with roots in suspicion?
A. When there is a suspicion, sample is taken from the suspected contaminated food/product in order to detect food borne disease and poisonous source
B. Sample is taken from all food from farm

A

A

103
Q

In what range of light can you get information about quantity?
A. Visible
B. IR

A

B

104
Q

Mass spectroscopy?
A. sample is converted into ions, high sensitivity, low detection limit, only a small amount of sample required.
B. sample is converted into ions, low sensitivity, high detection limit, only a small amount of sample required.

A

A

105
Q

Atomspectroscopy:
A. sample is converted into atomic state and light absorption is measured.
B. sample is converted into atomic state and heat absorption is measured.

A

A

106
Q

For what would you use molecular spectroscopy?
A. Information on quantity
B. Qualitative analysis

A

B

107
Q

What kind of microflora is used in curd?
A. mesophilic lactic acid bacteria
B. thermophilic lactic acid bacteria

A

A

108
Q

What kind of microflora is used in kefir/koumiss?
A. lactic acid bacteria and yeast
B. mesophilic lactic acid bacteria

A

A

109
Q

What kind of microflora is used in yoghurt?
A. lactic acid bacteria and yeast
B. thermophilic lactic acid bacteria

A

B

110
Q

What paint (stain) can paint the lactate producing bacteria?
A. Methylene blue
B. Crystal violet

A

A

111
Q

What method roots in receptor binding?
A. Rosa
B. Delvo

A

A

also snap test

112
Q

What method has roots in microbe inhibition?
A. KIS
B. Rosa

A

A

also fourplate, delvo test, brilliant black reduction test

113
Q

What’s the colour of a positive DELVO test?
A. Purple (negative: yellow)
B. Blue (negative: Red)

A

A

114
Q

Which method would you use for protein definition in milk?
A. Mass spectronomy
B. Klejdahl method

A

B

formal titration, FTIR (fourier transformation infrared spectroscopy)

115
Q

What method would you use to find out if there was cheating with milk?
A. Density measurement
B. Milk weight measurement

A

A

density decreases when foreign milk added

116
Q

What is the method that shows if the milk was heat-treated or not?
A. Phosphatase or peroxidase test
B. Oxidase examination

A

A

117
Q

Which is the durable permanently (?) milk?
A. UHT
B. Fresh

A

A

118
Q

A. Hazard analysis critical control point (HACCP):
food safety regulation system applicable to the entire food chain, increases efficiency, enables cost-effective management, preventative approach rather than control
B. Hazard analysis critical control point (HACCP):
food safety regulation system applicable to the consumer end of food chain, increases efficiency, enables cost-effective management.

A

A

119
Q

In faecal contamination of water which microbe do you search for?
A. Strept. faecalis
B. Clost. Perfringens

A

A

also E.coli

120
Q

A. Strept. Agalactiae can cause human disease, but cannot be gotten from the bovine groups
B. Strept. Agalactiae cannot cause human disease

A

A

can infect humans, but not zoonotic

121
Q

What is that cant be on chicken meat?
A. salmonella
B. campylobacter

A

A

122
Q

What is the primary source of yersinia enterocolitica?
A. Raw beef
B. Raw pork

A

B

123
Q

Which has the lowest aw?
A. Moulds
B. Bacteria

A

A

124
Q

Which is based on last years production?
A. Poultry
B. Dairy

A

A

125
Q

Which CANNOT be contaminated during primary production?
A. Yoghurt
B. Sausage

A

B

126
Q

Alcohol test used for?
A. Examination of contamination
B. Examiantion of freshness and acidity

A

B

127
Q

pH sorbic acid works best at?
A. pH 7.3
B. pH 5.5

A

B

lowest

128
Q

A. D value is the time for (surviving) population to be reduced by 1 magnitude at a specific temp.
B. D value is the time for (surviving) population to be increased by 1 magnitude at a specific temp.

A

A

129
Q

A. The Z-value is the change in temperature, which results in a tenfold change in the decimal reduction
B. The Y-value is the change in temperature, which results in a tenfold change in the decimal reduction

A

A

130
Q

A. lactobacillus are Gram-positive, spore-forming bacteria

B. lactobacillus are Gram-positive, non-spore-forming bacteria

A

B

131
Q

A. Peroxidase test is the storch test

B. Peroxidase test is the milk fat test

A

A

132
Q

A. Salmonellae are thermophilic bacteria that cannot grow below 20 °C.
B. The minimum temperature at which salmonellae can still grow is 6 °C.

A

B

133
Q

A. Water activity lower than 0.97 inhibits the growth of salmonellae.
B. Eggs may become infected with salmonellae usually through the pores of the eggshell.

A

B

Salmonella water activity, Min: 0.94, optimum 0.99

134
Q

A. Salmonellae release a heat-labile enterotoxin and a cytotoxic protein in the intestines of the consumers that cause diarrhoea.
B. Salmonellae are psychrophilic bacteria that can even grow at refrigerator temperature.

A

A

135
Q

A. Salmonellae are mesophilic bacteria.

B. To destroy salmonellae in meat products a heat treatment of 90 °C for at least 10 minutes is needed.

A

A

136
Q

A. All serotypes of salmonellae causing typhus in animals are capable of inducing disease in humans.

B. Salmonella Enteritidis is the most common serotype causing disease in humans.

A

B

- (Typhus causative agents are always sp. sensitive)

137
Q

A. The identification mark denoting that the inspected meat is fit for human consumption, shall be applied directly to the carcass.
B. In line with classification of wastes, materials with the highest risk are assigned to Category 1.

A

B

Identification note is applied onto packaging

138
Q

A. In line with classification of wastes, materials with the highest risk are assigned to Category 3.
B. In cattle, the intestines are SRM materials irrespective of the animal’s age.

A

B

139
Q

A. The animal health mark denoting that the inspected meat is fit for human consumption, shall be
placed on the packaging.
B. In cattle, the tonsils are SRM materials irrespective of the animal’s age

A

B

directly onto carcass – fresh meat

140
Q

A. In the case of asymptomatic carriage of Salmonella spp. the animals must not be slaughtered for human consumption.
B. If Salmonellosis is identified in one organ of a slaughtered animal, the whole carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption.

A

B

141
Q

A. Campylobacter positive broiler flocks shall be slaughtered separately.
B. If Listeriosis is identified in one organ of a slaughtered animal, the whole carcass shall be declared
unfit for human consumption.

A

B

142
Q

A. If Yersiniosis is identified in one organ of a slaughtered animal, the whole carcass shall be declared
unfit for human consumption
B. Salmonella positive broiler flocks infected with any serotypes shall be slaughtered separately.

A

A

143
Q

A. Rigor mortis develops as a result of an anaerobic glycolysis.
B. Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP .

A

B

144
Q

A. In pigs, the final pH of the meat is reached faster than in cattle.
B. In cattle, the final pH of the meat is reached faster than in pigs.

A

A

145
Q

A. Due to pH reduction, the water holding capacity of the proteins increases.
B. Due to pH reduction, the water holding capacity of the proteins decreases.

A

B

146
Q

A. DFD meat is more prone to spoilage

B. The water holding capacity of the PSE meat is higher

A

A

147
Q

A. Myoglobin is a bright red pigment that is formed at high oxygen pressure
B. The PSE meat is lighter than the normal one because it reflects more light

A

B

a. Myoglobin is purple, Oxymyoglobin = bright red, Metmyoglobin = brown

148
Q

A. Metmyoglobin is a purple pigment that is formed at high oxygen pressure.
B. The water holding capacity of proteins is the lowest near their isoelectric points.

A

B

149
Q

A. Emergency slaughter involves the urgent bleeding of animals suspected of infection
B. In pigs, only a smaller proportion of a consignment to a slaughterhouse shall be identified individually

A

B

150
Q

A. Each individual animals of an equine consignment shall be identified as a part of the ante-mortem health inspection at the farm
B. Immediate slaughter means the urgent bleeding of any injured, but otherwise healthy animals

A

A

i. Emergency = injured animals, Immediate = infected animals

151
Q

A. Food chain information shall be prepared by the official vet as a part of the ante-mortem health
inspection at the farm
B. Each individual animals of an equine consignment shall be identified as a part of the ante-mortem health inspection at the farm

A

B

should be prepared by the farmer

152
Q

A. If the food chain information is missing, but the results of the ante-mortem health inspection are satisfactory, the slaughter can be permitted by ordering the meat to be detained
B. If the live animals cannot be identified, a separate slaughter shall be ordered

A

A

b. Animal shall be killed bloodless separately

153
Q

A. In the case of poultry flocks positive for Salmonella Enteritidis, a separate slaughter shall be ordered
B. If the food chain information is missing, but the results of the ante-mortem health inspection are satisfactory, the slaughter shall be postponed

A

A

slaughter goes ahead but meat detained for <24h

154
Q

A. Animals deriving from a farm being under animal health restriction due to CSF can be ordered to immediate slaughter at a designated slaughterhouse if the suspicion of infection was excluded
B. Animals deriving from a farm being under animal health restriction due to CSF shall be killed at a designated slaughterhouse

A

A

155
Q

A. Routinely, the carcasses and offal of cattle are to undergo a visual-only post-mortem inspection.
B. In calves under six weeks old, the masticatory muscles are not examined by incision.

A

B

i. Pig & poultry – visual only (incision if suspect)

156
Q

A. In cattle, the sub-maxillary LNs shall be sliced on suspect only.
B. In cattle, the peri-bronchial and mediastinal LNs shall be sliced.

A

B

157
Q

A. In cattle, the liver is inspected visually, and on suspect by palpation and incision.
B. In cattle, incision shall be made into the main biliary ducts.

A

B

158
Q

A. If the results obtained from the microbiological examination of carcasses fail to meet the process hygiene requirements the meat shall be condemned
B. If the results of the salmonella examination fail to meet the process hygiene requirements the meat can be put on the market

A

B

A would be true for food safety hygiene, but this is process hygiene criteria

159
Q

A. Bleeding of pigs shall be performed with the animal suspended
B. Bleeding of pigs can be performed wither in vertical or in horizontal positions

A

A

160
Q

A. Singeing is aimed at loosening the hair follicles at a temp of 58-62C
B. After processing the GIT of pigs it can be used for manufacture of meat products for human
consumption

A

B

i. Scalding loosens hair follicles

161
Q

A. Cattle stunned mechanically usually by captive bolt gun

B. In pigs, esophagus is ligated before the head is removed

A

A

true for ruminants

162
Q

A. After bleeding, scalding of ruminant’s carcasses is targeted at loosening the hair follicles
B. In cattle, head is inspected at a separate inspection point

A

B

skin removed

163
Q

A. Edible offal of ruminants shall be chilled to <4oC

B. Carcass of pigs shall be chilled to <7C

A

B
(A false 3oC for offal)

(B true for all mammals except rabbits)

164
Q

A) Diseases are included in the OIE list because of their public health significance
B) Diseases are included in the OIE list because of their animal health significance

A

B

165
Q

A. In the case of anthrax, animals suspected of being disease or infected must not be slaughtered.
B. In the case of anthrax, animals suspected of being disease or infected shall be slaughtered separately.

A

A

not at all! – spores

166
Q

A. In the case of FMD outbreak, susceptible animal originated of restricted areas shall be killed
B. Although echinococcosis is an important zoonosis, only the affected organs shall be condemned & the rest of the carcass may be fit for human consumption

A

B

167
Q

A. Although TB is an important zoonosis, if chronic TB is diagnosed in one organ, only the affected
organ & its LNs shall be condemned
B. In case of ASF, susceptible animals originated from restricted areas shall be killed at the designated slaughterhouse

A

A

168
Q

A. In case of BSE, diseased or infected animals must be killed at the designated slaughterhouse.
B. Since bovine cysticercosis is an important zoonosis, when only a single cyst is found in the whole
carcass shall be declared unfit for human consumption.

A

A

169
Q

A. In case of CSF, susceptible animals originated from restricted areas shall be killed at a designated slaughterhouse
B. In case of an ASF outbreak, all pigs at the farm of outbreak shall be killed

A

B

A TRUE if the suspicion of infection was excluded

170
Q

A) The general rules & specific requirements of official food control are described by EU directives that are directly applicable in all Member States
B) The Community provisions do not prescribe any organisational structures to be applied

A

B

Eu regulations are

171
Q

A. According to the Community provisions, official food control shall be performed according to similar principles & using the same set of methods
B. Community provisions determine the organisational structures to be applied in order to harmonise
the official food controls

A

A

172
Q

A. In most European countries a single uniform food chain safety authority is responsible for official food control
B. In most European countries multiple authorities with shared responsibilities are involved in the official food control

A

B

173
Q

A) Food safety risks at retail level are higher than at whole-sailing therefore the rules of retail distribution of foods of animal origin are included in the EU regulation on hygiene of foods of animal origin.
B) Cold stores are operating under the effect of the EU regulation on hygiene of foods of animal origin.

A

B

174
Q

A. Within the EU, foods may move freely & their official control shall take place at their place of origin & destination
B. There are 2 basic documents that shall accompany the food consignment in the trade inside the EU, the CVED & the Animal Health Certificate

A

A

175
Q

A. Food consignments of animal origin can enter the territory of the EU after veterinary checks at border inspection posts only.
B. At the border inspection posts documentary checks shall be performed supplemented with physical
checks in case of suspect.

A

A

both documentary & physical checks performed

176
Q

A) Even in small-scale operations, poultry can only be slaughtered at an approved slaughterhouse for public consumption
B) In a small-scale operations, fresh meat of pigs & ruminants can be marketed from farm gates or to retail establishments

A

B

177
Q

A. In small-scale operations, fresh meat of pigs & ruminants can be marketed from farm gates or at local markets
B. In small-scale operations, fresh meat of poultry can be marketed from farm gates or at local markets

A

B

178
Q

A. In small-scale operations, chilled raw milk can be marketed within 2 hours after milking
B. In small-scale operations, the total plate count of raw cows milk shall be less than the 1,500,000

A

A
(can be kept for even longer also)

a) Raw cow milk <1,000,000, other sp. milk = <1,500,000; SCC is not obligatory

179
Q

A. If it passes inspection the vet will fill in the 1st part of the CVDE
B. If it passes inspection the vet will fill in the 2nd part of the CVDE

A

B

180
Q

A. The first part for the CVED should be filled before it arrives at the border
B. The second part for the CVED should be filled before it arrives at the border

A

A

181
Q

A. The official vet keeps the original CVED and health cert
B. A copy of the CVED shall be kept by the official
veterinarian for minimum 3 years

A

B

182
Q

A. Checks that certify health/CVED correspond to the physical exam
B. CVED certifies quality

A

A

183
Q

A. Impedance measurement works with special media only

B. The microbial count can be determined by detecting the amount of ATP

A

A

184
Q

A. Limulus test is suitable for detection of Gram-neg-bacteria
B. Limulus test is suitable for detection of Gram-pos-bacteria

A

A

detects endotoxins

185
Q

A. Listeria monocytogenes’ b-haemolysis strengthens the haemolysis of Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus aureus’ b-haemolysis strengthens the haemolysis of Listeria monocytogenes

A

A

186
Q

A. Salmonella colonies are reddish purple on XLD agar

B. Salmonella decomposes lactose

A

A

Cannot decompose lactose!

187
Q

A. Enterococcus faecalis is one of the most resistant among the non-spore forming microbes
B. Enterococcus faecalis is catalase positive

A

A

188
Q

A. E.coli can ferment lactose

B. Enterobacteriaceae are oxidase positive

A

A

189
Q

A. Staphylococcus aureus is cultured in Fraser broth

B. Positive colonies of E.coli are bluish green on TBX agar

A

B

S. aureus: Giolitti-Cantoni broth and Baird-Parker agar

190
Q

A. Selective media of moulds have low pH

B. Enterobacteriaceae cannot ferment glucose

A

A

191
Q

A. MRSV agar can be used instead of RVS broth in the enrichment procedure of Salmonella
B. Only MRSV broth can be used in the enrichment procedure of Salmonella

A

A

192
Q

a) General rules of the official food control are included in the food law of EU.
b) General rules of the official food control are included in a separate EU regulation.

A

A

193
Q

a) In the event of any labeling error, the food must be withdrawn from the market.
b) Withdrawal the food from the market due to a labeling error is conceivable in justifiable cases ( e.g in case of food safety deficiencies) only.

A

B

194
Q

a) Where Echinococcus cyst are found in the liver, the affected organ shall be condemned and the rest of the carcass may be declared fit for human consumption after cold treatment.
b) Where Echinococcus cyst are found in the liver, the affected organ shall be condemned and the rest of the carcass may be declare fit for human consumption.

A

B

195
Q

a) If chronic erysipelas is identified at the meat inspection, only the affected organs shall be declared unfit for human consumption.
b) If chronic erysipelas is identified at the meat inspection, the whole carcass must be declared unfit for human consumption.

A

B

196
Q

What is NOT the aim of salting?

a) taste enhancement.
b) inhibiting rancidification

A

A

197
Q

a) In sheep, the clinical signs of foot and mouth disease are mild with lameness only.
b) In goat, the clinical signs of foot and mouth disease are mild with lameness only.

A

A

198
Q

What is the pH limit of the enterotoxin production Staphylococcus aureus?

a) 4.3
b) 5.3

A

B

199
Q

Which microbes must be tested to evaluate the food safety of egg products?

a) Salmonella spp
b) Enterobacteriaceae

A

A

200
Q

a) Staphylococcus aureus bacterium causing bacterial dissemination in pigs may also cause disease in humans when getting in the GI tract with the meat.
b) Staphylococcus aureus bacterium causing bacterial dissemination in pigs will not cause any disease in humans when getting in the GI tract with the meat

A

A

201
Q

True or False: “The eggs with blood spots are unfit for human consumption”.

a) True
b) False

A

B

Class B eggs are fit for human consumption

202
Q

a) In case of dry pastas, contamination with Salmonella bacteria may present a significant food safety risk.
b) In case of dry pastas, contamination with Campylobacter bacteria may present a significant food safety risk.

A

A

203
Q

a) The OIE is the World Organisation for Human Health.

b) The OIE is the World Organisation for Animal Health.

A

B

204
Q

a) Core temperature of raw pig meat intended for production of minced meat must not exceed +4C in the preparation room.
b) Core temperature of raw pig meat intended for production of minced meat must not exceed +7C in the preparation room.

A

B

205
Q

a) All food establishments shall be approved by the competent authorities.
b) Food establishments manufacturing foods of animal origin under the scope of Regulation 853/2004 EC shall be approved by the competent authorities.

A

B

206
Q

What is NOT a microbial hazard in case of ripening of raw fermented sausage?

a) relative low pH of the product due to lactic acid production.
b) relative high temperature at the beginning of ripening.

A

A

207
Q

a) Broken eggs are unfit for human consumption.

b) Broken eggs are fit for human consumption only after heat treatment.

A

A

208
Q

Which health standard is NOT referred to in the live bivalves?

a) presence and amount of the intravalvular fluid.
b) determination of the total volatile basic nitrogen.

A

B

209
Q

Which salt is the most important component of curing?

a) Sodium chloride.
b) Sodium nitrite.

A

B

210
Q

a) In order to perform the complementary meat inspection, at least seven samples shall be taken from the carcass.
b) In order to perform the complementary meat inspection, samples shall be taken from the neck skin before chilling

A

A

211
Q

Why is ice added during the preparation of meat batter?

a) it is needed to keep the meat batter cold during cutting.
b) it is only needed for the juiciness of the product

A

A

212
Q

a) In the event of a non-compliance with a process hygiene criterion laid down in the microbial regulation of the EU in force, the food must not be placed on the market.
b) In the event of a non-compliance with a process hygiene criterion laid down in the microbial regulation of the EU in force, the food may be placed on the market.

A

B

213
Q

a) Salmonella-positive flocks infected with S.Typhimurium must not be slaughtered for human consumption.
b) Salmonella-positive flocks infected with S.Typhimurium must be slaughtered separately.

A

B
(Technically both statements are true as if S.Typhimurium is confirmed the whole carcass of the bird is condemned but in the lectures it only states point B)

214
Q

a) In Hungary, the official food control is performed by more food control bodies with shared responsibilities.
b) In Ireland, the official food control is performed by more food control bodies with shared responsibilities.

A

B

215
Q

a) Control of water quality is a main element of the official control of good hygiene practice (GHP).
b) Control of personal hygiene is a main element of the official control of the HACCP system.

A

A

216
Q

What is the minimal meat content level of the basic red meat products (e.g Lyoner)?

a) 0.66
b) 0.51

A

B

217
Q

a) In infants, Clostridium botulinum spores occurring in the honey may cause toxico-infection.
b) In infants, germination of Clostridium botulinum spores occurring in the honey will be impeded by the intestinal flora.

A

A

218
Q

a) The pH of the egg white is alkaline.

b) The pH of the egg white is acidic.

A

A

219
Q

a) Animals suspected of being diseased with anthrax shall be killed bloodlessly.
b) Animals suspected of being diseased in anthrax must be vaccinated.

A

B
Diseased or suspected of being diseased or infected animals must not be slaughtered (they must be treated
or vaccinated)

220
Q

Which investigation is the part of the official control of the fishery products?

a) presence of the poisonous fish and biotoxins in the fish.
b) presence of the amount of toxin-producing planktons in the water of the production area.

A

A

221
Q

a) Cured-raw meat products prepared by slow curing can be stored at room temp.
b) Cured-raw meat products prepared by slow curing shall be stored chilled.

A

A

Food hygiene written (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions